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PC1-2 > Vol.1-Ch.13 "Emergency Pharmocology" > Flashcards

Vol.1-Ch.13 "Emergency Pharmocology" Flashcards

1
Q

Chemical name VS generic name VS official name VS brand name

A
  • Chemical name: chemical composition and molecular structure
  • Generic name: suggested by manufacturer
  • Official name: listed in United States Pharmacopeia (USP)
  • Brand name: manufacturer gives drug name (trade or proprietary name)
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2
Q

Schedule I type drug and examples:

A

High abuse potential; may lead to severe dependence; no accepted medical indications; used for research, analysis, or instruction only

Examples: Heroin, LSD, mescaline

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3
Q

Schedule II type drug and examples:

A

High abuse potential; may lead to severe dependence; accepted medical indications

Examples: Opium, cocaine, morphine, codeine, oxycodone, hydrocodone, methadone, secobarbital

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4
Q

Schedule III Type drug and examples:

A

Less abuse potential than Schedule I and II; may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence; accepted medical indications

Example: Limited opioid amounts or combined with noncontrolled substances; acetaminophen with codeine, buprenorphine

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5
Q

Schedule IV type drug and examples:

A

Low abuse potential compared to Schedule III; limited psychological and/or physical dependence; accepted medical indications

Examples: Diazepam, lorazepam, phenobarbital

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6
Q

Schedule V type drug and examples:

A

Lower abuse potential compared to Schedule IV; may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence; accepted medical indications

Examples:Limited amounts of opioids; often for cough or diarrhea

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7
Q

4 phases of human drug studies

A

Human studies: four phases.
Phase 1: drug’s pharmacokinetics, toxicity, safe dose.
Phase 2: test on limited population.
Phase 3: refine therapeutic dose; collect data on side effects.
Phase 4: postmarketing analysis during conditional approval

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8
Q

Six Rights of Medication Administration

A 
Six Rights of Medication Administration
Right medication
Right dose
Right time
Right route
Right patient
Right documentation
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9
Q

4 things to consider when treating a pregnant Pt?

A

Pregnant patients; treating two patients.
Drugs that affect mother affect fetus.
Changes in mother’s anatomy and physiology.
Potential for drugs to harm fetus

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10
Q

What is a Broselow tape used for?

A

Broselow tape: approximation for children of average height/weight ratio. Helps find drug dosages for kids

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11
Q

Newborn’s metabolic rates _____ than adult’s; which makes them at _____ risk for toxic interactions.

A

Newborn’s metabolic rates lower than adult’s; which makes them at higher risk for toxic interactions.

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12
Q

4 things to consider with geriatric Pts

A

Absorb oral medications slower.
Aging alters distribution of drugs.
Likely to be on multiple medications; multiple underlying disease processes.
Medication interactions can have severe impact

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13
Q

Pharmacokinetics VS pharmacodynamics

A

Pharmacokinetics: how drugs transported into and out of body.
Pharmacodynamics: drug effects once they reach target tissues.

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14
Q

Do drugs create new cell properties or modify/exploit existing cell properties?

A

Drugs do not confer new properties on cells or tissues; modify/exploit existing functions.

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15
Q

4 processes of pharmacokinetics?

A

Processes:

  • absorption
  • distribution
  • biotransformation
  • elimination.
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16
Q

Passive VS Active Transport?

A
  • Active transport: use of energy to move a substance; achieved by breakdown of high-energy chemical bonds.
  • Passive transport: movement of substance without use of energy.
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17
Q

Diffusion VS Osmosis VS Filtration

A

Diffusion: movement of solute in solution.

Osmosis: movement of solvent.

Filtration: movement of molecules across membrane down pressure gradient; area of high pressure to lower pressure.

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18
Q

If drug is not soluble in water than…?

A

If drug not soluble in water, it will have difficulty being absorbed.

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19
Q

Rate of drug absorption is directly related to _____?

A

Rate of absorption directly related to amount of surface area available for absorption.

