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CDC > VOLUME 1, SET 2 URE's > Flashcards

VOLUME 1, SET 2 URE's Flashcards

1
Q
  1. (201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
    a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.
    b. AFI 91–202.
    c. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.
    d. AFMAN 91–202.
A

b. AFI 91–202.

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2
Q
  1. (201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
    a. Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
    b. Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
    c. Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
    d. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
A

d. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.

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3
Q
  1. (201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
    a. Commerce.
    b. the Treasury.
    c. Defense.
    d. Labor.
A

d. Labor.

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4
Q
  1. (201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
    a. Air Staff.
    b. Civil Engineering.
    c. Squadron commander.
    d. Installation safety office.
A

d. Installation safety office

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5
Q
  1. (201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
    a. Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).
    b. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
    c. Review AF Form 55.
    d. Certify the employee.
A

b. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).

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6
Q
  1. (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
    a. 475.
    b. 480.
    c. 978.
    d. 980.
A

c. 978

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7
Q
  1. (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
    a. 475.
    b. 480.
    c. 978.
    d. 980.
A

a. 475.

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8
Q
  1. (202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?
    a. Physiological, physical, stress.
    b. Physiological, Physical, social.
    c. Stress, organizational, physical.
    d. Physical, physiological, organizational.
A

d. Physical, physiological, organizational.

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9
Q
  1. (202) Which action is a physiological factor?
    a. Performing a task while fatigued.
    b. Performing a task while intoxicated.
    c. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
    d. Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.
A

c. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.

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10
Q
  1. (202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
    a. Bioenvironmental Engineering.
    b. Installation safety office.
    c. Base civil engineer.
    d. Supervisors.
A

a. Bioenvironmental Engineering

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11
Q
  1. (202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
    a. Isolating operations.
    b. Providing administrative controls.
    c. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
    d. Substitution a less hazardous material or process.
A

c. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

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12
Q
  1. (202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
    a. One.
    b. Two.
    c. Three.
    d. Four.
A

b. Two.

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13
Q
  1. (202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
    a. A.
    b. C.
    c. E.
    d. G.
A

b. C

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14
Q
  1. (203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
    a. Falls.
    b. Poor lighting.
    c. Horseplay.
    d. Poor ergonomics.
A

a. Falls.

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15
Q
  1. (203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
    a. 1 to 2.
    b. 2 to 2.5.
    c. 2 to 4.5.
    d. 2.5 to 3.
A

b. 2 to 2.5.

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16
Q
  1. (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
    a. 8.
    b. 9.
    c. 10.
    d. 11.
A

c. 10.

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17
Q
  1. (203) How are fires classified?
    a. Fuel type.
    b. Heat source.
    c. Temperature.
    d. Atmospheric conditions.
A

a. Fuel type.

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18
Q
  1. (203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?
    a. Class A.
    b. Class B.
    c. Class C.
    d. Class D.
A

b. Class B.

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19
Q
  1. (203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
    a. Class A.
    b. Class B.
    c. Class C.
    d. Class D.
A

c. Class C.

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20
Q
  1. (203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
    a. Evacuate personnel from the building.
    b. Extinguish the fire if possible.
    c. Call the fire department.
    d. Sound the fire alarm.
A

d. Sound the fire alarm.

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21
Q
  1. (203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
    a. Evacuate personnel from the building.
    b. Extinguish the fire if possible.
    c. Call the fire department.
    d. Sound the fire alarm.
A

b. Extinguish the fire if possible.

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22
Q
  1. (203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
    a. 50.
    b. 40.
    c. 20.
    d. 10.
A

a. 50.

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23
Q
  1. (203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
    a. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
    b. Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.
    c. Using a ladder as a scaffold.
    d. Using a homemade ladder.
A

a. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.

