Volume 3 Flashcards
1
Q
Who is responsible for acting as the Equipment Approval Authority (EAA)?
A
EAO.
2
Q
Who assumes custodial responsibility for equipment on their account?
A
Property custodian.
3
Q
Who processes equipment transfers when the assets are identified by the equipment liason office (ELO) of a deploying unit?
A
Air Force Global Logistics Support Center
4
Q
Who processes requests for equipment items?
A
Property custodian.
5
Q
Who acts as the Equipment Review and Authorization Activity ERAA ?
A
Property custodian.
6
Q
Who is responsible for implementing policy?
A
Air Force Materiel Command AFMC
7
Q
Who has financial liability to compensate for property lost, destroyed, or damaged due to mismanagement or negligence in their care?
A
Every Individual.
8
Q
What is an allowance standard?
A
A document that describes the items and quantities of equipment normally required by Air Force (AF) activities and individuals to accomplish the mission.
9
Q
Where can you find allowance standards?
A
Through on-line query screens in Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001).
10
Q
What is a BOI?
A
The authority which establishes the number of items to be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization
11
Q
What code tells you if an equipment item is an Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) item?
A
Equipment management code (EMC).
12
Q
How are non-Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) items identified?
A
By Equipment management code (EMC) 1 (Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) NF1).
13
Q
What form is used to request equipment items where the approval authority is at base level or below?
A
AF Form 2005.
14
Q
What form is prepared to recommend/request changes to equipment allowance standards?
A
AF Form 601
15
Q
When are multiple items with different federal supply classes included on a single AF Form 601 requiring higher than base level approval
A
When the request is against the same Allowance source code (ASC) and the background and justification for all the items are the same.
16
Q
What Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001) screen is used to input an AF Form 601 request?
A
Automated allowance change request (TACR).
17
Q
List the four situations when you would NOT input a 601 request into Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001).
A
End-of-day; explosive ordinance disposal (EOD) items, special weapons, multiple items, or if it contains classified information.
18
Q
What is the purpose of authorized and in-use details?
A
To control and account for Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) equipment.
19
Q
What TRICT is used to load, change, or delete Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) records?
A
FCI.
20
Q
What FCI format do you use to load an authorized/in-use detail?
A
1.
21
Q
What are the two methods for processing equipment turn-ins?
A
Post-post and prepost.
22
Q
Which turn-in method is used to process the TINTurn-in to Supply (TIN) after picking up the property?
A
Post-post.
23
Q
How are non-Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) items turned in?
A
AF Form 2005 in four copies, TRICT TIN, and activity code P.
24
Q
How are Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) turn-ins processed?
A
AF Form 2005 in five copies (for post-post) and three copies (for pre-post), TRIC TIN and activity code E.
25
What reject is produced when you try to process a turn-in against an NSN that has due-outs?
383.
26
What TRIC is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another?
FET.
27
What listing provides you with the capability to ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances?
Allowance source code (ASC) listing (Q09).
28
What is identified by the Q10 as a result of comparing the authorized quantity against the in-use and due-out quantities?
Out-of-balance conditions.
29
What is the primary purpose of the CA/CRL Custodian Authorization & Custody Receipt Listing?
Serves as a custodian receipt when signed by the custodian.
30
What does a CA/CRL Custodian Authorization & Custody Receipt Listing jacket file normally consist of?
Current CA/CRL Custodian Authorization & Custody Receipt Listing and custodian appointment letter.
31
How often are CA/CRL Custodian Authorization & Custody Receipt Listing jacket files verified?
Quarterly.
32
Who may sign for equipment items?
Only the primary or alternate equipment custodian, or organization commander.
33
Which Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCDs) identify Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) assets?
XD/XF.
34
What Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to conduct formal instruction on the repair and maintenance of an item?
Training spare.
35
What Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to detect or isolate a fault in on-line equipment?
Shop standard spare.
36
What Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) asset is located with, but is not a component part of the basic set, as listed in the Illustrated parts breakdown (IPB)?
Fault isolation spare.
37
What SPRAM Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance asset is used in place of TMDEtest measurement and diagnostic equipment to perform calibration of an item?
Test station spare.
38
What SPRAM Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to determine the accuracy of various measurements in other assets?
Stand-alone spare
39
What Transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) details?
1XA.