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20
Q

Ionized drugs do not _____; most drugs do not fully ionize.

A

Ionized drugs do not absorb across membranes of cells; most drugs do not fully ionize.

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21
Q

A drugs concentration affects _____; _____ concentration, more rapidly the body will absorb them.

A

A drug’s concentration affects absorption; higher concentration, more rapidly the body will absorb them.

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22
Q

Loading dose is?

A

Loading dose: larger dose of same concentration of drug.

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23
Q

Bioavailability means?

A

Bioavailability: measure of amount of drug still active after it reaches target tissue.

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24
Q

Once drug enters bloodstream, it must _____

A

Distribution: once drug enters bloodstream, it must be distributed throughout body

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25
Q

Passes from bloodstream, through _____, into target cells

A

Passes from bloodstream, through interstitial spaces, into target cells

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26
Q

Certain organs can _____ some drugs from distribution.

A

Certain organs can exclude some drugs from distribution.

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27
Q

Chief proteins in blood for binding with drugs?

A

Albumins

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28
Q

What can affect protein-binding action of drug?

A
  • Changing bloodstream’s pH can affect protein-binding action of drug.
  • Presence of serum protein-binding drugs can affect drug-protein binding.
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29
Q

What is biotransformation?
What is a metabolite?
What is a prodrug or “parent drug”
Why are these important?

A
  • Biotransformation: metabolism of drugs.
  • Transforms drug into more or less active metabolite; makes drug more water soluble to facilitate elimination.
  • Prodrugs (parent drugs) not active when administered; biotransformation converts them into active metabolites.
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30
Q

Where does most biotransformation occur?
Phase 1 = ?
Phase 2 = ?

A

Liver
Phase I: nonsynthetic reactions.
Phase II: synthetic reactions

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31
Q

Renal Excretion includes? (2)

A

Renal excretion: glomerular filtration and tubular secretion.

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32
Q

Changing urine pH affects _____?

A

Changing urine pH affects reabsorption in renal tubules.

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33
Q

Most drugs are secreted via _____?

Other routes include? (5)

A

Urine

or

Drugs excreted through expired air, feces, sweat, saliva, breast milk.

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34
Q

Enteral Routes VS Parenteral Routes (drug admin)

A

Enteral routes deliver medications by absorption through gastrointestinal tract.

Parenteral routes: needles to inject medications into circulatory system or tissues.

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35
Q

What dictates how drugs are stored?

A

Guidelines

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36
Q

What properties of the drug and environment may effect stored drugs?

A

Temperature, light, moisture, shelf life.

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37
Q

4 actions of drugs?

A

Actions of Drugs

  • Bind to receptor site.
  • Change physical properties of cells.
  • Chemically combine with other chemicals.
  • Alter normal metabolic pathway.
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38
Q

Affinity VS Efficacy

A

Affinity: force of attraction between drug and receptor.
(greater the affinity, stronger the bond)

Efficacy: drug’s ability to cause expected response

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39
Q

Most drugs bind to _____.

Almost all drug receptors are _____ on _____ cells

A

Most drugs bind to receptor.

Almost all drug receptors are protein molecules on surfaces of cells

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40
Q

Drugs _____ or _____ cell’s normal biochemical actions.

A

Drugs stimulate or inhibit cell’s normal biochemical actions.

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41
Q

Down-Regulation VS Up-Regulation

A

Down-regulation: decreased responsiveness of target cell to drug as number of active receptors decreases.

Up-regulation: drug causes formation of more receptors than normal; increases target tissue’s sensitivity to particular drug or hormone

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42
Q

Agonist VS Antagonist

A

Agonists: bind to receptor site; cause it to initiate expected response.

Antagonists: bind to site; do not cause receptor to initiate expected response.

(Agonist-antagonists may do both)

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43
Q

Receptor-mediated drug actions work like a lock (_____) and key (_____).

A

Receptor-mediated drug actions work like a lock (receptor) and key (agonist).