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24
Q
  1. (204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
    a. Accept no unnecessary risk.
    b. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
    c. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
    d. Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
A

c. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

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25
Q
  1. (204) The risk management process includes how many steps?
    a. Four.
    b. Five.
    c. Six.
    d. Seven.
A

b. Five

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26
Q
  1. (205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
    a. One.
    b. Two.
    c. Three.
    d. Four.
A

d. Four

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27
Q
  1. (205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
    a. Office of Administration.
    b. Office of Communications.
    c. Office of Public Engagement.
    d. Office of Management and Budget
A

d. Office of Management and Budget.

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28
Q
  1. (205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
    a. State level.
    b. Federal level.
    c. Congressional level.
    d. Department of Defense level.
A

b. Federal level.

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29
Q
  1. (206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
    a. Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.
    b. Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
    c. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
    d. Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.
A

c. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.

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30
Q
  1. (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
    a. Administrative record.
    b. Maintenance record.
    c. Drawing record.
    d. Outage record.
A

c. Drawing record.

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31
Q
  1. (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
    a. Administrative record.
    b. Maintenance record.
    c. Drawing record.
    d. Outage record
A

b. Maintenance record.

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32
Q
  1. (207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
    a. Programming.
    b. Transport.
    c. Network.
    d. Data.
A

c. Network

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33
Q
  1. (207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
    a. Data Transport and Application.
    b. Session and Data Transport.
    c. Network and Presentation.
    d. Application and Session.
A

a. Data Transport and Application.

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34
Q
  1. (207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
    a. Transport.
    b. Data Link.
    c. Physical.
    d. Session.
A

b. Data Link

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35
Q
  1. (207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
    a. Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
    b. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
    c. Protocol access to the physical network medium.
    d. Protocol access to the links of a network.
A

b. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

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36
Q
  1. (207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
    a. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
    b. Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
    c. Protocol access to the physical network medium.
    d. Protocol access to the links of a network.
A

c. Protocol access to the physical network medium.

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37
Q
  1. (208) When used alone, the word “topology” often refers to a network’s
    a. transport topology.
    b. physical topology.
    c. physical medium.
    d. logical topology.
A

b. physical topology.

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38
Q
  1. (208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
    a. Star.
    b. Ring.
    c. Loop.
    d. Linear.
A

d. Linear.

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39
Q
  1. (208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?
    a. Bus.
    b. Star.
    c. Ring.
    d. Radial
A

b. Star.

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40
Q
  1. (208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
    a. There are no negative effects.
    b. A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
    c. Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
    d. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
A

d. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

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41
Q
  1. (209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
    a. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    b. Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
    c. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
    d. Department of Defense (DOD).
A

a. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

42
Q
  1. (210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
    a. Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
    b. Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).
    c. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.
    d. Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
A

c. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.

43
Q
  1. (210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
    a. Request network services and pass arguments between layers.
    b. Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.
    c. Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
    d. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
A

d. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

44
Q
  1. (211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
    a. Version Identification.
    b. Header Checksum.
    c. Time to Live.
    d. Flags. 232
A

b. Header Checksum.

45
Q
  1. (211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
    a. 239.
    b. 254.
    c. 255.
    d. 256.
A

c. 255.

46
Q
  1. (211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
    a. Class A address.
    b. Class B address.
    c. Class C address.
    d. Class D address.
A

c. Class C address.

47
Q
  1. (211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
    a. Class A address.
    b. Class B address.
    c. Class C address.
    d. Class D address.
A

d. Class D address.

48
Q
  1. (212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
    a. 0–1023.
    b. 1024–49151.
    c. 49152–65535.
    d. 65536–87000.
A

a. 0–1023.

49
Q
  1. (213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?
    a. ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.
    b. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.
    c. RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.
    d. ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.
A

d. ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.

50
Q
  1. (213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?
    a. Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).
    b. Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.
    c. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.
    d. Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.
A

c. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.

51
Q
  1. (214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?
    a. Two gigabits per second (GB/S).
    b. Four GB/S.
    c. Five GB/S.
    d. 10 GB/S.
A

c. Five GB/S.

52
Q
  1. (215) What is a peripheral device?
    a. A main internal component of a computer.
    b. Not a main internal component of a computer.
    c. A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.
    d. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.
A

d. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

53
Q
  1. (215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?
    a. Printer.
    b. Scanner.
    c. Monitor.
    d. Camera lens.
A

b. Scanner.