40
What product is used to inventory SPRAM Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance assets and serves as a custody receipt when signed by the custodian?
R25.
41
What controlled item codes Controlled item code (CICs) arc used to identify weapons?
SRC of A, and CICsControlled item code (CICs) N, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, or 8.
42
How are Communication security (COMSEC) items identified on the item record?
SRC of C and Materiel management code (MMCs) of CA, CK, CL, CO, CR or CY
43
Daily change reports for weapons and Communication security (COMSEC) are identified by what document identifier codes?
Document identification code (DIC) XHA.
44
How often must you reconcile weapons and Communication security (COMSEC) detail records?
Annually for weapons (30 April) and semiannually for Communication security (COMSEC) (15 March and 15 September).
45
What product is used for weapons or Communication security (COMSEC) reconciliation?
Weapon/Communication security (COMSEC) Reconciliation (R46).
46
What are the key responsibilities of Stock Control?
Stockage policy and managing requisitions.
47
What term defines the average quantity used daily?
Daily Demand Rate (DDR).
48
What type of stock level is based on past demands from users?
Demand Level.
49
What term is used for the repair rate of the current and past four quarters?
Average percent of base repair (PBR)
50
What is the term for the average elapsed time, in days, between the initiation and receipt of stock replenishment requisitions?
Order and shipping time (O&ST).
51
What term represents the number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle?
Repair cycle quantity (RCQ).
52
What term reflects the quantity that must be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment
Safety level quantity (SLQ).
53
What type of minimum adjusted stock level has a reorder point one-third the adjusted stock level quantity?
Type level A.
54
Which minimum adjusted stock levels are automatically deleted once the demand level equals or exceeds the total minimum level?
Type levels A and B.
55
What type of adjusted stock level restricts stockage?
Maximum adjusted level.
56
What type adjusted stock level should you establish for seasonal items
Maximum, type level D.
57
What type of adjusted stock level maintains an item's stockage position at a constant level?
Adjusted fixed level.
58
What form is used to request an adjusted stock level? How many copies are needed?
AF Form 1996. Two (2) copies.
59
What type detail is used to control and manage adjusted stock levels?
L type adjusted stock level details.
60
How often are adjusted stock levels validated?
At least every 2 years.
61
What product is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels?
R35.
62
What action occurs during the review of an adjusted stock level?
The initiator confirms that the approved level is still required in the quantity described in the original justification.
63
What action occurs during the validation of adjusted stock levels
Complete line item review in which the requesting activity certifies that the requirement and authority for each level is still valid.
64
What type item does the Readiness based leveling/level (RBL) system compute demand levels for?
Selected Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) XD items.
65
How often are Rreadiness based leveling/level (RBLs) updated?
Quarterly.
66
By what document identifier code are Readiness based leveling/level (RBLs) received at each base?
Document identification code (DIC) XCA.
67
What are two instances when an Readiness based leveling/level (RBL) may be less than an approved minimum or fixed level?
(1) When there is an insufficient worldwide requirement to allocate to the minimum/fixed level.
(2) When the base's minimum/fixed level is not registered in the D035 system.
68
As a requirements element clerk, are you required to manually review A2*s/A4*s/FTRs before processing?
No, they are input without review.
69
On 18 May 09, your base reported it had three excess connector cables. You issued two of these before receiving disposition instructions. What occurs when the Redistribution order (RDO) is input?
An Redistribution order (RDO) denial (Document identification code (DIC) B7*) is produced.
70
What type of redistribution results from a local management decision?
Nondirected redistribution.
71
What type of redistribution is a lateral support shipment?
Nondirected, special.
72
What routing identifier codes (Routing identifier code (RIC)) are used on lateral support shipments?
JLS or D**.
73
What is a transfer?
A transfer is the movement of materiel to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS).
74
What are shipment exception codes used for?
To identify item records that require special shipping action, or to notify local management when shipping action has been taken
75
What are the two main types of requisitions?
Automatic and special.
76
What does the term MILSTRIP stand for?
Military standard requisitioning and issue procedures.
77
What is the purpose of Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP)?
Provides a standard method of requisitioning supplies from the source of supply.
78
What agencies are required to use Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP) procedures?
All branches of the Service.
79
In what format are requisitions submitted to the source of supply?
Document identification code (DIC) Accountable officer (AO)*.