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44
Q

Drug-response relationship correlates?

A

Drug-response relationship: correlates different amounts of drug to clinical response.

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45
Q

Plasma-level profiles: include? (3)

Define each profile?

A

Plasma-level profiles: lengths of onset, duration, termination of action.

Onset of action: time from administration until medication reaches its minimum effective concentration.

Duration of action: length of time amount of drug remains effective.

Termination of action: drug’s level drops below minimum effective concentration.

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46
Q

Therapeutic index?

A

Therapeutic index: drug’s margin of safety.

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47
Q

Biologic half-life means?

A

Biologic half-life: time body takes to clear one-half of drug.

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48
Q

Drug interactions occur when?

Two drugs compete _____.

A

Occur whenever two or more drugs are available in same patient.

  • Two drugs compete for plasma protein binding.
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49
Q

What are some things that occur when 2 drugs are in the system at the same time? (5)

A
  • One drug alters rate of intestinal absorption.
  • One drug alters the other’s metabolism.
  • One drug’s action at receptor site may be antagonistic or synergistic to another’s.
  • One drug alters the other’s rate of excretion through kidneys.
  • One drug alters balance of electrolytes necessary for other drug’s expected result.
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50
Q

Ways to classify drugs? (3)

A
  • Body system they affect, Mechanism of action, indications.
  • Source or by chemical class.
  • According to their uses
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51
Q

Prototype?

A

Prototype: drug that demonstrates class’s common properties and illustrates its particular characteristics.

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52
Q

CNS VS PNS?

Somatic nervous system VS autonomic nervous system?

A
  • Central nervous system: brain and spinal cord; all nerves that originate and terminate within brain or spinal cord
  • Peripheral nervous system: everything else
  • Somatic nervous system: voluntary (motor) functions
  • Autonomic nervous system: involuntary (automatic) functions.

Peripheral NS = Somatic NS + Autonomic NS
Autonomic NS = Sympathetic + Parasympathetic

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53
Q

Sympatheic VS Parasympathetic

A 
Sympathetic = Fight or Flight
Parasympathetic = Feed or Breed
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54
Q

Analgesics: ?
Analgesia: ?
Anesthesia: ?

A

Analgesics: medications that relieve sensation of pain.
Analgesia: absence of sensation of pain.
Anesthesia: absence of all sensation

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55
Q

Opioid antagonists?

A

Opioid antagonists: reverse effects of opioid analgesics.

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56
Q

Adjunct medications: ?

A

Adjunct medications: enhance effect of other analgesics.

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57
Q

Prototype opioid drug: ?

A

Prototype opioid drug: morphine

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58
Q

4 common opiodes?

A

Morphine (Duramorph)
Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
Meperidine (Demerol)

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59
Q

4 Common non-opioid analgesics?

A

Acetaminophen (tylenol)
Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
Ketorolac (Toradol)
Asprin

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60
Q

2 common opioid antagonists?

A

Naloxone (Narcan)

Nalmefene (Revex)

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61
Q

2 common opioid agonist-antagonists?

A

Nalbuphine (Nubian)

Butorphanol (Stadol)

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62
Q

Anesthetics depress what 3 systems?

Given route?
Usually given via _____ outside operating room

A

Anesthetics: cause respiratory, central nervous system (CNS), cardiovascular depression.

Given by inhalation or injection.

Most anesthetics used outside operating room given intravenously.

Given locally to block sensation

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63
Q

Acetaminophen (tylenol):

Class?
Action?
dosage?
indication?
contraindications?
route?
A
  • Nonnarcotic, analgesic, antipyretic
  • Uncertain; felt to inhibit cyclooxygenase
  • 325-650mg
  • Mild Pain, Fever
  • sensitive to drug, alcoholism, chronic liver disease
  • PO, IV

(can be liver toxic so use minimal dosage necessary)

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64
Q

Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil):

Class?
Action?
dosage?
indication?
contraindications?
route?
A
  • NSAID
  • Anti-inflammatory and antipyretic through inhibition of prostaglandins
  • 200-800mg
  • mild pain, fever, inflammation
  • Sensitive to drug, bronchospasms, angioedema
  • IV, IM

(commonly causes gastric upset)

65
Q

NSAID?

