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CDC > VOLUME 2 URE's > Flashcards

VOLUME 2 URE's Flashcards

1
Q

(001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight,
beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

a. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
b. Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
c. Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).
d. Client Systems (3D1X1).

A

a. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).

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2
Q

(002) Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

a. Transmission security.
b. Technical security.
c. Emission security.
d. Physical security.

A

b. Technical security.

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3
Q

(003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills
inherent to a particular career field?

a. Core duty.
b. Core value.
c. Core competency.
d. Core responsibility.

A

c. Core competency.

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4
Q

(003) Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

a. Fixed cable systems.
b. Voice network systems.
c. Application software systems.
d. Client-server database systems

A

b. Voice network systems.

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5
Q

(004) Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or
property at risk?

a. 1118.
b. 457.
c. 55.
d. 3

A

b. 457.

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6
Q

(005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

a. Biological.
b. Chemical.
c. Physical.
d. Nuclear.

A

d. Nuclear.

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7
Q

(005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

a. Biological.
b. Chemical.
c. Physical.
d. Stress.

A

d. Stress.

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8
Q

(005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

a. 25.
b. 50.
c. 75.
d. 100.

A

a. 25.

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9
Q

(005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the?

a. trainer.
b. certifier.
c. technician.
d. supervisor

A

d. supervisor

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10
Q

(005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if?

a. the circuit is energized.
b. you have a valid prescription.
c. they are certified for high voltage.
d. they are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

A

d. they are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

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11
Q

(006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

a. All personnel.
b. Only safety personnel.
c. Only civilian personnel.
d. Only medical personnel

A

a. All personnel.

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12
Q

(006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

a. Risk control.
b. Safety control.
c. Risk management.
d. Safety management.

A

c. Risk management.

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13
Q

(007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

a. Accept unnecessary risk.
b. Apply the RM process continuously.
c. Train and adhere to safety guidelines.
d. Make risk decisions at the lowest level.

A

b. Apply the RM process continuously.

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14
Q

(007) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

a. Four.
b. Five.
c. Six.
d. Seven.

A

b. Five.

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15
Q

(008) An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

A

a. I.

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16
Q

(008) How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.

A

b. Two.

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17
Q

(008) The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except?

a. maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall.
b. standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall.
c. maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices.
d. install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network
(AFEN).

A

d. install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network
(AFEN).

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18
Q

(009) Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

a. IP telephony.
b. Network telephony.
c. Voice protection system.
d. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).

A

a. IP telephony.

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19
Q

(009) Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

a. IP telephony.
b. Network telephony.
c. Voice protection system.
d. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).

A

a. IP telephony.

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20
Q

(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.

A

b. 3.

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21
Q

(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?

a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5.
d. 6.

A

b. 4.

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22
Q

(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

a. 4.
b. 5.
c. 6.
d. 7

A

d. 7.

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23
Q

(010) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

a. can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host.
b. consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.
c. monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords.
d. monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed.

A

b. consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.

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24
Q

(010) One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

a. can decrypt data.
b. uses very few network resources.
c. monitors logs for policy violations.
d. can analyze encrypted network traffic.

A

b. uses very few network resources.

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25
Q

(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

a. Active.
b. Passive.
c. Host-based.
d. Network-based.

A

c. Host-based.

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26
Q

(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

a. Active.
b. Passive.
c. Host-based.
d. Network-based.

A

d. Network-based.

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27
Q

(010) Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are

a. active only.
b. passive only.
c. passive and active.
d. neither passive nor active.

A

c. passive and active.

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28
Q

(010) Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are

a. active only.
b. passive only.
c. passive and active.
d. neither passive nor active

A

b. Passive only.

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29
Q

(011) What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

a. Default deny.
b. Default allow.
c. Close.
d. Open.

A

d. Open.

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30
Q

(012) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

a. Digital.
b. Biometric.
c. Encryption.
d. E-mail signing.

A

a. Digital.

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31
Q

. (012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

a. Set a login ID and password combination for access.
b. Install biometrics and encryption certificates.
c. Place a lock on computer.
d. Store in locked case.

A

a. Set a login ID and password combination for access.

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32
Q

(013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is?

a. having information ready when needed.
b. not being able to deny who performed network actions.
c. the protection of the network from those not authorized access.
d. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

A

d. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

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33
Q

(014) What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

a. 2000.
b. 3000.
c. 7000.
d. 8500

A

c. 7000.

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34
Q

(015) Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD’s TEMPEST program?

a. 7700.
b. 7701.
c. 7702.
d. 7703

A

a. 7700.

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35
Q

(015) Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

a. Zoning.
b. Shielding.
c. Suppression.
d. Profile matching.

A

a. Zoning.

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36
Q

(015) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone?

a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.

