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NPLEX - Microbiology and Immunology > Viruses and Prions > Flashcards

Viruses and Prions Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the morphology of rubivirus (rubella)?

A

enveloped RNA virus

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2
Q

All RNA viruses are ssRNA except ________.

A

reoviridae-dsRNA

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3
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of parainfluenza virus? (2)

A

croup (parainfluenza type 1) barking cough and sridor, slight fever, most often in the fall. Pneumonia (parainfluenza type 3) in children year round

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4
Q

How is hepatitis B transmitted? (3)

A

blood, sexual intercourse and perinatal transmission

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5
Q

What do you see in the peripheral blood in mononucleosis?

A

atypical lymphocytes (cytotoxic T cells)

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6
Q

What do you see in the peripheral blood in mononucleosis?

A

atypical lymphocytes (cytotoxic T cells)

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7
Q

Identify the major virulence factor associated with influenza virus.

A

secretes neuraminidase which degrades mucous layer of respiratory tract.

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8
Q

Which virus is often responsible for pink eye (conjunctivitis)?

A

adenovirus

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9
Q

What is the morphology of cytomegalovirus?

A

dNA enveloped herpes virus

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10
Q

What is the arbovirus mode of transmission?

A

transmitted by arthropods (mosquitoes, ticks)

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11
Q

Name two diseases caused by EBV

A

infectious mononuelosis, Burkitt’s lymphoma

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12
Q

How is hepatitis A transmitted?

A

human to human, fecal to oral

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13
Q

What is the morphology of Influenza virus types A, B, C?

A

segmented RNA orthomyxoviruses, enveloped

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14
Q

How is adenovirus transmitted? (3)

A

respiratory droplets, fecal-oral and fomites

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15
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of hepatitis D?

A

coinfection with HBV increases risk of fulminant hepatitis, cirrhosis

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16
Q

Which DNA virus can cause aplastic crises in sickle cell disease?

A

parvovirus (B19 virus)

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17
Q

What Ab is present in those with current HBV infection or are chronic hep B carriers?

A

HBsAg

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18
Q

Identify the major virulence/toxicity factors associated with Epstein-Barr. (2)

A

has a viral capsid antigen. Infects lymphoid cells (mostly B cells)

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19
Q

Prions: Name examples of prion diseases

A

CJD, kuru, scrapie, mad cow

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20
Q

How is prions transmitted?

A

eating infected tissue (esp nervous tissue). Organ transplants, hGH. Contaminated instruments.

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21
Q

Name the route of transmission for VZV.

A

respiratory secretions

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22
Q

Describe the clinical course of respiratory syncytial virus infection. (5)

A

respiratory disease-1-4 days of incubation, then rhinitis, cough, wheezing and respiratory distress. Pharyngitis.

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23
Q

Are MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccines live or ‘killed’?

A

live attenuated

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24
Q

Identify the major virulence/toxicity factors associated with measles virus (rubeola). (3)

A

hemagglutinin helps to penetrate cells. Has cell fusing and hemolytic properties.

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25
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Varicella zoster? (3)

A

chicken pox 14-21 day incubation followed by pruritic papulovesicular rash over entire body. Mild in children but can cause encephalitis in adults. Herpes zoster (shingles) painful vessicles appear along dermatome of infected sensory nerve. Postherpetic neuralgia possible.

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26
Q

What is the major reservoir for cytomegalovirus?

A

humans

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27
Q

What is the morphology of mumps virus?

A

rNA enveloped paramyxovirus

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28
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of influenza virus types A, B, C?

A

influenza-24-48 hours incubation followed by sudden fever, headache, myalgias and cough

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29
Q

Koilocytes are characteristic of what disease?

A

condylomata acuminata

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30
Q

Identify relevant epidemiology and risk factors associated with influenza virus. (2)

A

type A can change antigens and cause pandemics. Type B may cause local epidemics.

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31
Q

What is the morphology of human papilloma virus?

A

non-enveloped DNA papovirus surrounded by an icosahedral nucleocapsid

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32
Q

Name two classic illnesses associated with arbovirus.

A

dengue fever (in SE Asia= hemorrhagic shock syndrome) and yellow fever

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33
Q

What is the most appropriate way of diagnosing molluscipoxvirus?

A

skin biopsy

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34
Q

Do hepadnavirus, herpesviruses, and poxvirus have an envelope?

