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2S051 > Volume 3 > Flashcards

Volume 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for acting as the Equipment Approval Authority (EAA)?

A

EAO.

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2
Q

Who assumes custodial responsibility for equipment on their account?

A

Property custodian.

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3
Q

Who processes equipment transfers when the assets are identified by the equipment liason office (ELO) of a deploying unit?

A

Air Force Global Logistics Support Center

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4
Q

Who processes requests for equipment items?

A

Property custodian.

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5
Q

Who acts as the Equipment Review and Authorization Activity ERAA ?

A

Property custodian.

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6
Q

Who is responsible for implementing policy?

A

Air Force Materiel Command AFMC

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7
Q

Who has financial liability to compensate for property lost, destroyed, or damaged due to mismanagement or negligence in their care?

A

Every Individual.

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8
Q

What is an allowance standard?

A

A document that describes the items and quantities of equipment normally required by Air Force (AF) activities and individuals to accomplish the mission.

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9
Q

Where can you find allowance standards?

A

Through on-line query screens in Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001).

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10
Q

What is a BOI?

A

The authority which establishes the number of items to be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization

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11
Q

What code tells you if an equipment item is an Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) item?

A

Equipment management code (EMC).

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12
Q

How are non-Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) items identified?

A

By Equipment management code (EMC) 1 (Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) NF1).

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13
Q

What form is used to request equipment items where the approval authority is at base level or below?

A

AF Form 2005.

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14
Q

What form is prepared to recommend/request changes to equipment allowance standards?

A

AF Form 601

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15
Q

When are multiple items with different federal supply classes included on a single AF Form 601 requiring higher than base level approval

A

When the request is against the same Allowance source code (ASC) and the background and justification for all the items are the same.

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16
Q

What Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001) screen is used to input an AF Form 601 request?

A

Automated allowance change request (TACR).

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17
Q

List the four situations when you would NOT input a 601 request into Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001).

A

End-of-day; explosive ordinance disposal (EOD) items, special weapons, multiple items, or if it contains classified information.

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18
Q

What is the purpose of authorized and in-use details?

A

To control and account for Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) equipment.

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19
Q

What TRICT is used to load, change, or delete Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) records?

A

FCI.

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20
Q

What FCI format do you use to load an authorized/in-use detail?

A

1.

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21
Q

What are the two methods for processing equipment turn-ins?

A

Post-post and prepost.

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22
Q

Which turn-in method is used to process the TINTurn-in to Supply (TIN) after picking up the property?

A

Post-post.

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23
Q

How are non-Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) items turned in?

A

AF Form 2005 in four copies, TRICT TIN, and activity code P.

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24
Q

How are Equipment authorization inventory data (EAID) turn-ins processed?

A

AF Form 2005 in five copies (for post-post) and three copies (for pre-post), TRIC TIN and activity code E.

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25
Q

What reject is produced when you try to process a turn-in against an NSN that has due-outs?

A

383.

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26
Q

What TRIC is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another?

A

FET.

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27
Q

What listing provides you with the capability to ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances?

A

Allowance source code (ASC) listing (Q09).

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28
Q

What is identified by the Q10 as a result of comparing the authorized quantity against the in-use and due-out quantities?

A

Out-of-balance conditions.

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29
Q

What is the primary purpose of the CA/CRL Custodian Authorization & Custody Receipt Listing?

A

Serves as a custodian receipt when signed by the custodian.

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30
Q

What does a CA/CRL Custodian Authorization & Custody Receipt Listing jacket file normally consist of?

A

Current CA/CRL Custodian Authorization & Custody Receipt Listing and custodian appointment letter.

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31
Q

How often are CA/CRL Custodian Authorization & Custody Receipt Listing jacket files verified?

A

Quarterly.

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32
Q

Who may sign for equipment items?

A

Only the primary or alternate equipment custodian, or organization commander.

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33
Q

Which Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCDs) identify Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) assets?

A

XD/XF.

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34
Q

What Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to conduct formal instruction on the repair and maintenance of an item?

A

Training spare.

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35
Q

What Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to detect or isolate a fault in on-line equipment?

A

Shop standard spare.

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36
Q

What Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) asset is located with, but is not a component part of the basic set, as listed in the Illustrated parts breakdown (IPB)?

A

Fault isolation spare.

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37
Q

What SPRAM Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance asset is used in place of TMDEtest measurement and diagnostic equipment to perform calibration of an item?

A

Test station spare.

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38
Q

What SPRAM Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to determine the accuracy of various measurements in other assets?

A

Stand-alone spare

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39
Q

What Transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) details?

A

1XA.

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40
Q

What product is used to inventory SPRAM Special Purpose Recoverables Authorized Maintenance assets and serves as a custody receipt when signed by the custodian?

A

R25.