A

b. B.

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37
Q

(015) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone?

a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D

A

c. C.

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38
Q

(015) Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

a. It requires Department of Defense (DOD) approval.
b. It requires certification.
c. It is time consuming.
d. It is expensive.

A

d. It is expensive.

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39
Q

(015) What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

a. Distance and angle.
b. Distance and separation.
c. Induction and grounding.
d. Induction and impedance.

A

a. Distance and angle.

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40
Q

(016) Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?

a. Equipment processing clear-text confidential information.
b. Equipment processing clear-text unclassified information.
c. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
d. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

A

d. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

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41
Q

(016) What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

a. Equipment processing unencrypted classified information.
b. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
c. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.
d. Equipment processing plaintext classified information

A

b. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

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42
Q

(016) Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

a. Physical.
b. Electrical.
c. Equipment.
d. Mechanical

A

b. Electrical.

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43
Q

(017) What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

a. 100 ohms or less.
b. 50 ohms or less.
c. 20 ohms or less.
d. 10 ohms or less.

A

d. 10 ohms or less.

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44
Q

(017) Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

a. Earth electrode.
b. Fault protection.
c. Signal reference.
d. Lightning protection.

A

d. Lightning protection.

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45
Q

(017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

a. Earth electrode.
b. Fault protection.
c. Signal reference.
d. Lightning protection.

A

b. Fault protection.

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46
Q

(017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the “signal ground” and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

a. Earth electrode.
b. Fault protection.
c. Signal reference.
d. Lightning protection.

A

c. Signal reference.

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47
Q

(018) Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of

a. 1 milliohm.
b. 2 milliohms.
c. 5 milliohms.
d. 10 milliohms.

A

a. 1 milliohm.

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48
Q

(018) What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

a. None.
b. Brazing.
c. Welding.
d. Mechanical

A

d. Mechanical

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49
Q

(019) What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

a. Bonding.
b. Shielding.
c. Annealing.
d. Grounding.

A

b. Shielding.

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50
Q

(019) Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

a. Cable.
b. Circuit.
c. Facility.
d. Equipment.

A

a. Cable.

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51
Q

(020) What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

a. Protection from noise.
b. Protection from lightning.
c. Protection from blackouts.
d. Protection from brownouts

A

b. Protection from lightning.

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52
Q

(021) Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

a. Class I.
b. Class II.
c. Class III.
d. Class IV.

A

a. Class I.

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53
Q

(021) Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

a. Working at a bench.
b. Walking across carpet.
c. Walking across a vinyl floor.
d. Picking up a common plastic bag.

A

b. Walking across carpet.

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54
Q

(022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

a. Sag.
b. Spike.
c. Noise.
d. Blackout

A

d. Blackout.

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55
Q

(022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

a. Sag.
b. Spike.
c. Noise.
d. Blackout.

A

b. Spike.

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56
Q

(022) Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

a. Sag.
b. Spike.
c. Noise.
d. Blackout

A

c. Noise.

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57
Q

(022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as “offline”?

a. Passive standby.
b. Line interactive.
c. Double conversion.
d. Ferro resonant standby.

A

a. Passive standby.

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58
Q

(022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest level of protection?

a. Passive standby.
b. Line interactive.
c. Double conversion.
d. Ferro resonant standby

A

c. Double conversion.

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59
Q

(023) How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

a. Single.
b. Double.
c. Three.
d. Four

A

c. Three.

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60
Q

(024) Which is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries?

a. The facility power requirements.
b. The facility power reserve times.
c. The number of AC converters required for the facility.
d. The amount of current and future floor space available.

A

c. The number of AC converters required for the facility.

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61
Q

(024) What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial alternate current [AC] power available)?

a. They generate direct current (DC) power and run the switch.
b. They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power.
c. They rectify the commercial AC to DC and power the system.
d. They serve no function unless commercial power is disconnected

A

b. They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power.

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62
Q

(025) Which publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

a. TO 31–20 series.
b. TO 61–20 series.
c. TO 31–10 series.
d. TO 61–10 series.

A

c. TO 31–10 series.

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63
Q

(026) How are connectorized cables labeled?

a. The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
b. The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.
c. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
d. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

A

d. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

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64
Q

(027) Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

a. Lower.
b. Upper.
c. Right.
d. Left.

A

b. Upper.

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65
Q

(027) Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed how many feet?

a. 5.
b. 10.
c. 15.
d. 20.

A

a. 5.

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66
Q

(028) The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial cable?

a. is less expensive.
b. is easier to install.
c. does not radiate energy.
d. has a low frequency range.

A

c. does not radiate energy.

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67
Q

(028) Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

a. Unshielded.
b. Shielded.
c. Twisted pair.
d. Multipair

A

b. Shielded.

