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CDC > VOLUME 2, SET 1 URE's > Flashcards

VOLUME 2, SET 1 URE's Flashcards

1
Q

(001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight,
beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

a. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
b. Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
c. Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).
d. Client Systems (3D1X1).

A

a. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).

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2
Q

(002) Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

a. Transmission security.
b. Technical security.
c. Emission security.
d. Physical security.

A

b. Technical security.

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3
Q

(003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

a. Core duty.
b. Core value.
c. Core competency.
d. Core responsibility.

A

c. Core competency.

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4
Q

(003) Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

a. Fixed cable systems.
b. Voice network systems.
c. Application software systems.
d. Client-server database systems

A

b. Voice network systems.

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5
Q

(004) Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

a. 1118.
b. 457.
c. 55.
d. 3

A

b. 457.

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6
Q

(005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

a. Biological.
b. Chemical.
c. Physical.
d. Nuclear.

A

d. Nuclear.

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7
Q

(005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

a. Biological.
b. Chemical.
c. Physical.
d. Stress.

A

d. Stress.

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8
Q

(005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

a. 25.
b. 50.
c. 75.
d. 100.

A

a. 25.

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9
Q

(005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the

a. trainer.
b. certifier.
c. technician.
d. supervisor

A

d. supervisor

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10
Q

(005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

a. the circuit is energized.
b. you have a valid prescription.
c. they are certified for high voltage.
d. they are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

A

d. they are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

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11
Q

(006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

a. All personnel.
b. Only safety personnel.
c. Only civilian personnel.
d. Only medical personnel

A

a. All personnel.

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12
Q

(006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while
limiting risk?

a. Risk control.
b. Safety control.
c. Risk management.
d. Safety management.

A

c. Risk management.

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13
Q

(007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

a. Accept unnecessary risk.
b. Apply the RM process continuously.
c. Train and adhere to safety guidelines.
d. Make risk decisions at the lowest level.

A

b. Apply the RM process continuously.

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14
Q

(007) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

a. Four.
b. Five.
c. Six.
d. Seven.

A

b. Five.

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15
Q

(008) An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified
as having what category of vulnerability?

a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

A

a. I.

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16
Q

(008) How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.

A

b. Two.

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17
Q

(008) The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except?

a. maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall.
b. standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall.
c. maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices.
d. install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

A

d. install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

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18
Q

(009) Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

a. IP telephony.
b. Network telephony.
c. Voice protection system.
d. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).

A

a. IP telephony.

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19
Q

(009) You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except?

a. enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches.
b. deploying protection from dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) spoofing.
c. consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).
d. enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client.

A

c. consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).

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20
Q

(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.

A

b. 3.

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21
Q

(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?

a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5.
d. 6.

A

b. 4.

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22
Q

(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

a. 4.
b. 5.
c. 6.
d. 7.

A

d. 7.

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23
Q

(010) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

a. can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host.
b. consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.
c. monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords.
d. monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed.q

A

b. consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.

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24
Q

(010) One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

a. can decrypt data.
b. uses very few network resources.
c. monitors logs for policy violations.
d. can analyze encrypted network traffic.

A

b. uses very few network resources.

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25
Q

(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

a. Active.
b. Passive.
c. Host-based.
d. Network-based.

A

c. Host-based.

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26
Q

(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

a. Active.
b. Passive.
c. Host-based.
d. Network-based.

A

d. Network-based.

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27
Q

(010) Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are?

a. active only.
b. passive only.
c. passive and active.
d. neither passive nor active.

A

c. passive and active.

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28
Q

(010) Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are?

a. active only.
b. passive only.
c. passive and active.
d. neither passive nor active

A

b. Passive only.

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29
Q

(011) What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

a. Default deny.
b. Default allow.
c. Close.
d. Open.

A

d. Open.

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30
Q

(012) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

a. Digital.
b. Biometric.
c. Encryption.
d. E-mail signing.

A

a. Digital.

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31
Q

(012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

a. Set a login ID and password combination for access.
b. Install biometrics and encryption certificates.
c. Place a lock on computer.
d. Store in locked case.

A

a. Set a login ID and password combination for access.

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32
Q

(013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

a. having information ready when needed.
b. not being able to deny who performed network actions.
c. the protection of the network from those not authorized access.
d. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

A

d. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

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33
Q

(014) What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

a. 2000.
b. 3000.
c. 7000.
d. 8500

A

c. 7000.

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34
Q

(015) Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of
DOD’s TEMPEST program?

a. 7700.
b. 7701.
c. 7702.
d. 7703

A

a. 7700.

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35
Q

(015) Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

a. Zoning.
b. Shielding.
c. Suppression.
d. Profile matching.

A

a. Zoning.

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36
Q

(015) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would
be considered to be in facility zone?

a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.

A

b. B.

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37
Q

(015) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would
be considered to be in equipment zone

a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D

A

c. C.

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38
Q

(015) Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified
TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

a. It requires Department of Defense (DOD) approval.
b. It requires certification.
c. It is time consuming.
d. It is expensive.

A

d. It is expensive.