A

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug

66
Q

Asprin:

Class?
Action?
dosage?
indication?
contraindications?
route?
A
  • NSAID
  • Anti-inflammatory and antipyretic through inhibition
    of thromboxane A2
  • 350-650mg
  • mild pain, fever, Platelet aggregation inhibitor
  • sensitive to drug, bronchospasms, angioedema,
    Patients receiving monamine oxidase inhibitors
  • PO
67
Q

Antipyretic = ?

A

Reduces fever

68
Q

Antianxiety and sedative-hypnotic drug effects?

A

Antianxiety and sedative-hypnotic drugs: decrease anxiety, induce amnesia, assist sleeping, part of balanced approach to anesthesia

69
Q

Sedation means?

Hypnosis is?

A

Sedation: state of decreased anxiety and inhibitions.
Hypnosis: instigation of sleep.

70
Q

Antianxiety/Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs include? (2)

what do they do? what is the antagonist?

A

Antianxiety/Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs

  • Benzodiazepines, barbiturates: decrease response to stimuli; dose dependent.
  • Benzodiazepines antagonist: flumazenil.
71
Q

Minimal Sedation effects on:

Responsiveness?
Airway?
Spontaneous Ventilation?
Cardiovascular function?

A
  • Normal response to verbal stimulation
  • Unaffected
  • Unaffected
  • Unaffected
72
Q

Moderate Sedation/Analgesia effects on:

Responsiveness?
Airway?
Spontaneous Ventilation?
Cardiovascular function?

A
  • Purposeful response to verbal or tactile stimulation
  • No intervention required
  • Adequate
  • Usually Maintained
73
Q

Deep Sedation/Analgesia effects on:

Responsiveness?
Airway?
Spontaneous Ventilation?
Cardiovascular function?

A
  • Purposeful response to verbal or tactile stimulation
  • Intervention may be required
  • May be inadequate
  • Usually maintained
74
Q 
General Anesthesia (deepest sedation) effects on:
Responsiveness?
Airway?
Spontaneous Ventilation?
Cardiovascular function?
A
  • Unarousable, even with painful stimulation
  • Intervention often required
  • Frequently inadequate
  • May be impaired
75
Q 
Ramsey Sedation Score:
1 = ?
2 = ?
3 = ?
4 = ?
5 = ?
6 = ?
A 
1 = Patient is anxious and agitated, or both.
2 = Patient is cooperative, oriented, and tranquil.
3 = Patient responds to commands only.
4 = Patient exhibits brisk response to light glabellar tap or loud auditory stimulus.
5 = Patient exhibits a sluggish response to light glabellar tap or loud auditory stimulus.
6 = Patient exhibits no response.

glabellar (between eyebrows—just above the nose)

76
Q

7 common sedative/hypnotics?

A

Benzodiazepines:

  • Diazepam (Valium)
  • Midazolam (Versed)
  • Lorazepam (Ativan)

Dissociative Agents:

  • Ketamine (Ketalar)

Miscellaneous Agents:

  • Nitrous Oxide
  • Propofol (Diprivan)
  • Etomidate (Amidate)
77
Q

Seizures are? (partial=? , generalized=?)

Goal of seizure management = ?

A

Seizures: state of hyperactivity of section of brain (partial); all of brain (generalized).

Goal of seizure management: balance eliminating seizures against side effects of medications used to treat them

(May or may not be accompanied by convulsions.)

78
Q

Most common general mechanism treated in seizures is?

A

Most common: direct action on sodium and calcium ion channels in neural membranes.

79
Q

CNS stimulants do what 2 things?

A

Central Nervous System Stimulants:

  • Increasing release or effectiveness of excitatory neurotransmitters.
  • Decreasing release or effectiveness of inhibitory neurotransmitters.