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68
Q

(029) The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is a?

a. marker.
b. bundle.
c. casing.
d. binder

A

d. binder.

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69
Q

(029) What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

a. Tip and Ring.
b. Tip and Color.
c. Rate and Color.
d. Pair and Position

A

a. Tip and Ring.

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70
Q

(030) What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

a. RJ–11.
b. RJ–15.
c. RJ–45.
d. RJ–49

A

c. RJ–45.

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71
Q

(030) Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

a. Blue.
b. Orange.
c. White/blue.
d. White/orange.

A

d. White/orange.

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72
Q

(030) What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model?

a. Straight-through.
b. Crossover.
c. Rollover.
d. Coaxial.

A

b. Crossover.

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73
Q

(031) What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

a. The use of light-emitting diodes.
b. The broad bandwidth of the cable.
c. The low signal to noise ratio of the cable.
d. The multiplexing technique used in fiber optics.

A

a. The use of light-emitting diodes.

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74
Q

(031) What is the maximum operating temperature of fiber optic cable?

a. 500°C.
b. 1,000°C.
c. 5,000°C.
d. 10,000°C

A

b. 1,000°C.

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75
Q

(032) What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?

a. Core, cladding, and shield.
b. Core, cladding, and jacket.
c. Core, conductor, and shield.
d. Core, conductor, and jacket

A

b. Core, cladding, and jacket.

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76
Q

(032) Which type of cable is the easiest to splice?

a. Multimode graded-index fiber.
b. Multimode step index fiber.
c. Single mode fiber.
d. Coaxial cable.

A

b. Multimode step index fiber.

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77
Q

(033) How long do most fiber-optic epoxies take to set?

a. 30–40 minutes.
b. 12–24 hours.
c. 24–48 hours.
d. 48–72 hours

A

b. 12–24 hours.

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78
Q

(033) What do you use to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried
on a fiber cable?

a. Scribe.
b. Strippers.
c. Alco wipes.
d. Polishing cloth.

A

a. Scribe.

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79
Q

(033) When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly

a. round.
b. elliptical.
c. flat and level.
d. flat with a 45-degree angle

A

c. flat and level.

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80
Q

(034) When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?

a. Common.
b. Voltage.
c. Amperage.
d. Frequency.

A

a. Common.

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81
Q

(034) When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

a. Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.
b. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
c. Place the meter in the frequency mode.
d. Set the range for maximum reading

A

b. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

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82
Q

(035) The purpose of a breakout box is to?

a. provide wiring maps at both ends of the cable.
b. allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors.
c. measure electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance.
d. locate sheath faults, damaged conductors, splices, bridge taps, and split pairs.

A

b. allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors.

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83
Q

(035) The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to?

a. measure the individual interface signals.
b. change the voltage of individual interface signals.
c. allow the cross-patching of the individual interface conductors.
d. allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.

A

d. allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.

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84
Q

(035) What do the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow?

a. Measurement of individual interface signals.
b. Interruption of voltage/current to the interfaces.
c. Cross-patching of individual interface conductors.
d. Changing the voltage of individual interface signals.

A

c. Cross-patching of individual interface conductors.

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85
Q

(036) What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control
too far?

a. Masking.
b. Distortion.
c. Deflection.
d. Overloading

A

b. Distortion.

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86
Q

(037) Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as?

a. sequential records.
b. waveform points.
c. record lengths.
d. record points.

A

b. waveform points.

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87
Q

(037) What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

a. Microprocessor.
b. Acquisition.
c. Memory.
d. Input.

A

a. Microprocessor.

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88
Q

(037) What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?

a. Sequential.
b. Repetitive.
c. Real-time.
d. Random.

A

c. Real-time.

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89
Q

(037) What is the standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope?

a. Sample mode.
b. Real-time mode.
c. Averaging mode.
d. Peak detect mode.

A

a. Sample mode.

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90
Q

(037) Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

a. CURSORS control.
b. MEMORY control.
c. SELECT C1/C2 switch.
d. SAVE/CONTINUE switch.

A

a. CURSORS control.

91
Q

(038) Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

a. Emitter.
b. Receiver.
c. Transmitter.
d. Synchronizer.

A

b. Receiver.

92
Q

(038) What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT)?

a. The total amount of bandwidth in the test pattern.
b. The total number of bytes that represent the bits test pattern.
c. The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.
d. The number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern.

A

c. The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.

93
Q

(038) What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

a. Cyclic redundancy check.
b. Bipolar violation.
c. Bit slip.
d. Frame.

A

b. Bipolar violation.

94
Q

(039) When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action might a manufacturer require to prevent false readings?

a. Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.
b. Connect an injector at the end of the cable being tested.
c. Set the range for maximum reading.
d. Use the frequency mode.

