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CDC > VOLUME 1, SET 1 URE's > Flashcards

VOLUME 1, SET 1 URE's Flashcards

1
Q
  1. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
    a. Spectrum Operations.
    b. Ground Radar Systems.
    c. Cable and Antenna Systems.
    d. Radio Frequency Transmission.
A

d. Radio Frequency Transmission.

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2
Q
  1. (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
    a. Spectrum Operations.
    b. Ground Radar Systems.
    c. Cable and Antenna Systems.
    d. Radio Frequency Transmission.
A

c. Cable and Antenna Systems.

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3
Q
  1. (002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
    a. Core task.
    b. Duty competency.
    c. Core competency.
    d. Duty position task.
A

d. Duty position task.

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4
Q
  1. (003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
    a. Unit training manager (UTM).
    b. Base functional manager (BFM).
    c. Major command functional manager (MFM).
    d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
A

d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

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5
Q
  1. (003) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
    a. Unit training manager (UTM).
    b. Base functional manager (BFM).
    c. Major command functional manager (MFM).
    d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
A

d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

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6
Q
  1. (003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
    a. Unit training manager (UTM).
    b. Base functional manager (BFM).
    c. Major command functional manager (MFM).
    d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
A

c. Major command functional manager (MFM).

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7
Q
  1. (003) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
    a. Unit training manager (UTM).
    b. Base functional manager (BFM).
    c. Major command functional manager (MFM).
    d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
A

c. Major command functional manager (MFM).

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8
Q
  1. (003) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
    a. Unit training manager (UTM).
    b. Base functional manager (BFM).
    c. Major command functional manager (MFM).
    d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
A

b. Base functional manager (BFM).

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9
Q
  1. (004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
    a. Modify local training.
    b. Allocate manpower.
    c. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
    d. Assist the unit training manager in course development.
A

c. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).

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10
Q
  1. (004) What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
    a. Conduct climate training surveys.
    b. Develop Career Development Courses.
    c. Review the occupational analysis report.
    d. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
A

d. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

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11
Q
  1. (004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
    a. Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).
    b. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME.
    c. MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME).
    d. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.
A

d. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.

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12
Q
  1. (005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
    a. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    b. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
    c. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
    d. Occupational Analysis Program.
A

c. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.

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13
Q
  1. (006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
    a. Quality Assessments.
    b. Quality Assurance.
    c. Quality System.
    d. Trend Analysis.
A

b. Quality Assurance.

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14
Q
  1. (006) Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
    a. Technical Evaluation.
    b. Personnel Evaluation.
    c. Managerial Evaluation.
    d. Standard Evaluation.
A

d. Standard Evaluation.

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15
Q
  1. (006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
    a. Trend analysis.
    b. Quality System.
    c. Quality Assessments.
    d. Managerial Assessments.
A

a. Trend analysis.

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16
Q
  1. (007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
    a. Management Inspection (MI).
    b. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
    c. Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
    d. Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).
A

b. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).

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17
Q
  1. (008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
    a. Remedy.
    b. Training Business Area.
    c. Telephone Management System.
    d. Integrated Maintenance Data System.
A

a. Remedy.

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18
Q
  1. (009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
    a. Title 10.
    b. Title 18.
    c. Title 32.
    d. Title 50.
A

a. Title 10.

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19
Q
  1. (009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
    a. Title 3.
    b. Title 8.
    c. Title 10.
    d. Title 18.
A

c. Title 10.

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20
Q
  1. (010) What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?
    a. National Military Cyberspace Strategy.
    b. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
    c. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace.
    d. National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
A

b. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

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21
Q
  1. (010) Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against Americas critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
    a. National Security Policy.
    b. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
    c. Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
    d. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
A

b. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

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22
Q
  1. (010) What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?
    a. National Security Policy.
    b. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
    c. Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
    d. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
A

d. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

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23
Q
  1. (010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
    a. Title 10.
    b. Title 30.
    c. Title 50.
    d. Title 52.
A

a. Title 10.

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24
Q
  1. (010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
    a. misuse of position.
    b. covered relationships.
    c. non-public information.
    d. personal conflict of interest.
A

b. covered relationships.