(Amphetamines, methylphenidates, methylxanthines)

80
Q

Psychotherapeutic medications:
for what?
involve what drug?
do what?

A

Psychotherapeutic Medications

  • Treat mental dysfunction.
  • Involve monoamine.
  • Regulating excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters is basis for psychopharmaceutical therapy.

(Schizophrenia, Depression, Bipolar disorder)

81
Q

2 chief pharmeceutical classes of antipsychotics and neuroleptics?

A

Chief pharmaceutical classes of antipsychotics and neuroleptics: phenothiazines and butyrophenones.

82
Q

Strength VS Potency

A

Strength: drug’s concentration.
Potency: amount of drug necessary to produce desired effect

83
Q

3 common antipsychotics?

A
  • Haloperidol
  • Chlorpromazine
  • Ziprasidone
84
Q

Parkinson’s Disease:

_____ system disorder caused by: ?

_____ disease: goal to ?

A

Parkinson’s Disease:

  • Nervous system disorder caused by destruction of dopamine-releasing neurons in substantia nigra; controlling fine movements.
  • Progressive disease: goal to restore ability to function without causing unacceptable side effects.
85
Q

Preganglionic VS Autonomic ganglia VS Postganglionic

A

Preganglionic: autonomic nerve fibers exit CNS; terminate in autonomic ganglia.

Autonomic ganglia: nerve fibers from CNS interact with nerve fibers from ganglia to target organs.

Postganglionic: autonomic nerve fibers exit ganglia; terminate in target tissues.

86
Q

Synapse: ?

A

Synapse: space between nerve cells.

87
Q

Neuroeffector junction: ?

A

Neuroeffector junction: space between nerve cell and target organ.

88
Q

Neurotransmitters: ?

A

Neurotransmitters: conduct nervous impulse between nerve cells or between nerve cell and target organ.

89
Q

Cholinergic: (type of synapse that uses?)

A

Cholinergic: synapses that use acetylcholine as neurotransmitter.

90
Q

Adrenergic: (type of synapses that uses?)

What 4 nerves use this?

A

Adrenergic: synapses that use norepinephrine as neurotransmitter.

Oculomotor nerve (III)
Facial nerve (VII)
Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
Vagus nerve (X)
91
Q

Stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system results in: (5)

A

Stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system results in:

  • Pupillary constriction
  • Secretion by digestive glands
  • Reduction in heart rate; cardiac contractile force
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Increased smooth muscle activity along digestive tract
92
Q

Parasympathetic system has two types of ACh receptors: ?

A

Parasympathetic system has two types of ACh receptors: nicotinic and muscarinic

93
Q

Nicotinic ACh Receptors (Acetylcholine)

  • Found at neuromuscular junctions of?
  • Found on postganglionic _____ nerves?
  • Found on many _____
  • Agonist?
  • Antagonist?
A
  • Found at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal (only) uscles.
  • Found on postganglionic parasympathetic nerves.
  • Found on many neurons in the brain.
  • Nicotine
  • Curare
94
Q

Muscarinic ACh Receptors (Acetylcholine)

  • Found at neuromuscular junctions of?
  • Found on postganglionic _____ nerves?
  • Found on many _____
  • Agonist?
  • Antagonist?
A
  • Found at the neuromuscular junction of smooth and cardiac muscles
  • Found on postganglionic sympathetic nerves.
  • Found on glands
  • Muscarine
  • Atropine
95
Q

Direct-acting VS Indirect-acting cholinergic drugs

A

Direct-acting cholinergics simulate effects of ACh.

Indirect-acting cholinergic drugs affect acetylcholinesterase.

96
Q

SLUDGE stands for?

A

SLUDGE

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
Gastric motility
Emesis
97
Q

Prototype direct-acting cholinergic: ?

A

Bethanechol

98
Q

Prototype reversible cholinesterase inhibitor: ?