A

a. Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.

95
Q

(040) Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?

a. Filter.
b. Buffer.
c. Counter.
d. Central processing unit.

A

a. Filter.

96
Q

(040) What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?

a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
b. Connection statistics.
c. Protocol statistics.
d. Node discovery.

A

c. Protocol statistics.

97
Q

(040) What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
b. Connection statistics.
c. Protocol statistics.
d. Node discovery.

A

a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

98
Q

(040) What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
b. Connection statistics.
c. Protocol statistics.
d. Node discovery.

A

d. Node discovery.

99
Q

(040) What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

a. Packet internetwork groper (PING).
b. Traffic generator.
c. Route generator.
d. Trace route.

A

a. Packet internetwork groper (PING).

100
Q

(040) What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

a. Trace route.
b. Route generator.
c. Traffic generator.
d. Packet internetwork groper (PING)

A

a. Trace route.

101
Q

(201) At what Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer are virtual circuits established, maintained and terminated?

a. Network.
b. Physical.
c. Data link.
d. Transport.

A

d. Transport.

102
Q

(201) Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?

a. Motion Picture Experts Group–4 (MPEG–4).
b. Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG).
c. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
d. G.711.

A

a. Motion Picture Experts Group–4 (MPEG–4).

103
Q

(202) In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?

a. Layer above.
b. Layer below.
c. Lowest layer.
d. Peer layer.

A

c. Lowest layer.

104
Q

(203) What data communication protocol uses characters or “handshaking” to control the link and represent information?

a. Asynchronous protocol.
b. Binary synchronous protocol.
c. Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).
d. High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC).

A

b. Binary synchronous protocol.

105
Q

(203) In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and maintains character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?

a. SEQ.
b. SYN.
c. STX.
d. EST.

A

b. SYN.

106
Q

(203) Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?

a. Character-oriented.
b. Bit-oriented.
c. Network.
d. Routing.

A

b. Bit-oriented.

107
Q

(203) Which data communication protocol is a transmission code that supports a variety of link types and topologies?

a. Asynchronous protocol.
b. Binary synchronous protocol.
c. Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).
d. High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC).

A

c. Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

108
Q

(204) Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

a. IP.
b. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
c. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
d. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

A

b. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

109
Q

(204) Which Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

a. Internet protocol (IP).
b. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
c. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
d. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

A

d. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

110
Q

(204) Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

a. Internet Protocol (IP).
b. User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
c. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
d. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

A

c. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

111
Q

(204) Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?

a. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).
b. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
c. Network Time Protocol (NTP).
d. Packet Internet Groper (PING).

A

c. Network Time Protocol (NTP).

112
Q

(205) Which network Class has the most addresses for hosts?

a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.

A

a. A.

113
Q

(205) How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?

a. Three.
b. Five.
c. Seven.
d. Nine.

A

c. Seven.

114
Q

(206) Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by

a. 8 groups of dotted decimal numbers.
b. 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers.
c. 4 dotted decimal numbers.
d. 128 decimal numbers.

A

b. 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers

115
Q

(206) Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?

a. Host-specific relay.
b. Client.
c. Server.
d. Agent.

A

d. Agent.

116
Q

(207) Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

a. Bridge.
b. Router.
c. Gateway.
d. Repeater.

A

b. Router.

117
Q

(207) Which routing protocol do internet backbones use?

a. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
b. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF).
c. Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
d. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

A

a. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).

118
Q

(208) Which router port is used for initial configuration?

a. Auxiliary.
b. Console.
c. Ethernet.
d. Telnet.

A

b. Console.

119
Q

(208) When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC mode by configuring which password?

a. Line console.
b. Line vty.
c. Enable.
d. Secret.

A

c. Enable.

120
Q

(208) On a router’s serial interface connection, what provides the timing signal for the communication link?

a. Data communications equipment.
b. Data terminal equipment.
c. Internal oscillator.
d. Atomic clock.

A

a. Data communications equipment.

121
Q

(209) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

a. Department of Defense network.
b. Air Force network.
c. local area network.
d. a public network.

A

d. a public network.

122
Q

(210) Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?

a. Physical.
b. Logical.
c. Hybrid.
d. Star.

A

b. Logical.

123
Q

(210) Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?

a. Bus.
b. Ring.
c. Star.
d. Hybrid.

A

b. Ring.

124
Q

(210) Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

a. Bus.
b. Ring.
c. Star.
d. Hybrid.

A

d. Hybrid.

125
Q

(211) Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?

a. Switch.
b. Firewall.
c. Gateway.
d. Repeater.

A

a. Switch.

126
Q

(211) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its

a. lag.
b. hop.
c. latency.
d. time zone.

A

c. latency.