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41
Q

What controlled item codes Controlled item code (CICs) arc used to identify weapons?

A

SRC of A, and CICsControlled item code (CICs) N, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, or 8.

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42
Q

How are Communication security (COMSEC) items identified on the item record?

A

SRC of C and Materiel management code (MMCs) of CA, CK, CL, CO, CR or CY

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43
Q

Daily change reports for weapons and Communication security (COMSEC) are identified by what document identifier codes?

A

Document identification code (DIC) XHA.

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44
Q

How often must you reconcile weapons and Communication security (COMSEC) detail records?

A

Annually for weapons (30 April) and semiannually for Communication security (COMSEC) (15 March and 15 September).

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45
Q

What product is used for weapons or Communication security (COMSEC) reconciliation?

A

Weapon/Communication security (COMSEC) Reconciliation (R46).

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46
Q

What are the key responsibilities of Stock Control?

A

Stockage policy and managing requisitions.

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47
Q

What term defines the average quantity used daily?

A

Daily Demand Rate (DDR).

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48
Q

What type of stock level is based on past demands from users?

A

Demand Level.

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49
Q

What term is used for the repair rate of the current and past four quarters?

A

Average percent of base repair (PBR)

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50
Q

What is the term for the average elapsed time, in days, between the initiation and receipt of stock replenishment requisitions?

A

Order and shipping time (O&ST).

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51
Q

What term represents the number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle?

A

Repair cycle quantity (RCQ).

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52
Q

What term reflects the quantity that must be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment

A

Safety level quantity (SLQ).

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53
Q

What type of minimum adjusted stock level has a reorder point one-third the adjusted stock level quantity?

A

Type level A.

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54
Q

Which minimum adjusted stock levels are automatically deleted once the demand level equals or exceeds the total minimum level?

A

Type levels A and B.

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55
Q

What type of adjusted stock level restricts stockage?

A

Maximum adjusted level.

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56
Q

What type adjusted stock level should you establish for seasonal items

A

Maximum, type level D.

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57
Q

What type of adjusted stock level maintains an item’s stockage position at a constant level?

A

Adjusted fixed level.

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58
Q

What form is used to request an adjusted stock level? How many copies are needed?

A

AF Form 1996. Two (2) copies.

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59
Q

What type detail is used to control and manage adjusted stock levels?

A

L type adjusted stock level details.

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60
Q

How often are adjusted stock levels validated?

A

At least every 2 years.

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61
Q

What product is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels?

A

R35.

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62
Q

What action occurs during the review of an adjusted stock level?

A

The initiator confirms that the approved level is still required in the quantity described in the original justification.

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63
Q

What action occurs during the validation of adjusted stock levels

A

Complete line item review in which the requesting activity certifies that the requirement and authority for each level is still valid.

64
Q

What type item does the Readiness based leveling/level (RBL) system compute demand levels for?

A

Selected Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) XD items.

65
Q

How often are Rreadiness based leveling/level (RBLs) updated?

A

Quarterly.

66
Q

By what document identifier code are Readiness based leveling/level (RBLs) received at each base?

A

Document identification code (DIC) XCA.

67
Q

What are two instances when an Readiness based leveling/level (RBL) may be less than an approved minimum or fixed level?

A

(1) When there is an insufficient worldwide requirement to allocate to the minimum/fixed level.
(2) When the base’s minimum/fixed level is not registered in the D035 system.

68
Q

As a requirements element clerk, are you required to manually review A2s/A4s/FTRs before processing?

A

No, they are input without review.

69
Q

On 18 May 09, your base reported it had three excess connector cables. You issued two of these before receiving disposition instructions. What occurs when the Redistribution order (RDO) is input?

A

An Redistribution order (RDO) denial (Document identification code (DIC) B7*) is produced.

70
Q

What type of redistribution results from a local management decision?

A

Nondirected redistribution.

71
Q

What type of redistribution is a lateral support shipment?

A

Nondirected, special.

72
Q

What routing identifier codes (Routing identifier code (RIC)) are used on lateral support shipments?

A

JLS or D**.

73
Q

What is a transfer?

A

A transfer is the movement of materiel to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS).

74
Q

What are shipment exception codes used for?

A

To identify item records that require special shipping action, or to notify local management when shipping action has been taken

75
Q

What are the two main types of requisitions?

A

Automatic and special.

76
Q

What does the term MILSTRIP stand for?

A

Military standard requisitioning and issue procedures.

77
Q

What is the purpose of Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP)?

A

Provides a standard method of requisitioning supplies from the source of supply.

78
Q

What agencies are required to use Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP) procedures?

A

All branches of the Service.

79
Q

In what format are requisitions submitted to the source of supply?

A

Document identification code (DIC) Accountable officer (AO)*.