A

yes

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35
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Epstein-Barr virus? (2)

A

infectious mononucleosis-fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Chronic fatigue syndrome (putative). Burkitt’s lymphoma-association not clear, but EBV may be capable of inducing malignant transformations.

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36
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of smallpox virus? (3)

A

smallpox (eradicated) 12-14 days incubation followed by sudden fever, chills, myalgia, then a rash that turns pustular and slow to heal. 35% mortality.

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37
Q

Name the diseases caused by HSV-1. (4)

A

gingivostomatitis, keratoconjunctivitis, temporal lobe encephalitis, herpes labialitis

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38
Q

Which hepatitis virus has a short incubation period?

A

hep A (3 weeks)

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39
Q

Name the routes of transmission for HSV-2. (2)

A

sexual contact, perinatal

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40
Q

Describe the clinical course of mumps. (4)

A

14-24 day incubation period followed by prodrome of fever, malaise and anorexia, then swelling of parotid glands (usually bilateral).

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41
Q

What is the most common association with coxsackie viruses?

A

most common non-bacterial CNS infection in North America

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42
Q

Name the diseases caused by HSV-2. (2)

A

herpes genitalis, neonatal herpes

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43
Q

Name two complications of mumps.

A

orchitis (danger of sterility) and meningitis (self limiting)

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44
Q

List four symptoms of mononucleosis.

A

fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy (esp posterior auricular nodes)

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45
Q

When lab findings are useful to help diagnose cytomegalovirus? (4)

A

cell culture; tissue staining shows owl’s eye inclusion bodies; PCR and immunfluorescent staining available

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46
Q

Name two virus families with circular DNA

A

papilomavirus and hepadnavirus

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47
Q

What is the morphology of hepatitis C?

A

rNA flavivirus, eveloped

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48
Q

Identify the major virulence factor associated with respiratory syncytial virus.

A

f glycoprotein in envelope causes cells to fuse (syncytium).

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49
Q

Identify relevant epidemiology and risk factors associated with rhinovirus.

A

epidemics in spring and fall

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50
Q

The common cold is caused by which virus?

A

rhinovirus

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51
Q

What is the morphology of rotavirus?

A

a reovirus-double stranded RNA virus, no envelope

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52
Q

Name three symptoms of yellow fever.

A

high fever, black vomitus and jaundice

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53
Q

Identify relevant epidemiology and risk factors associated with hepatitis A. (2)

A

children; occasional epidemics from restaurants (fecally contaminated food or water)

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54
Q

Identify the major virulence factors associated with humanimmunodeficiency virus. (2)

A

gp 120 and gp 41 on its envelope

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55
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of hepatitis B? (3)

A

chronic hepatitis-10-12 week incubation followed by fever, nausea and jaundice with hepatomegaly, dark urine, malaise, lasting two weeks. 1-2 weeks after recovery, intermittent arthralgia, fatigue, jaundice, cholestasis and pruritis.

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56
Q

What is the morphology of hepatitis A?

A

rNA enterovirus, non enveloped

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57
Q

What lab findings are useful to help diagnose Herpes simplex (I and II)?

A

cell culture; ELISA or PCR testing of the lesion

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58
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of adenovirus? (6)

A

acute respiratory disease (miliary). Pneumonia (infants). Pharyngitis and or conjunctivitis (with fever). gastroenteritis. Hemorrhagic cystitis (dysuria, mild pain on urination, gross hematuria).

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59
Q

How is human immunodeficiency virus transmitted?

A

exchange of body fluids (requires high infective dose)

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60
Q

Identify relevant epidemiology and risk factors associated withmeasles virus (rubeola). (2)

A

epidemics common in unimmunized children and college students

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61
Q

Triad of mumps symptoms are?

A

aseptic meningitis, orchitis, and parotitis

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62
Q

If a patient received a hepatitis B vaccine (has no infection), which Ab displays positive serology?

A

HBsAb

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63
Q

How are alpha and flavi viruses transmitted?

A

arthropod bites (mosquitos)

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64
Q

Which organisms cause condylomata acuminata?

A

HPV-6 and HPV-11

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65
Q

What bluish-gray spots on the buccal mucosa re diagnostic of measles?

A

koplik spots

66
Q

Which reovirus is considered the most important global cause of infantile gastroenteritis?