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39
Q

(015) What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

a. Distance and angle.
b. Distance and separation.
c. Induction and grounding.
d. Induction and impedance.

A

a. Distance and angle.

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40
Q

(016) Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical
form. What equipment should be designated as RED?

a. Equipment processing clear-text confidential information.
b. Equipment processing clear-text unclassified information.
c. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
d. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

A

d. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

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41
Q

(016) What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

a. Equipment processing unencrypted classified information.
b. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
c. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.
d. Equipment processing plaintext classified information

A

b. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

42
Q

(016) Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to
another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

a. Physical.
b. Electrical.
c. Equipment.
d. Mechanical

A

b. Electrical.

43
Q

(017) What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

a. 100 ohms or less.
b. 50 ohms or less.
c. 20 ohms or less.
d. 10 ohms or less.

A

d. 10 ohms or less.

44
Q

(017) Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

a. Earth electrode.
b. Fault protection.
c. Signal reference.
d. Lightning protection.

A

d. Lightning protection.

45
Q

(017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

a. Earth electrode.
b. Fault protection.
c. Signal reference.
d. Lightning protection.

A

b. Fault protection.

46
Q

(017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the “signal ground” and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

a. Earth electrode.
b. Fault protection.
c. Signal reference.
d. Lightning protection.

A

c. Signal reference.

47
Q

(018) Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of

a. 1 milliohm.
b. 2 milliohms.
c. 5 milliohms.
d. 10 milliohms.

A

a. 1 milliohm.

48
Q

(018) What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

a. None.
b. Brazing.
c. Welding.
d. Mechanical

A

d. Mechanical

49
Q

(019) What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

a. Bonding.
b. Shielding.
c. Annealing.
d. Grounding.

A

b. Shielding.

50
Q

(019) Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

a. Cable.
b. Circuit.
c. Facility.
d. Equipment.

A

a. Cable.

51
Q

(020) What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

a. Protection from noise.
b. Protection from lightning.
c. Protection from blackouts.
d. Protection from brownouts

A

b. Protection from lightning.

52
Q

(021) Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

a. Class I.
b. Class II.
c. Class III.
d. Class IV.

A

a. Class I.

53
Q

(021) Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

a. Working at a bench.
b. Walking across carpet.
c. Walking across a vinyl floor.
d. Picking up a common plastic bag.

A

b. Walking across carpet.

54
Q

(022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

a. Sag.
b. Spike.
c. Noise.
d. Blackout.

A

d. Blackout.

55
Q

(022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

a. Sag.
b. Spike.
c. Noise.
d. Blackout.

A

b. Spike.

56
Q

(022) Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

a. Sag.
b. Spike.
c. Noise.
d. Blackout

A

c. Noise.

57
Q

(022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as “offline”?

a. Passive standby.
b. Line interactive.
c. Double conversion.
d. Ferro resonant standby.

A

a. Passive standby.

58
Q

(022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest level of protection?

a. Passive standby.
b. Line interactive.
c. Double conversion.
d. Ferro resonant standby

A

c. Double conversion.

59
Q

(023) How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

a. Single.
b. Double.
c. Three.
d. Four

A

c. Three.

60
Q

(024) Which is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries?

a. The facility power requirements.
b. The facility power reserve times.
c. The number of AC converters required for the facility.
d. The amount of current and future floor space available

A

c. The number of AC converters required for the facility.

61
Q

(024) What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial
alternate current [AC] power available)?

a. They generate direct current (DC) power and run the switch.
b. They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power.
c. They rectify the commercial AC to DC and power the system.
d. They serve no function unless commercial power is disconnected

A

b. They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power.

62
Q

(025) Which publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

a. TO 31–20 series.
b. TO 61–20 series.
c. TO 31–10 series.
d. TO 61–10 series.

A

c. TO 31–10 series.

63
Q

(026) How are connectorized cables labeled?

a. The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is
placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
b. The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is
placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.
c. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is
placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
d. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is
placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

A

d. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is
placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

64
Q

(027) Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

a. Lower.
b. Upper.
c. Right.
d. Left.

A

b. Upper.

65
Q

(027) Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed how many feet?

a. 5.
b. 10.
c. 15.
d. 20.

A

a. 5.

66
Q

(028) The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial cable?

a. is less expensive.
b. is easier to install.
c. does not radiate energy.
d. has a low frequency range.

A

c. does not radiate energy.

67
Q

(028) Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

a. Unshielded.
b. Shielded.
c. Twisted pair.
d. Multipair

A

b. Shielded.

68
Q

(029) The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in
color is a?

a. marker.
b. bundle.
c. casing.
d. binder.

A

d. binder.

69
Q

(029) What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

a. Tip and Ring.
b. Tip and Color.
c. Rate and Color.
d. Pair and Position

A

a. Tip and Ring.

70
Q

(030) What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

a. RJ–11.
b. RJ–15.
c. RJ–45.
d. RJ–49.

A

c. RJ–45.

71
Q

(030) Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

a. Blue.
b. Orange.
c. White/blue.
d. White/orange.

A

d. White/orange.