80
Q

When does the Materiel Management System identify and requisition stock replenishment requirements?

A

When items have an asset position down to or below its reorder level.

81
Q

What is the key to achieving and maintaining a well-balanced stock position?

A

Timeliness in submission of stock replenishment requisitions.

82
Q

What series of requisition serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?

A

9000-9899.

83
Q

What is the purpose of Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)?

A

Provides a standard method of ranking competing needs among activities to their overall importance.

84
Q

What combinations of codes determine the requisition priority to be used at the Source of supply (SOS)?

A

Force activity designator (FAD) and Urgency-of-need designator (UND).

85
Q

What sequence should status be processed in?

A

Same sequence it is received in

86
Q

In what format is requisition status received?

A

Supply or shipment (AE/AS or AU*).

87
Q

What is the consequence of not processing status immediately?

A

You will create more work because of unnecessary follow-ups, receipt rejects, and incorrect cancellations and billings.

88
Q

What are the different types of Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP) status?

A

Positive supply status, cancellations, intransit/shipped, and exception/other.

89
Q

What status type has the worst effect on an account?

A

Cancellation.

90
Q

What Requisition exception code (REX) code is used to indicate that a requisition was cancelled from the source of supply?

A

Requisition exception code (REX) 1.

91
Q

What information does shipment status provide to the requisitioner?

A

Actual shipping date and mode of shipment.

92
Q

What status types are generated by program control at base level?

A

Cancellation requests and follow-up.

93
Q

What action does the supply source take when they receive a cancellation request?

A

Either confirm the cancellation or furnish shipping status.

94
Q

What two cancellation status codes are assigned under program control?

A

ZC, ZD.

95
Q

When is follow-up action initiated?

A

When supply status information is overdue or the estimated delivery date has passed.

96
Q

When will in-line follow-up be performed for a priority 03 requisition when 100 percent status is required?

A

Four days after the requisition date.

97
Q

Within what time frame must ARC images be worked before another is output?

A

Five days.

98
Q

What are supply difficulties?

A

Deficiencies resulting in a delay of item support that can’t be corrected locally and that ultimately affect the operational capability of the base or unit involved.

99
Q

How are supply difficulties reported?

A

AF Form 1667, message, or e-mail.

100
Q

Processing supply difficulty reports must not take more than how many calendar days?

A

Seven.

101
Q

What is the Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program; Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program?

A

Used to identify shipments that have been delayed or misplaced between the Source of supply (SOS) and the receiving base.

102
Q

How often is the Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program; Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program run?

A

At least twice a month – on the first and third weekend.

103
Q

What products are used to trace delinquent shipments?

A

Transportation tracer lists, parcel post tracer list, receipt acknowledged error list, consolidated shipment error list, exception action listing.

104
Q

Which tracer listing is used to review due-ins remaining in the computer that have been receipted in supply, but not completely cleared?

A

Receipt Acknowledge Error List.

105
Q

Which tracer listing is used to trace consolidated shipments that exceed age requirements and have no due-in detail?

A

Consolidated Shipment Error List.

106
Q

How often is a due-out review conducted?

A

On a daily basis for Urgency-of-need designator (UND) A and on a weekly basis for Urgency-of-need designator (UND) A and B due-outs.

107
Q

Which listing may be used instead of the D18 in performance of due-out review?

A

R01.

108
Q

How often are priority due-outs validated?

A

Monthly for Urgency-of-need designator (UND) A and B

109
Q

What are the two methods of releasing due-outs?

A

Automatically and forced.

110
Q

What three Transaction identification code (TRICs) may be used to force release a due-out?

A

Due-out release (DOR), Rreceipt (REC), Turn-in to Supply (TIN).

111
Q

What Transaction exception code (TEX) code is used in a Due-out release (DOR) input to force release a due-out?

A

Transaction exception code (TEX) 3

112
Q

What Transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process a due-out cancellation?

A

Designed operational capabilities (DOC).

113
Q

What does review code I indicate on a due-out cancellation input?

A

That Stock Control has reviewed the cancellation input.

114
Q

What section must be notified of all cancellations of equipment due-outs?

A

Equipment Management.

115
Q

For Billed-not-received (BNR) transactions, local purchase items will appear on the listing after how many days once the vendor bill is received and processed?

A

7 days.

116
Q

What is created whenever a referral order is honored, and credit is given to the shipping base?

A

Shipped Not Credited details.

117
Q

What CD-ROM research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers?

A

Federal logistics (FEDLOG).

118
Q

What search criteria does Federal logistics (FEDLOG) provide for making queries?

A

National item identification number (NIIN) or National stock number (NSN), part number, item name, supplier name, Commercial and government entity (CAGE), Federal supply classification; flight-line service center (FSC), INCitem number code (INC), Stock record account number (SRAN), and base address.