A

Neostigmine

99
Q

Prototype anticholinergic drug: ?

A

Atropine

100
Q

Anticholinergic agents oppose the _____ nervous system.

A

parasympathetic nervous system.

101
Q

Muscarinic cholinergic antagonists do what?

A

Block effects of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (anticholinergics or parasympatholytics).

102
Q

2 types of parasympatholytic meds?

A

Atropine and Ipratropium

103
Q

Nicotinic cholinergic antagonists: block acetylcholine only at _____ sites.

A

Nicotinic cholinergic antagonists: block acetylcholine only at nicotinic sites.

104
Q

Ganglionic blocking agents: 2?

Both used to treat ?

A

Ganglionic blocking agents: trimethaphan and mecamylamine.

Both used to treat hypertension.

105
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents: do what?

A

Neuromuscular blocking agents: produce state of paralysis without affecting consciousness.

106
Q

3 different neuromuscular meds?

A

Succinylcholine
Vecuronium
Rocuronium

107
Q

Ganglionic stimulating agents: ?

A

alkaloid nicotine

108
Q

Sympathetic nervous system does what 6 things?

A

Sympathetic nervous system

Stimulation of secretion by sweat glands
Constriction of blood vessels in skin
Increase in blood flow to skeletal muscles
Increase in heart rate and force of cardiac contractions
Bronchodilation
Stimulation of energy production

109
Q

Collateral ganglia: abdominal cavity.

does what 4 things?

A

Collateral ganglia: abdominal cavity.
Reduction of blood flow to abdominal organs
Decreased digestive activity
Relaxation of smooth muscle in wall of urinary bladder
Release of glucose stores from liver

110
Q

Sympathomimetics VS Sympatholytics

A

Sympathomimetics: stimulate sympathetic nervous system.

Sympatholytics: inhibit sympathetic nervous system

111
Q

Natural catecholamines: include (3)

Synthetic catecholamines: include (2)

A

Natural catecholamines: norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine.

Synthetic catecholamines: dobutamine and isoproterenol

112
Q

Alpha1 antagonism: controls ?

A

Alpha1 antagonism: controlling hypertension.

113
Q

Beta1 stimulation: increases ? (3); cardiac arrest and hypotension.

A

Beta1 stimulation: increases heart rate, contractility, conduction; cardiac arrest and hypotension.

114
Q

Beta1 antagonists: control ?.

A

Beta1 antagonists: control blood pressure.

115
Q

Beta2 agonists: treat ?

A

Beta2 agonists: treat asthma and excessive narrowing of bronchioles.

116
Q

Alpha adrenergic antagonists:

noncompetitive VS competitive (long or short acting)

A

Alpha adrenergic antagonists:

noncompetitive, long-acting;
competitive, short-acting

117
Q

Prototype of direct-acting muscle relaxants: ?

A

Dantrolene.

118
Q

Which is inside and outside the cell in the sodium potassium pump?

What ion is inside the cell that is used for muscle contraction

A

Sodium on outside
Potassium on inside

Calcium is inside the cells and used for muscle contraction

119
Q

4 classes of cardiovascular drugs:

1 has an A/B/C

A

Class Ia = decrease repolarization rate
Ib = increase repolarization rate
Ic = decrease conduction velocity; delay
ventricular repolarization.
Class II = Beta Blockers
Class III = Potassium Channel Blockers
Class IV = Calcium Channel Blockers (decreasing conductivity through AV node; similar to beta blockers)

120
Q

5 examples of Antihypertensives

A

Antihypertensives

Diuretics
Beta-blockers and antiadrenergic drugs
ACE inhibitors
Calcium channel blockers
Direct vasodilators
121
Q

Drugs that affect blood volume control hypertension by manipulating _____.
What are most frequently prescribed antihypertensives

A

Drugs that affect blood volume control hypertension by manipulating preload.