127
Q

(211) Which of the following is not a distinct layer of a hierarchical network design?

a. Core.
b. Access.
c. Transport.
d. Distribution.

A

c. Transport.

128
Q

(211) How many broadcast domains forms a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

A

a. 1.

129
Q

(211) What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

a. VLAN trunks.
b. VLAN frames.
c. VLAN links.
d. VLAN ports.

A

a. VLAN trunks.

130
Q

(211) Which of the following will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems?

a. Disable all the interfaces after creating the EtherChannel.
b. Configure all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode.
c. Configure all interfaces for the same parameters as the last port configured.
d. Assign all interfaces in the EtherChannel to a different Virtual LAN (VLAN).

A

b. Configure all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode.

131
Q

(212) Which Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) specification is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices?

a. 802.11a.
b. 802.11b.
c. 802.11g.
d. 802.11r.

A

a. 802.11a.

132
Q

(212) Which wireless design phase accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users and the security and integrity requirements of the network data?

a. Planning.
b. Securing.
c. Deployment.
d. Management.

A

a. Planning.

133
Q

(212) What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another?

a. Hostname.
b. Network name.
c. Service Set Identifier (SSID).
d. Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID).

A

c. Service Set Identifier (SSID).

134
Q

(213) A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized

a. alphabetically.
b. hierarchically.
c. numerically.
d. objectively.

A

b. hierarchically.

135
Q

(213) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems and help plan for

a. future growth.
b. network security.
c. remote monitoring.
d. network contingencies.

A

a. future growth.

136
Q

(214) Which physical security action can you take to ensure network equipment supports the widest range of security services?

a. Configure the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible.
b. Configure the equipment to use a line console password.
c. Power cycle the equipment at the end of the duty day.
d. Configure the equipment using setup mode.

A

a. Configure the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible.

137
Q

(214) In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling which
port?

a. Console.
b. Auxiliary.
c. Interface.
d. Virtual terminal.

A

b. Auxiliary.

138
Q

(215) Individual pulses within a digital signal are

a. bits.
b. bytes.
c. codes.
d. blocks.

A

a. bits.

139
Q

(215) What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?

a. Baud rate.
b. Interface speed.
c. Bits per second.
d. Baud per second.

A

c. Bits per second.

140
Q

(216) Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?

a. Timing pulses are transmitted within the signal stream.
b. Start and stop pulses control data transmission.
c. System timing is not of critical importance.
d. All data bits are the same length in time.

A

d. All data bits are the same length in time.

141
Q

(216) A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes?

a. synchronous operation.
b. asynchronous operation.
c. synchronous and/or isochronous operation.
d. asynchronous and/or synchronous operation.

A

b. asynchronous operation.

142
Q

(217) How many voltage levels does a binary signal have?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

A

b. 2.

143
Q

(217) In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?

a. Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level.
b. NRZ mark.
c. NRZ space.
d. Return-to-zero.

A

d. Return-to-zero.

144
Q

(218) Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to

a. provide error-free signaling.
b. operate at higher data rates.
c. eliminate bipolar violations.
d. maintain ones density standards.

A

d. Maintain ones density standards.

145
Q

(218) Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?

a. The information is transmitted in three different voltage levels.
b. A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.
c. The level always returns to zero for 50 percent of the bit cycle after every transition.
d. Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.

A

d. Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.

146
Q

(219) How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?

a. 8.
b. 12.
c. 24.
d. 48.

A

c. 24

147
Q

(220) The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that functions to

a. process switch addressing.
b. control digit translations.
c. control and process calls.
d. provide a clear signal.

A

c. control and process calls.

148
Q

(220) Which communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?

a. Pulse.
b. Tone.
c. Digit.
d. Address.

A

b. Tone.

149
Q

(221) In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used for?

a. Bit robbing.
b. Bit stuffing.
c. Frame correction.
d. Frame enhancement.

A

a. Bit robbing.

150
Q

(221) How is supervisory signaling information transferred in common channel signaling (CCS)?

a. Bit robbing.
b. Bit stuffing.
c. Frame correction.
d. Separate network channel.

A

d. Separate network channel.

151
Q

(221) Which common channel signaling (CCS) mode does the transfer of messages relating to signaling between two points occur directly over links interconnecting the signaling points?

a. Associated.
b. Nonassociated.
c. Quasi-associated.
d. Multi-associated.

A

a. Associated.

152
Q

(222) What is the process, or result of the process, of modifying (varying) one or more characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with an instantaneous characteristic of an
information signal?

a. Modulation.
b. Multiplexing.
c. Quantization.
d. Synthesizing.

A

a. Modulation.

153
Q

(222) The signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier are called?

a. sidebands.
b. sine waves.
c. frequency translators.
d. modulating frequencies.