119
Q

Which data screen displays the indicative data needed to load new National stock number (NSNs) into Standard base level computer (SBLC)?

A

Management Data Screen

120
Q

What is the main advantage of using the D043A over Federal logistics (FEDLOG)?

A

The D043A is updated in real time.

121
Q

How are Illustrated parts breakdown (IPBs) normally identified and published?

A

Dash four (-4) series of technical orders.

122
Q

Illustrated parts breakdown (IPBs) are normally broken down into what three sections?

A

Introduction, group assembly parts list, and numerical index.

123
Q

How are next higher assemblies determined in the Technical order (TO) system?

A

The indent dot system.

124
Q

What is the source code for part number 53-39303-99?

A

P2.

125
Q

What is the next higher assembly for figure and index number 2-9-12?

A

Bell crank assembly, main landing gear shrink LH.

126
Q

What is the volume, figure, and index number for part number 53-39307-3?

A

1-35-40.

127
Q

What code provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibilities, support methods, and disposition instructions?

A

Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR) code.

128
Q

What Technical order (TO) reference lists Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR) codes and provides a complete explanation of each?

A

Technical order (TO) 00-25-195.

129
Q

What Transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load a new stock number?

A

Transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL.

130
Q

What records are established by processing a FIL input?

A

Item record and repair cycle record

131
Q

What does the first position of an Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost (ERRC) designator signify?

A

The expendability of an item of supply.

132
Q

How long are expendable items accounted for on supply records?

A

Until they are issued for use.

133
Q

What does the second position of an Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost (ERRC) designator signify?

A

It identifies those items recoverable through repair or those items not normally subject to repair.

134
Q

Under what two Transaction identification code (TRICs) may a part number detail be loaded?

A

Transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL/1AA.

135
Q

What benefit is provided by establishing a part number detail record?

A

It automates the part number to stock number cross reference file and reduces external research action.

136
Q

Why must you ensure a part number is correct before you load it?

A

Because the part number cannot be edited under program control.

137
Q

What is a non-catalogued number?

A

Non-Catalogued stock numbers are numbers assigned by an Air Logistics Center (ALC) Item Manager pending assignment of a National stock number (NSN).

138
Q

What does position 7 of a non-catalogued number indicate?

A

Position 7 identifies the Air Logistics Center (ALC) assigning the NC number.

139
Q

What input is used to change the stock number, Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD), Equipment management code (EMC), routing identifier, and budget code?

A

Indicative data change (FIC).

140
Q

Stock number changes are made only as a result of what conditions?

A

AF Form 86 action, stock list changes, or to correct erroneous file maintenance data on original FIL inputs.

141
Q

Explain the difference between a stock number change and a stock number merge.

A

A stock number change exists when the change to stock number is not in the Materiel Management System database. A stock number merge exists when the change to stock number is already in the Materiel Management System database.

142
Q

What input loads or changes the item record nomenclature, shelf life code, quantity unit pack, and the demilitarization code?

A

FNL.

143
Q

The nomenclature field is limited to how many characters?

A

32.

144
Q

What input changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack?

A

Uunit price/unit of issue change (FCU).

145
Q

How are the two types of deletes processed?

A

Internal deletes by program control and external deletes by FID processing.

146
Q

What is the purpose of Stock Number User Directory (SNUD)?

A

To provide automatic updates to item records.

147
Q

What reports are output to the D071 system as stock numbers are loaded or deleted at each base?

A

BDFA, BDFD.

148
Q

How often is the Materiel Management System database reconciled with the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) Stock Number User Directory (SNUD) file?

A

Annually.

149
Q

What is an Interchangeable and substitution group (ISG)?

A

A group of items with similar physical and functional characteristics that provide compatible functional performance.

150
Q

Information on Interchangeable and substitution group (ISGs) are provided by what system?

A

D043B.

151
Q

Which of the following subgroups within an Interchangeable and substitution group (ISG) is the least desired for retention: AA, AB, AC, or AD?

A

AA.

152
Q

How was the order of use system designed?

A

To exhaust the stocks of least desirable items before the master item is used.

153
Q

What is the maximum number of items authorized in a base level Interchangeable and substitution group (ISG)?

A

24.

154
Q

What relationship code identifies items that can be used in place of other items only for particular uses or under certain conditions (Special conditions)?

A

S.

155
Q

Who must sign the justification letter to request a local Interchangeable and substitution group (ISG) relationship?

A

Operations or logistics commander (or the designated representative).

156
Q

How can you ensure a request has been coordinated with other base users?

A

Research the consolidated transaction history register for the past 6 months and look for issues/due-outs.

157
Q

What Transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete an Interchangeable and substitution group (ISG)?

A

FIS.

2S051 (5 decks)

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