54
Q
  1. (216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?
    a. Local area network (LAN).
    b. Wide area network (WAN).
    c. Virtual private network (VPN).
    d. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
A

a. Local area network (LAN).

55
Q
  1. (216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?
    a. Local area network (LAN).
    b. Wide area network (WAN).
    c. Virtual private network (VPN).
    d. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
A

b. Wide area network (WAN).

56
Q
  1. (216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?
    a. Local area network (LAN).
    b. Wide area network (WAN).
    c. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
    d. Wireless local area network (WLAN).
A

d. Wireless local area network (WLAN).

57
Q
  1. (216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?
    a. Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting.
    b. Media access control (MAC) Filtering.
    c. Encryption.
    d. Tunneling.
A

c. Encryption.

58
Q
  1. (216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
    a. Local area network (LAN).
    b. Wide area network (WAN).
    c. Virtual private network (VPN).
    d. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
A

c. Virtual private network (VPN).

59
Q
  1. (217) What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?
    a. 1988.
    b. 1999.
    c. 2005.
    d. 2009.
A

b. 1999.

60
Q
  1. (218) How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?
    a. 24.
    b. 15.
    c. 10.
    d. 7.
A

d. 7.

61
Q
  1. (219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.
    a. Media converter.
    b. Modem.
    c. Switch.
    d. Router.
A

a. Media converter.

62
Q
  1. (220) Describe a network bridge.
    a. Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks.213
    b. Network layer device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks.
    c. Data Link layer device that provide central connection to network devices.
    d. Network layer device that provide central connection to network devices.
A

a. Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks.213

63
Q
  1. (221) What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?
    a. Open shortest path first (OSPF).
    b. Exterior gateway protocol (EGP).
    c. Interior gateway protocol (IGP).
    d. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).
A

b. Exterior gateway protocol (EGP).

64
Q
  1. (222) What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?
    a. Switch.
    b. Modem.
    c. Gateway.
    d. Converter.
A

c. Gateway.

65
Q
  1. (223) Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users’ own end terminals?
    a. Internet Protocol.
    b. End-to-end.
    c. Bulk.
    d. Link.
A

b. End-to-end.

66
Q
  1. (224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
    a. Cost to install and train technicians.
    b. Electromagnetic immunity.
    c. Low attenuation.
    d. Security.
A

a. Cost to install and train technicians.

67
Q
  1. (225) In general, how many operating system task categories are there?
    a. Four.
    b. Five.
    c. Six.
    d. Seven.
A

c. Six.

68
Q
  1. (225) What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?
    a. Shell.
    b. Kernel.
    c. User programs.
    d. Dynamic-link library.
A

b. Kernel.

69
Q
  1. (226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?
    a. Word.
    b. Access.
    c. Outlook.
    d. PowerPoint.
A

b. Access.

70
Q
  1. (226) What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?
    a. Word.
    b. Access.
    c. Outlook.
    d. PowerPoint.
A

c. Outlook.

71
Q
  1. (227) What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization’s mission critical information via its communications and ISs?
    a. Malware.
    b. Denial of service attacks.
    c. Inadvertent employee activity.
    d. Hostile information operations.
A

d. Hostile information operations.

72
Q
  1. (228) Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?
    a. Attacker’s capability to exploit the flaw.
    b. System’s susceptibility to a flaw.
    c. Attacker’s access to the flaw.
    d. Attacker’s lack of ability.
A

d. Attacker’s lack of ability.

73
Q
  1. (228) Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?
    a. 4.
    b. 6.
    c. 8.
    d. 10.
A

c. 8.

74
Q
  1. (228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?
    a. Malware.
    b. Spyware.
    c. Adware.
    d. Trojans.
A

b. Spyware.

75
Q
  1. (228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?
    a. Classified message incident.
    b. Eavesdropping.
    c. Data Spillage.
    d. Backdoor.
A

a. Classified message incident.