A

a. sidebands.

154
Q

(222) To prevent frequency modulation (FM) radio stations from interfering with each other, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has set limits that allow each station to cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than?

a. 20 kHz.
b. 50 kHz.
c. 75 kHz.
d. 88 kHz.

A

c. 75 kHz.

155
Q

(223) Which form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?

a. Delta modulation.
b. Frequency shift keying.
c. Binary-phase shift keying.
d. Pulse-amplitude modulation.

A

c. Binary-phase shift keying.

156
Q

(223) The form of pulse modulation in which a discrete pulse is varied within a range of positions is known as?

a. pulse-amplitude.
b. pulse-duration.
c. pulse-position.
d. pulse-code.

A

c. Pulse-position.

157
Q

(223) Which type of pulse modulation is least affected by noise?

a. Pulse-amplitude.
b. Pulse-duration.
c. Pulse-position.
d. Pulse-code.

A

d. Pulse-code.

158
Q

(224) Which form of multiplexing is very susceptible to signal deterioration?

a. Frequency-division.
b. Wave-division.
c. Time-division.
d. Phase-division.

A

a. Frequency-division.

159
Q

(225) What are the two major types of frame structures?

a. Low speed and high speed.
b. High speed and EBCDIC.
c. CCITT and low speed.
d. EBCDIC and CCITT.

A

c. CCITT and low speed.

160
Q

(225) The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is

a. frequency division.
b. binary division.
c. pulse division.
d. time division.

A

d. Time division.

161
Q

(226) Which wave-division multiplexing technology uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost?

a. Wave-division multiplexing.
b. Coarse wave division multiplexing.
c. Dense wave division multiplexing.
d. Long wave division multiplexing.

A

b. Coarse wave division multiplexing.

162
Q

(227) To create a better timing environment in communications networks, external timing distribution occurs through?

a. station clocks.
b. internal timing.
c. crystal oscillators.
d. distribution frames.

A

a. Station clock.

163
Q

(227) What do Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use to provide very precise time to GPS receivers?

a. Crystal oscillator
b. Internal timing.
c. Atomic clock.
d. Station clock.

A

c. Atomic clock.

164
Q

(227) Which stratum level is a Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4

A

a. 1.

165
Q

(228) Which agency has responsibility for a circuit end-to-end?

a. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
b. Network Control Center (NCC).
c. Node Side Coordinator (NSC).
d. Circuit Control Office (CCO).

A

d. Circuit Control Office (CCO).

166
Q

(228) Who is responsible for all circuits within their facility up to the designated demarcation point and provides troubleshooting assistance at the direction of the Global NetOps Support Center (GNSC)?

a. Communications focal point.
b. Network control center.
c. Node side coordinator.
d. Circuit actions officer.

A

c. Node side coordinator.

167
Q

(229) Which agency is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video and/or data services on DOD networks?

a. Commercial providers.
b. National Security Agency (NSA).
c. Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).
d. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

A

d. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

168
Q

(229) What web application is used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)?

a. DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE).
b. Facility Circuit Information Tracking (FaCIT).
c. Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).
d. Telecommunications Certifications Office Support System (TCOSS).

A

a. DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE).

169
Q

(229) What document is the authority for the operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment necessary for the installation or operation of the circuit?

a. Request for service.
b. Service acquisition message.
c. Telecommunications service order.
d. Telecommunications service request.

A

c. Telecommunications service order.

170
Q

(230) Which DD form do you use for an official narrative log that is often used to brief unit commanders?

a. 1441.
b. 1443.
c. 1698.
d. 1753.

A

d. 1753.

171
Q

(230) Which DD form is used as the primary source of information when preparing DOD Information Network (DODIN) status reports?

a. 1441.
b. 1443.
c. 1445.
d. 1753.

A

b. 1443.

172
Q

(230) Which test results do you record on the reverse/back side of the DD Form 1697–Analog?

a. Idle channel noise and test tone levels.
b. Terminal impedance and impulse noise.
c. Frequency response and envelope delay.
d. Net loss variation and single tone interference.

A

c. Frequency response and envelope delay.

173
Q

(230) If the circuit files are lost or destroyed, what document are Technical Control Facilities required to obtain?

a. The latest telecommunications service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration.
b. The original TSO and the original circuit test data.
c. The latest TSO and the latest circuit test data.
d. The original TSO that established the circuit.

A

a. The latest telecommunications service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration.

174
Q

(231) Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?

a. 72.
b. 48.
c. 24.
d. 12.

A

a. 72.

175
Q

(231) What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?

a. In-effect.
b. Exception.
c. Acceptance.
d. Delayed service.

A

b. Exception.

176
Q

(232) Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on what basis?

a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Annual.

A

c. Monthly.