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25
Q
  1. (010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
    a. Misuse of position.
    b. Covered relationship.
    c. Personal conflict of interest.
    d. None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.
A

b. Covered relationship.

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26
Q
  1. (011) What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
    a. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
    b. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
    c. Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
    d. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
A

b. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

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27
Q
  1. (011) What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?
    a. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
    b. Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
    c. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
    d. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
A

c. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

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28
Q
  1. (011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
    a. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
    b. Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
    c. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
    d. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
A

d. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

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29
Q
  1. (011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
    a. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
    b. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
    c. Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
    d. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
A

a. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

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30
Q
  1. (011) What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?
    a. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
    b. Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
    c. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
    d. Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
A

a. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

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31
Q
  1. (011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
    a. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.
    b. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
    c. Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.
    d. Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
A

a. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

32
Q
  1. (012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
    a. Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.
    b. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.
    c. Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.
    d. Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.
A

b. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.

33
Q
  1. (012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
    a. Active and reactive.
    b. Evasive and decisive.
    c. Subversive and divisive.
    d. Offensive and defensive.
A

a. Active and reactive.

34
Q
  1. (012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
    a. Counterintelligence (CI).
    b. Operation Security (OPSEC).
    c. Military deception (MILDEC).
    d. Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
A

c. Military deception (MILDEC).

35
Q
  1. (013) What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
    a. Strategic Considerations.
    b. Military Strategic Framework.
    c. Implementation and Assessment.
    d. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.
A

d. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.

36
Q
  1. (013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
    a. Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
    b. Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
    c. National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
    d. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
A

d. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

37
Q
  1. (014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
    a. 644th Combat Communication Squadron.
    b. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
    c. 83th Network Operations Squadron.
    d. 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.
A

b. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.

38
Q
  1. (015) Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
    a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
    b. Area Processing Center (APC).
    c. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
    d. Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
A

a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

39
Q
  1. (015) What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?
    a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
    b. Area Processing Center (APC).
    c. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
    d. Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
A

b. Area Processing Center (APC).

40
Q
  1. (015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
    a. Manpower.
    b. Efficiency.
    c. Reduce costs.
    d. Department of Defense 8570 mandate.
A

b. Efficiency.

41
Q
  1. (015) What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
    a. 2009.
    b. 2010.
    c. 2011.
    d. 2012.
A

b. 2010.

42
Q
  1. (016) What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
    a. Subordinate unified command and geographical command.
    b. Unified command and subordinate unified command.
    c. Functional command and geographical command.
    d. Unified command and functional command.
A

b. Unified command and subordinate unified command.

43
Q
  1. (016) The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
    a. Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).
    b. Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).
    c. Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).
    d. Joint Force Commander (JFC).
A

d. Joint Force Commander (JFC).

44
Q
  1. (017) What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
    a. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).
    b. Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).
    c. Unit type codes (UTC).
    d. Stratum levels (SL).
A

a. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).

45
Q
  1. (017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
    a. Coding.
    b. Positioning.
    c. Tempo bands.
    d. Unit type code.
A

d. Unit type code

46
Q
  1. (018) Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
    a. Service Transition.
    b. Service Strategy.
    c. Service Contact.
    d. Service Design.
A

c. Service Contact.

47
Q
  1. (018) What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
    a. Continual Service Improvement.
    b. Service Transition.
    c. Service Strategy.
    d. Service Design.
A

a. Continual Service Improvement.

48
Q
  1. (019) The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
    a. safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.
    b. exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
    c. improve the effectiveness of the mission.
    d. improve the efficiency of the mission.
A

b. exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

49
Q
  1. (019) Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
    a. Article 32.
    b. Article 40.
    c. Article 92.
    d. Article 100.
A

c. Article 92.

50
Q
  1. (019) How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
    a. Two.
    b. Four.
    c. Six.
    d. Eight.
A

c. Six.

51
Q
  1. (019) What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?
    a. A rewriting of the main point.
    b. A well-written summary.
    c. A postscript message.
    d. None of the above.
A

b. A well-written summary.

52
Q
  1. (020) How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?
    a. One.
    b. Two.
    c. Three.
    d. Four.
A

c. Three.

53
Q
  1. (021) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an “official government record?”
    a. AFI 33−321.
    b. AFI 33−322.
    c. AFI 33−329.
    d. AFI 33−332.
A

b. AFI 33−322.