72
Q

(030) What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the open system
interconnection (OSI) model?

a. Straight-through.
b. Crossover.
c. Rollover.
d. Coaxial.

A

b. Crossover.

73
Q

(031) What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

a. The use of light-emitting diodes.
b. The broad bandwidth of the cable.
c. The low signal to noise ratio of the cable.
d. The multiplexing technique used in fiber optics.

A

a. The use of light-emitting diodes.

74
Q

(031) What is the maximum operating temperature of fiber optic cable?

a. 500°C.
b. 1,000°C.
c. 5,000°C.
d. 10,000°C

A

b. 1,000°C.

75
Q

(032) What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?

a. Core, cladding, and shield.
b. Core, cladding, and jacket.
c. Core, conductor, and shield.
d. Core, conductor, and jacket

A

b. Core, cladding, and jacket.

76
Q

(032) Which type of cable is the easiest to splice?

a. Multimode graded-index fiber.
b. Multimode step index fiber.
c. Single mode fiber.
d. Coaxial cable.

A

b. Multimode step index fiber.

77
Q

(033) How long do most fiber-optic epoxies take to set?

a. 30–40 minutes.
b. 12–24 hours.
c. 24–48 hours.
d. 48–72 hours

A

b. 12–24 hours.

78
Q

(033) What do you use to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried
on a fiber cable?

a. Scribe.
b. Strippers.
c. Alco wipes.
d. Polishing cloth.

A

a. Scribe.

79
Q

(033) When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly

a. round.
b. elliptical.
c. flat and level.
d. flat with a 45-degree angle

A

c. flat and level.

80
Q

(034) When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?

a. Common.
b. Voltage.
c. Amperage.
d. Frequency.

A

a. Common.

81
Q

(034) When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

a. Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.
b. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
c. Place the meter in the frequency mode.
d. Set the range for maximum reading

A

b. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

82
Q

(035) The purpose of a breakout box is to

a. provide wiring maps at both ends of the cable.
b. allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors.
c. measure electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance.
d. locate sheath faults, damaged conductors, splices, bridge taps, and split pairs.

A

b. allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors.

83
Q

(035) The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to

a. measure the individual interface signals.
b. change the voltage of individual interface signals.
c. allow the cross-patching of the individual interface conductors.
d. allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.

A

d. allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.

84
Q

(035) What do the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow?

a. Measurement of individual interface signals.
b. Interruption of voltage/current to the interfaces.
c. Cross-patching of individual interface conductors.
d. Changing the voltage of individual interface signals.

A

c. Cross-patching of individual interface conductors.

85
Q

(036) What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control
too far?

a. Masking.
b. Distortion.
c. Deflection.
d. Overloading.

A

b. Distortion.

86
Q

(037) Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

a. sequential records.
b. waveform points.
c. record lengths.
d. record points.

A

b. waveform points.

87
Q

(037) What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous
manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

a. Microprocessor.
b. Acquisition.
c. Memory.
d. Input.

A

a. Microprocessor.

88
Q

(037) What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?

a. Sequential.
b. Repetitive.
c. Real-time.
d. Random.

A

c. Real-time.

89
Q

(037) What is the standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope?

a. Sample mode.
b. Real-time mode.
c. Averaging mode.
d. Peak detect mode.

A

a. Sample mode.

90
Q

(037) Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

a. CURSORS control.
b. MEMORY control.
c. SELECT C1/C2 switch.
d. SAVE/CONTINUE switch.

A

a. CURSORS control.

91
Q

(038) Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

a. Emitter.
b. Receiver.
c. Transmitter.
d. Synchronizer.

A

b. Receiver.

92
Q

(038) What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test
(BERT)?

a. The total amount of bandwidth in the test pattern.
b. The total number of bytes that represent the bits test pattern.
c. The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.
d. The number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern.

A

c. The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.

93
Q

(038) What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

a. Cyclic redundancy check.
b. Bipolar violation.
c. Bit slip.
d. Frame.

A

b. Bipolar violation.

94
Q

(039) When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action might a
manufacturer require to prevent false readings?

a. Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.
b. Connect an injector at the end of the cable being tested.
c. Set the range for maximum reading.
d. Use the frequency mode.

A

a. Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.

95
Q

(040) Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates
a trigger based on the trigger definition?

a. Filter.
b. Buffer.
c. Counter.
d. Central processing unit.

A

a. Filter.

96
Q

(040) What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?

a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
b. Connection statistics.
c. Protocol statistics.
d. Node discovery.

A

c. Protocol statistics.

97
Q

(040) What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as
bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
b. Connection statistics.
c. Protocol statistics.
d. Node discovery.

A

a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

98
Q

(040) What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
b. Connection statistics.
c. Protocol statistics.
d. Node discovery.

A

d. Node discovery.

99
Q

(040) What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

a. Packet internetwork groper (PING).
b. Traffic generator.
c. Route generator.
d. Trace route.

A

a. Packet internetwork groper (PING).

100
Q

(040) What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are
traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

a. Trace route.
b. Route generator.
c. Traffic generator.
d. Packet internetwork groper (PING)

A

a. Trace route.

CDC (7 decks)

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