177
Q

(232) If a circuit fails its management threshold, what test might be performed?

a. Quality control.
b. Operational acceptance.
c. Test and acceptance.
d. Operations and maintenance.

A

a. Quality control.

178
Q

(233) Which publication lists the methods used to identify systems, links, trunks and circuits?

a. Defense Information Systems Agency Circular (DISAC) 310–70–1.
b. DISAC 310–65–1.
c. DISAC 310–55–1.
d. DISAC 300–175–9.

A

b. DISAC 310–65–1.

179
Q

(234) Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?

a. Circuit control office.
b. Systems control facility.
c. Defense Communications System (DCS).
d. National Communications System (NCS).

A

d. National Communications System (NCS).

180
Q

(234) When you must restore user service by rerouting, what is the second type of circuit you preempt?

a. Spare channels.
b. Active on-call circuits.
c. Nonactive on-call circuits.
d. Circuits with 00 RP codes.

A

c. Nonactive on-call circuits.

181
Q

(235) Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and?

a. an intermediate distribution frame.
b. a black distribution frame.
c. a red distribution frame.
d. a mid distribution frame.

A

a. An intermediate distribution frame.

182
Q

(236) Who determines if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available?

a. Flight commander.
b. Manufacturer.
c. Technician.
d. NCOIC.

A

a. Flight commander.

183
Q

(237) When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call?

a. is broadcast over multiple paths between switches.
b. is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts.
c. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
d. has a dedicated trunk created by the switch

A

c. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.

184
Q

(238) In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the “B” channel carries

a. user traffic.
b. call setup traffic.
c. handshaking data.
d. management data.

A

a. user traffic.

185
Q

(239) The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

a. circumvention, and confidentiality.
b. circumvention, and disclosure.
c. confidentiality, and integrity.
d. disclosure, and integrity.

A

c. confidentiality, and integrity.

186
Q

(240) The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were highlighted in a report released by the?

a. President’s National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee.
b. Air Force Network Integration Center.
c. Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab.
d. Cryptographic Systems Group.

A

a. President’s National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee.

187
Q

(240) What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?

a. Data networks only.
b. Voice networks only.
c. Both voice and data networks.
d. Neither voice nor data networks.

A

c. Both voice and data networks.

188
Q

(240) What provides enterprise wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage and incidents of toll fraud?

a. Public Switched Telephone Network system.
b. Enterprise Telephony Management system.
c. Voice over Internet protocol system.
d. Time Division Multiplexing system.

A

b. Enterprise Telephony Management system.

189
Q

(240) During the initial research for voice system security, who recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by voice protection system?

a. The President’s National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee.
b. The Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab.
c. The Air Force Network Integration Center.
d. The Cryptographic Systems Group.

A

b. The Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab.

190
Q

(240) Which is not a component of the voice protection system architecture?

a. Server.
b. Firewall.
c. Software.
d. Appliance.

A

b. Firewall.

191
Q

(240) Where are voice protection system servers installed?

a. Local bases.
b. MAJCOM headquarters.
c. Air Force Network Operations Center.
d. Integrated Network and Security Center.

A

d. Integrated Network and Security Center.

192
Q

(240) Which is not a characteristic and capability of a voice protection system?

a. Securing communications.
b. Enabling of real-time notifications.
c. Centralizing yet distributing management.
d. Detecting and blocking all inbound and outbound modem connections.

A

c. Centralizing yet distributing management.

193
Q

(240) What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user?

a. Toll fraud.
b. War dialing.
c. Masquerades.
d. Denial of service.

A

c. Masquerades.

194
Q

(241) How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?

a. 32
b. 12
c. 3
d. 1

A

c. 3

195
Q

(242) What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic–100 (MSL–100) supports?

a. 10,000.
b. 30,000.
c. 100,000.
d. 300,000

A

b. 30,000.

196
Q

(242) Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?

a. Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS).
b. CM and system load module (SLM).
c. Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU).
d. CPU, digital signal (DS), and peripheral module (PM).

A

b. CM and system load module (SLM).

197
Q

(242) What link is used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?

a. DS–1.
b. DS–30.
c. DS–30A.
d. DS–512.

A

d. DS–512.

198
Q

(242) What Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis and error reporting?

a. Visual display unit.
b. Digital trunk controller.
c. Line concentrating modules.
d. Maintenance and administration position.

A

d. Maintenance and administration position.

199
Q

(242) The primary reason you should measure the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is to?

a. verify the circuit is not in use.
b. prevent interruptions to critical circuits.
c. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
d. avoid activating alarm circuits on the voice network system.

A

c. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.

200
Q

(243) Where do incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the ENET enter the NT9X35A cross-point card?

a. Vertical bus (V-bus).
b. Horizontal bus (H-bus).
c. Clock rate/messaging card.
d. Enhanced network (ENET) processor.

