Vol I Questions

Question 1

Explain Captain/Dispatcher Joint Responsibility

Answer 1

They are jointly responsible for the pre-flight planning of each flight. They shall determine the suitability of weather, field, traffic and airway facilities.

Question 2

When is an ALTERNATE required?

Answer 2

1. DOMESTIC1,2,3 Rule (1 Hr before/after ETA, Ceiling 2000ft AFE, VIS 3SM). ORFLAG - Greater of 2,000FT AFE or 1500 above lowest published IAP Min. and 3SM or 2SM more than lowest applicable VIS min.
2. Marginal - Ceiling is within 100ft, or VIS is within 1/2 mile of minimums for DES airport.

D. Exemption 3585 - “BECMG, PROB, TEMPO” - 2 ALTS

E. Other reasons for ALT: International w/ one runway, Scheduled Flag >6 hrs, off-line charter/supplemental, method 2, Severe icing, RNAV only airport.

Question 3

What ways can you get a valid W&B?

Answer 3

ACARS W&B, CLP - Centralized Load Planning with possible flight crew readback form.

Question 4

When is a TO alternate required?

Answer 4

A. When weather conditions at DEPT airport are lower than CAT I mins.
B. Max of 1 hr flight time and distance of 330 NM (Normal cruise speed, single engine, still air).

Question 5

When is A/P required for an approach?

Answer 5

Weather is less than 4000 RVR or 3/4 VIS. and A/P is functional.

Question 6

When is auto-land required?

Answer 6

A. ATIS reported VIS is at or below 2400RVR or 1/2 SM.
B. CAT II/III Runway available
C. Aircraft capable
D. Crew members Trained

Question 7

What equipment must be operating prior to entering RVSM airspace?

Answer 7

A. 2 Primary Altitude Measuring Systems 
B. 1 Automatic A/P System 
C. 1 Altitude Alerting Device 
D. 1 Altitude Reporting Transponder
E. ADRs (2)
F. DMCs (2)
G. FCU
H. PFDs (2)

Question 8

What are 4 requirements to accept an RNAV departure?

Answer 8

A. Must be retrieved from Nav Database
B. Must use FD or AP in LNAV
C. Cross track error limited to 0.5 NM
D. Must be able to engage RNAV no later than 500ft above airport elevation.

Question 9

How must an approach be conducted when the visibility is less than 3/4 mi, or 4000 RVR?

Answer 9

Coupled approach if A/P is available

Question 10

How must an approach be conducted when the visibility is 1/2 mi / 2400 RVR or less?

Answer 10

Auto-land must be conducted if available. You can use 1800 CAT I mins if no auto-land available

Question 11

What flight release paperwork is required to be onboard before a flight can block out?

Answer 11

Dispatch Release
Flight Plan 
Latest available weather and forecast 
NOTAM's
Performance Info
Weight and Balance Manifest

Question 12

How does a pilot initiate the call to the FAs to inform them to prepare the cabin for possible evacuation?

Answer 12

Use EMERG Call button

Question 13

What is the lowest authorized RVR F9 can depart a runway?

Answer 13

500/500/500 HIRL and CL lights

Question 14

When is the crew briefing required?

Answer 14

1. When practicable
2. First flight of the day.
3. Crew changes occurs during the duty day

Question 15

When is a DDA required? (Derived Decision Altitude)

Answer 15

when conducting an approach with a published MDA(H). Add 50ft to the MDA (H).

Question 16

Is F9 authorized to fly circle to land approaches? Is F9 authorized to perform circle to land maneuvers? If so, what are the minimums?

Answer 16

Circling Approaches - NO
Circling Maneuvers- YES, ceiling/vis must be the higher of 1000/3 or charted circling mins. Use higher of 1000HAA or MDA for minimums.

Question 17

How many wing walkers are required to park the plane at the gate?

Answer 17

None required; 2 Preferred

Question 18

What is the definition of Marginal Weather?

Answer 18

Ceiling within 100ft, or vis within 1/2 mi of the minimums for the destination airport.

Question 19

RNP 10

Answer 19

50nm separation laterally over specified areas.

Question 20

RNAV 1 &2

Answer 20

Total system error of not more than 1NM & 2NM for 95% of the total flight time.

Question 21

When may we fly to a published MDA?

Answer 21

Never, a DDA must be utilized when a MDA is published/

Question 22

Who has the authority to cancel a flight

Answer 22

Only SOC (Systems Operations Control) has the authority to cancel a flight.

Question 23

Explain Method 1 vs Method 2

Answer 23

Method 1 - En-route obstacle clearance from V1 to Destination. 1,000ft and 5sm on either side.
Method 2. - Obstacle clearance from any en-route point to diversion. 2,000ft and 5sm on either side.

Question 24

Standard Strategy vs. Obstacle Strategy

Answer 24

Standard - Descend at SPD M.78/300kts (CEO) or M.77/270Kts (NEO)
Obstacle - Descend at Green Dot

Question 25

During single engine taxi, the #2 engine must be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to take off and why?

Answer 25

320 CEO No less than 2 min

320 NEO No less than 3 minutes to avoid thermal shock as well as ensuring both engines are fed from separate wing tanks.

321 NEO - After​ a shutdown​ period greater than​ 2 h,​ to​ avoid thermal shock, the pilot​ should operate the engine at ​idle​ or​ near​ idle​ for​ at​ least​ 5​ min

Question 26

Lost Certificate?

Answer 26

FAA website for a temporary authority. Only good for 60 days

Question 27

Less than 100 hrs First Officer limits?

Answer 27

Captain must make all takeoffs and landings if:

1. RVR is at or below 4000ft
2. Vis is at or below 3/4 mile
3. Runway is Wet, Slippery, or Contaminated
4. Braking action less than GOOD
5. Crosswind Component in excess of 15 kts
6. LLWS advisories or alerts are in effect.
7. Special Airport
8. Captain deems it prudent

Question 28

ARTR (Amend Release to Read)

Answer 28

SHAFT ME MI CAPT

• Supplemental Operation crew change (On-demand, non-scheduled and charter).
• Hour after release (Scheduled Departure time)
• Alternate for Destination added or changed
• Fuel added over 1000 lbs
• TO alternate added
• MEL added or cleared
• Mileage increase to over 100 NM due to re-route
• Captain Change on domestic/flag flight

Question 29

MEL Category Timelines

Answer 29

A - Specified time per the MEL
B - 3 Consecutive calendar days
C - 10 Consecutive calendar days
D - 120 Consecutive calendar days