54
Q
  1. (021) Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
    a. Published doctrines.
    b. Geographical base maps.
    c. Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
    d. Library reference or museum exhibitions.
A

d. Library reference or museum exhibitions.

55
Q
  1. (021) Records that are considered to be in draft format
    a. can be altered and are not officially released.
    b. can not be altered, but are officially released.
    c. can not be altered and are officially signed.
    d. officially signed and officially released.
A

a. can be altered and are not officially released.

56
Q
  1. (022) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
    a. Base records manager.
    b. Chief of Office of Records.
    c. Command records manager.
    d. Functional area records manager.
A

c. Command records manager.

57
Q
  1. (022) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
    a. Base records manager.
    b. Chief of Office of Records.
    c. Command records manager.
    d. Functional area records manager.
A

a. Base records manager.

58
Q
  1. (022) Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
    a. Base records manager.
    b. Chief of Office of Records.
    c. Command records manager.
    d. Functional area records manager.
A

d. Functional area records manager.

59
Q
  1. (022) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
    a. Base records manager.
    b. Command records manager.
    c. Chief of the Office of Records.
    d. Functional area records manager.
A

c. Chief of the Office of Records.

60
Q
  1. (023) Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?
    a. The President.
    b. The Chief of Staff.
    c. The Vice President.
    d. The Deputy Secretary.
A

d. The Deputy Secretary.

61
Q
  1. (023) What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?
    a. Direct oversight directives.
    b. Secretary Policy memo.
    c. Directive-type memo.
    d. Chartering directives.
A

d. Chartering directives.

62
Q
  1. (023) What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?
    a. DODD 8140.01.
    b. DODD 5515.01.
    c. DODD 8220.01.
    d. DODD 8570.01.
A

d. DODD 8570.01.

63
Q
  1. (023) How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?
    a. One.
    b. Two.
    c. Three.
    d. Four.
A

b. Two.

64
Q
  1. (023) What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?
    a. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
    b. Deputy Secretary of Defense and authorized signers.
    c. Chief, Manuals Division (MD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).
    d. Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).
A

d. Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).

65
Q
  1. (023) What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?
    a. JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.
    b. JP 5–0, Joint Communications System.
    c. JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning.
    d. JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series.
A

a. JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.

66
Q
  1. (024) What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?
    a. Directive.
    b. Non-directive.
    c. Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM).
    d. Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).
A

b. Non-directive.

67
Q
  1. (024) What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?
    a. AF Doctrine.
    b. AF Handbook (AFH).
    c. AF Pamphlet (AFPAM).
    d. AF Visual Aid (AFVA).
A

b. AF Handbook (AFH).

68
Q
  1. (024) What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?
    a. Air Force Instructions (AFI).
    b. Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).
    c. Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
    d. Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).
A

b. Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).

69
Q
  1. (024) What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?
    a. Air Force Instructions (AFI).
    b. Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).
    c. Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
    d. Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).
A

d. Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).

70
Q
  1. (024) What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?
    a. Air Force Instructions (AFI).
    b. Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).
    c. Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
    d. Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).
A

c. Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

71
Q
  1. (024) What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?
    a. Air Force Instructions (AFI).
    b. Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).
    c. Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
    d. Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).
A

a. Air Force Instructions (AFI).

72
Q
  1. (025) Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?
    a. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
    b. Resources required to manage and use TOs.
    c. Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.
    d. Training to manage and use TOs.
A

a. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

73
Q
  1. (025) What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?
    a. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
    b. Office Automation System (OAS).
    c. Decision Support System (DSS).
    d. Training Business Area (TBA).
A

a. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

74
Q
  1. (025) What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?
    a. Library custodian.
    b. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
    c. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
    d. Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC).
A

b. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

75
Q
  1. (025) Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?
    a. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
    b. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
    c. Library custodian.
    d. Any user.
A

d. Any user.

76
Q
  1. (025) Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with “31” and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?
    a. Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).
    b. Operation and Maintenance TO.
    c. Methods and Procedures TO.
    d. General TO.
A

a. Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).

77
Q
  1. (026) Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
    a. Defense Standardization Program (DSP).
    b. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
    c. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
    d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
A

d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

CDC (7 decks)

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