A

a. Vertical bus (V-bus).

201
Q

(244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?

a. Journal file.
b. Table control.
c. Dump/restore.
d. Pending order file.

A

b. Table control.

202
Q

(244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?

a. Journal file.
b. Table control.
c. Dump/restore.
d. Pending order file.

A

d. Pending order file.

203
Q

(244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system fails?

a. Journal file.
b. Table control.
c. Dump/restore.
d. Pending order file.

A

a. Journal file.

204
Q

(245) What names are given to the shifted R–Y and B–Y signals, respectively?

a. I (45° in-phase) and Q (90° in-phase).
b. I (90° in-phase) and Q (45° in-phase).
c. I (out-of-phase) and Q (quadrature).
d. I (in-phase) and Q (quadrature).

A

d. I (in-phase) and Q (quadrature).

205
Q

(246) Which digital broadcast system was adopted by the United States as the standard?

a. Digital Video Broadcast-Terrestrial system.
b. Advanced Television Systems Committee.
c. Digital Video Broadcast-Satellite system.
d. Digital Video Broadcast-Committee.

A

b. Advanced Television Systems Committee.

206
Q

(247) The GVG–110 video switcher effects key fills with?

a. linear signal and chroma signal from the effects keyer.
b. key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
c. key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal.
d. luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer.

A

b. key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.

207
Q

(247) The total number of effects storage registers in the GVG–110 video switcher is?

a. 8.
b. 10.
c. 12.
d. 16.

A

d. 16.

208
Q

(247) What does the GVG–110 video switcher serial interface allow?

a. Remote microprocessor control.
b. Remote control of switcher transitions.
c. Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.
d. Remote control of all switcher functions by a personal computer.

A

d. Remote control of all switcher functions by a personal computer.

209
Q

(248) Which basic circuit in the video distribution amplifier consists of two transistors that form the upper leg of a totem pole circuit?

a. Equalizer and peaking amp.
b. Fixed gain and level shift.
c. Variable gain amp.
d. Output driver.

A

d. Output driver.

210
Q

(249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what must a line of detection detect?

a. Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection.
b. Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping outside the line of detection.
c. Potential for intruder to bypass the system.
d. Possibility of equipment failures.

A

a. Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection.

211
Q

(249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

a. Facilitate the detection of intruders.
b. Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.
c. Provide security forces personnel a safe place to work.
d. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.

A

d. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.

212
Q

(250) The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a?

a. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment and vehicle entrapment area.
b. security forces entry gate, inspection equipment, backup generator and gatehouse.
c. location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.
d. gatehouse, vehicle parking area and personnel entry gate.

A

a. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment and vehicle entrapment area.

213
Q

(251) Which interior intrusion detection system is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo or building?

a. AN/GSS–42.
b. AN/GSS–41.
c. AN/GSS–29.
d. AN/GSS–39.

A

d. AN/GSS–39.

214
Q

(251) What does the AN/GSS–39(V) system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?

a. Zone indicator plate.
b. Video display unit.
c. End-of-line module.
d. Tamper interface module.

A

c. End-of-line module.

215
Q

(251) Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

a. Ultrasonic.
b. Microwave.
c. Passive infrared.
d. Dual-phenomenology.

A

c. Passive infrared.

216
Q

(251) How many selectable frequencies are obtainable with a SD80DC microwave sensor?

a. 5.
b. 8.
c. 10.
d. 12.

A

c. 10.

217
Q

(252) What type of signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?

a. Alternating current (AC).
b. Direct current (DC).
c. Digital.
d. Analog.

A

d. Analog.

218
Q

(252) How many sensors does a taut-wire system in the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS) configuration contain?

a. 5.
b. 6.
c. 10.
d. 12.

A

d. 12.

219
Q

(252) How many vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) sectors can be serviced per field distribution box (FDB)?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 4.
d. 8.

A

b. 2.

220
Q

(252) What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?

a. 150 feet.
b. 200 feet.
c. 328 feet.
d. 425 feet.

A

c. 328 feet.

221
Q

(252) What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?

a. 150 feet.
b. 200 feet.
c. 328 feet.
d. 425 feet.

A

b. 200 feet.

222
Q

(252) What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

a. None.
b. Tamper.
c. Intruder.
d. Equipment fault.

A

b. Tamper.

223
Q

(252) What is the maximum detection distance in meters of an Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS)?

a. 60.
b. 80.
c. 100.
d. 150.

A

b. 80.

224
Q

(252) What is the secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?

a. Beam break.
b. Signal fade margin.
c. Multipath reflection.
d. Multipath amplification.

A

c. Multipath reflection.

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