80
When does the Materiel Management System identify and requisition stock replenishment requirements?
When items have an asset position down to or below its reorder level.
81
What is the key to achieving and maintaining a well-balanced stock position?
Timeliness in submission of stock replenishment requisitions.
82
What series of requisition serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?
9000-9899.
83
What is the purpose of Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)?
Provides a standard method of ranking competing needs among activities to their overall importance.
84
What combinations of codes determine the requisition priority to be used at the Source of supply (SOS)?
Force activity designator (FAD) and Urgency-of-need designator (UND).
85
What sequence should status be processed in?
Same sequence it is received in
86
In what format is requisition status received?
Supply or shipment (AE*/AS* or AU*).
87
What is the consequence of not processing status immediately?
You will create more work because of unnecessary follow-ups, receipt rejects, and incorrect cancellations and billings.
88
What are the different types of Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP) status?
Positive supply status, cancellations, intransit/shipped, and exception/other.
89
What status type has the worst effect on an account?
Cancellation.
90
What Requisition exception code (REX) code is used to indicate that a requisition was cancelled from the source of supply?
Requisition exception code (REX) 1.
91
What information does shipment status provide to the requisitioner?
Actual shipping date and mode of shipment.
92
What status types are generated by program control at base level?
Cancellation requests and follow-up.
93
What action does the supply source take when they receive a cancellation request?
Either confirm the cancellation or furnish shipping status.
94
What two cancellation status codes are assigned under program control?
ZC, ZD.
95
When is follow-up action initiated?
When supply status information is overdue or the estimated delivery date has passed.
96
When will in-line follow-up be performed for a priority 03 requisition when 100 percent status is required?
Four days after the requisition date.
97
Within what time frame must ARC images be worked before another is output?
Five days.
98
What are supply difficulties?
Deficiencies resulting in a delay of item support that can't be corrected locally and that ultimately affect the operational capability of the base or unit involved.
99
How are supply difficulties reported?
AF Form 1667, message, or e-mail.
100
Processing supply difficulty reports must not take more than how many calendar days?
Seven.
101
What is the Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program; Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program?
Used to identify shipments that have been delayed or misplaced between the Source of supply (SOS) and the receiving base.
102
How often is the Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program; Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program run?
At least twice a month -- on the first and third weekend.
103
What products are used to trace delinquent shipments?
Transportation tracer lists, parcel post tracer list, receipt acknowledged error list, consolidated shipment error list, exception action listing.
104
Which tracer listing is used to review due-ins remaining in the computer that have been receipted in supply, but not completely cleared?
Receipt Acknowledge Error List.
105
Which tracer listing is used to trace consolidated shipments that exceed age requirements and have no due-in detail?
Consolidated Shipment Error List.
106
How often is a due-out review conducted?
On a daily basis for Urgency-of-need designator (UND) A and on a weekly basis for Urgency-of-need designator (UND) A and B due-outs.
107
Which listing may be used instead of the D18 in performance of due-out review?
R01.
108
How often are priority due-outs validated?
Monthly for Urgency-of-need designator (UND) A and B
109
What are the two methods of releasing due-outs?
Automatically and forced.
110
What three Transaction identification code (TRICs) may be used to force release a due-out?
Due-out release (DOR), Rreceipt (REC), Turn-in to Supply (TIN).
111
What Transaction exception code (TEX) code is used in a Due-out release (DOR) input to force release a due-out?
Transaction exception code (TEX) 3
112
What Transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process a due-out cancellation?
Designed operational capabilities (DOC).
113
What does review code I indicate on a due-out cancellation input?
That Stock Control has reviewed the cancellation input.
114
What section must be notified of all cancellations of equipment due-outs?
Equipment Management.
115
For Billed-not-received (BNR) transactions, local purchase items will appear on the listing after how many days once the vendor bill is received and processed?
7 days.
116
What is created whenever a referral order is honored, and credit is given to the shipping base?
Shipped Not Credited details.
117
What CD-ROM research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers?
Federal logistics (FEDLOG).
118
What search criteria does Federal logistics (FEDLOG) provide for making queries?
National item identification number (NIIN) or National stock number (NSN), part number, item name, supplier name, Commercial and government entity (CAGE), Federal supply classification; flight-line service center (FSC), INCitem number code (INC), Stock record account number (SRAN), and base address.