Diuretics and beta-blockers most frequently prescribed

122
Q

Antihypertensives:

Loop Diuretics VS Thiazides VS Potassium-sparing diuretics

A

Loop diuretics profoundly affect circulating blood volume. (Prototype: furosemide)

Thiazides: decrease fluid volume to prevent hypertension; not so much that they promote hypotension.
(Prototype: hydrochlorothiazide)

Potassium-sparing diuretics: not very potent diuretics; rarely used alone.

123
Q

Fastest-acting antihypertensive available?

Works on arteris or veins?

A

Sodium nitroprusside acts on both arterioles and veins; fastest-acting antihypertensive available.

124
Q

What occurs naturally in the foxglove plant? What is it useful for?

A

Cardiac glycosides: occur naturally in foxglove plant.
Indicated for heart failure and some types of arrhythmias.
Increases myocardial contractility and cardiac output.

125
Q

3 types of angina pectoris?

A

Types of angina pectoris: stable; unstable; variant (Prinzmetal’s angina).

126
Q

Stable VS Unstable Angina

A

Stable angina occurs after exercise; unstable angina without exertion.

127
Q

_____ channel blockers have role in treatment of angina.

A

Calcium channel blockers have role in treatment of angina.

128
Q

_____ are potent vasodilators used to treat all forms of angina.

Nitroglycerin dilates _____ rather than _____

A

Organic nitrates are potent vasodilators used to treat all forms of angina.

Nitroglycerin dilates veins rather than arterioles

129
Q

Hemostasis: ?

A

Hemostasis: stoppage of bleeding; series of events in response to tear in blood vessel.

130
Q

Thrombi : ?

Primary pathology in ?

A

Thrombi (blood clots that obstruct vessels or heart cavities): primary pathology in myocardial infarction, stroke, pulmonary embolism.

131
Q

Hemostatic Agents:

Antiplatelet drugs VS Anticoagulants VS Fibrinolytics

A

Antiplatelet drugs: decreasing platelet aggregation.
Anticoagulants: interfering with clotting cascade.
Fibrinolytics: directly breaking up thrombus.

132
Q

Hemostatic Agents:

Side effect?
Prototype antiplatelet drug: ?

A
  • bleeding

- Prototype antiplatelet drug: aspirin.

133
Q

Prototype parenteral anticoagulant: ?
Prototype oral anticoagulant?
What reverses parenteral anticoagulant?

A

Prototype parenteral anticoagulant: herapin
Prototype oral anticoagulant: warfarin.
Protamine can reverse effects of heparin.

134
Q

Lipoproteins : ?

Elevated levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) indicated as causative factor in _____

A

Lipoproteins: transport mechanisms for lipids (triglycerides and cholesterol).

Elevated levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) indicated as causative factor in coronary artery disease.

135
Q

Antihyperlipidemic Agents:

HDLs VS LDLs
(high or low density lipoproteins)

As blood cholesterol levels increase, ____ is deposited

A

HDLs: good cholesterol; lower blood cholesterol levels and decrease risk of coronary artery disease (CAD).

LDLs: bad cholesterol; increase blood cholesterol levels and risk of CAD.

As blood cholesterol levels increase, fatty plaque is deposited

136
Q

Goal of Antihyperlipidemic Agents: ?

A

Goal in lowering LDL levels: prevent atherosclerosis and subsequent CAD.

137
Q

Statins are ?

A

Statins: drugs that inhibit hydroxymethylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG CoA) reductase

138
Q

Beta 2 receptors usually used for?

A

Bronchodilation (asthma meds)

139
Q

Rhinitis: ?
Nasal congestion: ?
Drugs that help typically help by?
Alpha1 agonists given ?

A
  • Rhinitis: inflammation of nasal lining.
  • Nasal congestion: dilated and engorged nasal capillaries.
  • Drugs that constrict capillaries effective nasal decongestants.
  • Alpha1 agonists given topically or orally.
140
Q

Productive cough VS Unproductive cough

A

Productive cough: particles coughed up.