76
Q
  1. (229) Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?
    a. Banner Lines.
    b. Portion Marks.
    c. Component and office.
    d. Classification authority.
A

a. Banner Lines.

77
Q
  1. (229) Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification.
    a. Banner Lines.
    b. Portion Marks.
    c. Component and office.
    d. Classification authority.
A

d. Classification authority.

78
Q
  1. (230) How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?
    a. General Service Administration (GSA) makes that determination.
    b. Office of Special Investigation (OSI) makes that determination.
    c. Wing information office makes that determination.
    d. By competing a risk assessment.
A

d. By competing a risk assessment.

79
Q
  1. (230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?
    a. When it is placed in service.
    b. When it is removed from service.
    c. When the storage container has been cleaned.
    d. When compromise of the combination is suspected.
A

c. When the storage container has been cleaned.

80
Q
  1. (230) Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?
    a. AF Form 88.
    b. AF Form 143.
    c. AF Form 144.
    d. AF Form 1776.
A

b. AF Form 143.

81
Q
  1. (231) Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?
    a. Classified Information Program Manager.
    b. Information Assurance Officer.203
    c. Security Manager.
    d. Supervisor.
A

b. Information Assurance Officer.203

82
Q
  1. (231) Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?
    a. Classified Information Program Manager.
    b. Information Assurance Officer.
    c. Security Manager.
    d. Supervisor.
A

c. Security Manager.

83
Q
  1. (232) What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?
    a. Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).
    b. Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).
    c. Air Force Information Network (AFIN).
    d. Defense Intelligence Network (DIN).
A

a. Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).

84
Q
  1. (232) Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?
    a. Transport.
    b. Application.
    c. Aerial layer.
    d. Satellite communication (SATCOM).
A

c. Aerial layer.

85
Q
  1. (233) What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?
    a. Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).
    b. Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).
    c. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    d. Air Force Information Network (AFIN).
A

b. Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).

86
Q
  1. (233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
    a. Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).
    b. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
    c. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.
    d. Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.
A

b. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

87
Q
  1. (234) Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?
    a. Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).
    b. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
    c. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.
    d. Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.
A

b. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

88
Q
  1. (234) Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?
    a. Defense Switched Network (DSN).
    b. Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).
    c. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.
    d. Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) Internet Protocol (IP) Data.
A

b. Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).

89
Q
  1. (235) Which system is the Department of Defense’s (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?
    a. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
    b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).
    c. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
    d. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
A

b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

90
Q
  1. (203) Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?
    a. Common Operational Picture (COP).
    b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).
    c. GCCS Status of Resources and Training (GSORTS).
    d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution System (DCAPES).
A

c. GCCS Status of Resources and Training (GSORTS).

91
Q
  1. (236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?
    a. Air Force Portal.
    b. IMDS.
    c. Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).
    d. Electronic-publications (E-pub).
A

a. Air Force Portal.

92
Q
  1. (237) Which system is the Air Forces’ primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?
    a. Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).
    b. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
    c. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
    d. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
A

c. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

93
Q
  1. (238) Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?
    a. Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).
    b. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
    c. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
    d. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
A

a. Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

94
Q
  1. (238) How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?
    a. Six.
    b. Five.
    c. Four.
    d. Two.
A

d. Two.

95
Q
  1. (239) Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?
    a. Global Broadcast System (GBS).
    b. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
    c. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
    d. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
A

a. Global Broadcast System (GBS).

96
Q
  1. (240) What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?
    a. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
    b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
    c. National Military Command Center (NMCC).
    d. Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).
A

c. National Military Command Center (NMCC).

97
Q
  1. (241) Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?
    a. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
    b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
    c. Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).
    d. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
A

a. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

98
Q
  1. (241) What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force’s strategic aircraft and missile functions?
    a. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
    b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
    c. Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).
    d. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
A

a. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

99
Q
  1. (242) What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?
    a. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
    b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
    c. Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).
    d. Global Combat Support System (GCSS).
A

c. Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

100
Q
  1. (242) What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?
    a. Mystic Star.
    b. Global HF system.
    c. Defense Communication System (DCS) entry.
    d. System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA).
A

b. Global HF system.

CDC (7 decks)

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