119
Which data screen displays the indicative data needed to load new National stock number (NSNs) into Standard base level computer (SBLC)?
Management Data Screen
120
What is the main advantage of using the D043A over Federal logistics (FEDLOG)?
The D043A is updated in real time.
121
How are Illustrated parts breakdown (IPBs) normally identified and published?
Dash four (-4) series of technical orders.
122
Illustrated parts breakdown (IPBs) are normally broken down into what three sections?
Introduction, group assembly parts list, and numerical index.
123
How are next higher assemblies determined in the Technical order (TO) system?
The indent dot system.
124
What is the source code for part number 53-39303-99?
P2.
125
What is the next higher assembly for figure and index number 2-9-12?
Bell crank assembly, main landing gear shrink LH.
126
What is the volume, figure, and index number for part number 53-39307-3?
1-35-40.
127
What code provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibilities, support methods, and disposition instructions?
Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR) code.
128
What Technical order (TO) reference lists Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR) codes and provides a complete explanation of each?
Technical order (TO) 00-25-195.
129
What Transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load a new stock number?
Transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL.
130
What records are established by processing a FIL input?
Item record and repair cycle record
131
What does the first position of an Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost (ERRC) designator signify?
The expendability of an item of supply.
132
How long are expendable items accounted for on supply records?
Until they are issued for use.
133
What does the second position of an Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost (ERRC) designator signify?
It identifies those items recoverable through repair or those items not normally subject to repair.
134
Under what two Transaction identification code (TRICs) may a part number detail be loaded?
Transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL/1AA.
135
What benefit is provided by establishing a part number detail record?
It automates the part number to stock number cross reference file and reduces external research action.
136
Why must you ensure a part number is correct before you load it?
Because the part number cannot be edited under program control.
137
What is a non-catalogued number?
Non-Catalogued stock numbers are numbers assigned by an Air Logistics Center (ALC) Item Manager pending assignment of a National stock number (NSN).
138
What does position 7 of a non-catalogued number indicate?
Position 7 identifies the Air Logistics Center (ALC) assigning the NC number.
139
What input is used to change the stock number, Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD), Equipment management code (EMC), routing identifier, and budget code?
Indicative data change (FIC).
140
Stock number changes are made only as a result of what conditions?
AF Form 86 action, stock list changes, or to correct erroneous file maintenance data on original FIL inputs.
141
Explain the difference between a stock number change and a stock number merge.
A stock number change exists when the change to stock number is not in the Materiel Management System database. A stock number merge exists when the change to stock number is already in the Materiel Management System database.
142
What input loads or changes the item record nomenclature, shelf life code, quantity unit pack, and the demilitarization code?
FNL.
143
The nomenclature field is limited to how many characters?
32.
144
What input changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack?
Uunit price/unit of issue change (FCU).
145
How are the two types of deletes processed?
Internal deletes by program control and external deletes by FID processing.
146
What is the purpose of Stock Number User Directory (SNUD)?
To provide automatic updates to item records.
147
What reports are output to the D071 system as stock numbers are loaded or deleted at each base?
BDFA, BDFD.
148
How often is the Materiel Management System database reconciled with the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) Stock Number User Directory (SNUD) file?
Annually.
149
What is an Interchangeable and substitution group (ISG)?
A group of items with similar physical and functional characteristics that provide compatible functional performance.
150
Information on Interchangeable and substitution group (ISGs) are provided by what system?
D043B.
151
Which of the following subgroups within an Interchangeable and substitution group (ISG) is the least desired for retention: AA, AB, AC, or AD?
AA.
152
How was the order of use system designed?
To exhaust the stocks of least desirable items before the master item is used.
153
What is the maximum number of items authorized in a base level Interchangeable and substitution group (ISG)?
24.
154
What relationship code identifies items that can be used in place of other items only for particular uses or under certain conditions (Special conditions)?
S.
155
Who must sign the justification letter to request a local Interchangeable and substitution group (ISG) relationship?
Operations or logistics commander (or the designated representative).
156
How can you ensure a request has been coordinated with other base users?
Research the consolidated transaction history register for the past 6 months and look for issues/due-outs.
157
What Transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete an Interchangeable and substitution group (ISG)?
FIS.