Unproductive cough: results from irritated oropharynx

141
Q

Expectorants: increase ?
Mucolytics: ?

A

Expectorants: increase productivity of cough.
Mucolytics: makes mucus watery; easier to cough up

142
Q

4 Main Indications for Gastrointestinal Drug Therapy: ?

A

Main Indications for Gastrointestinal Drug Therapy

Peptic ulcers
Constipation
Diarrhea and emesis
Digestion

143
Q

Peptic ulcer disease (PUD): ?

Treatment: ?

A

Peptic ulcer disease (PUD):
Imbalance between factors in gastrointestinal system that increase acidity and those that protect against acidity.

(Ex. Indigestion, heartburn, perforated ulcers)

Treatment: antibiotics; drugs that block or decrease secretion of gastric acid

144
Q

Proton pump inhibitors: act directly on _____ enzyme that secretes gastric acid.

A

Proton pump inhibitors: act directly on K+ H+ ATPase enzyme that secretes gastric acid.

145
Q

Antacids: ?

A

Antacids: alkalotic compounds used to increase gastric environment’s pH.

146
Q

Underlying disease usually correlated with diarrhea?

A

Bacterial Infection

147
Q

Antiemetics: ?

A

Antiemetics: prevent emesis.

148
Q

Ophthalmic drugs: treat?

Glaucoma: ?

A

Ophthalmic drugs: treat conditions involving eyes; glaucoma and trauma.
Glaucoma: degenerative disease; affects optic nerve

149
Q

mydriasis : ?

cycloplegia : ?

A

mydriasis : pupil dilation

cycloplegia : paralysis of ciliary muscles used to focus vision

150
Q

Ototoxic symptom: is ?

treat with : ?

A

Ototoxic symptom: tinnitus

treat with aspirin and NSAIDs.

151
Q

what gland is the “master gland”?

A

pituitary

152
Q

Parathyroid glands regulate ?
Hypoparathyroidism?
Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Parathyroid glands: regulate calcium levels.
Hypoparathyroidism: decreased levels of calcium and vitamin D.
Hyperparathyroidism: high levels of calcium

153
Q

Thyroid gland: regulates ?
Hypothyroidism: ?
Goiters: ?
Hyperthyroidism? (What disease is related to this?)

A

Thyroid gland: regulates growth, maturation, metabolism.

Hypothyroidism: thyroid hormone replacement.

Goiters: enlargements of thyroid gland.

Hyperthyroidism: excessive release of thyroid hormones; result of tumors. (graves disease)

154
Q

Drugs affecting the adrenal cortex:

Most important glucocorticoid: ?

Mineralocorticoids regulate ? (primary one is ?)

Androgens: regulate ?

(all three of these are hormones secreted by adrenal cortex)

A

Most important glucocorticoid: cortisol.

Mineralocorticoids regulate salt and water balance; primary is aldosterone.

Androgens: regulate sexual maturation and development.

155
Q

Drugs affecting female repro system:

Principal ovarian estrogen: ?

A

Principal ovarian estrogen: estradiol.

156
Q

Drugs affecting female repro system:

Oxytocics VS Tocolytics

A

Uterine Stimulants and Relaxants

Oxytocics: increase uterine contraction (uterine stimulants); ergonovine.

Tocolytics: relax uterus or inhibit uterine contraction; terbutaline, ritodrine.

157
Q

Drugs Affecting Female Reproductive System

Infertility agents: promote ?

A

Infertility agents: promote maturation of ovarian follicles.

158
Q

Drugs Used to Treat Cancer

Antimetabolite drugs: do?
Alkylating agents: do?
Mitotic inhibitors: do?

A

Antimetabolite drugs: mimic enzymes and proteins needed for DNA; prevent cells from reproducing

Alkylating agents: interfere with DNA splitting.

Mitotic inhibitors: interfere with cell division.

159
Q

Fungi: are?

A

Fungi: parasitic microorganisms that cannot synthesize their own food.

PC1-2 (23 decks)

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