A

rotavirus

67
Q

What is the major reservoir for Herpes simplex (I and II)?

A

humans

68
Q

Which populations is associated with Epstein-Barr virus?

A

college students

69
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of coxsackie viruses?

A

60? of infections are subclinical. Myocarditis or pericarditis (Cocksackie Type B) -usually self limiting but can lead to fatal arrythmia or heart failure.

70
Q

What is the ‘most common’ associated with respiratory syncytial virus?

A

major cause of pneumonia and bronchiolotis in infants

71
Q

Identify relevant epidemiology and risk factors associated with hepatitis D.

A

coinfection with HBV

72
Q

What is the morphology of Varicella zoster?

A

dNA enveloped herpes virus

73
Q

What is the morphology of parainfluenza virus?

A

enveloped RNA virus

74
Q

Prions: Prions are associated with ________ encephalopathy

A

spongiform

75
Q

What is the morphology of hepatitis D?

A

incomplete viral particle

76
Q

All DNA viruses are dsDNA except ______________.

A

parvoviridae

77
Q

What are the clinical manifestations parvovirus B19? (3)

A

erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)-4-12 days incubation followed by a mild flu-like illness, a slapped-cheek rash which spreads to legs and arms with a lacy macular pattern 1-2 days later.

78
Q

Which hep virus has a long incubation period?

A

B (3 months)

79
Q

Identify the major virulence/toxicity factors associated wit prions.

A

do not cause inflammation; not recognized by immune system; resistant to heat, chemicals, UV light or enzymes

80
Q

Identify the major virulence/toxicity factors associated with adenovirus. (1)

A

has hemagglutinin fiber to help it attach to mucosal epithelium.

81
Q

What is the morphology of rhinovirus?

A

small single stranded RNA virus

82
Q

What is the #1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children?

A

rotavirus (a reovirus)

83
Q

From where do herpesviruses acquire their envelopes?

A

nuclear membrane of the host cell

84
Q

Which lab findings are useful to help diagnose respiratory syncytial virus? (2)

A

chest x-ray shows interstitial infiltrates and areas of collapse; Antigens detected in respiratory secretions

85
Q

What is the morphology of coxsackle viruses?

A

rNA virus

86
Q

What is the ‘most common’ associated with parainfluenza virus?

A

xxx

87
Q

How is poliovirus transmitted?

A

fecal oral

88
Q

What is the morphology of parvovirus B19?

A

small DNA virus, single stranded, linear

89
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Herpes simplex (I and II)? (2)

A

type I-lesions above waitst, esp around the face (cold sores). type II-primary painful lesions below the waist with fever and inguinal lymph node enlargement.

90
Q

Identify relevant epidemiology and risk factors associated with cytomegalovirus.

A

worldwide, 80% carry antibodies.

91
Q

What is a Tzanck test?

A

a smear of an opened skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells (seen in HSV-1, HSV-2, VSV)

92
Q

What is the major reservoir for small pox virus?

A

no reservoir known since eradication in 1979, except lab samples

93
Q

What lab findings are useful to help diagnose hepatitis A? (3)

A

serum IgM rises in early stage; serum IgG levels rise and remain elevated for life; serum liver enzymes dramatically elevated.

94
Q

HIV infected patients become symptomatic _____ years after exposure.

A

3-10 years

95
Q

Prions: multiple choice: Prions are

a) infectious proteins only
b) infectious RNA
c) infectious DNA
d) infectious proteins occasionally mixed with nucleic acids

A

a) infectious proteins

96
Q

How do you test for mononucleosis?

A

heterophil antibody test (aka ‘monospot’)

97
Q

Name the diseases caused by VZV. (3)

A

varicella-zoster (shingles), encephalitis, pneumonia

98
Q

What is the mode of transmission for hepatitis C?

A

blood (IV drug users)

99
Q

What structural similarity is shared by herpesviruses, HBV, and smallpox virus?

A

they are DNA enveloped viruses

100
Q

Rabies is caused by which viral family?

A

rhabdoviruses

101
Q

Name three naked DNA viruses (no envelope).

A

parvo, adeno, and papilloma

102
Q

HIV is diagnosed by _____ and confirmed with _______.

A

ELISA; western blot

103
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of hepatitis C? (5)

A

chronic hepatitis-nausea, malaise, fever, arthralgia, fatigue, tendency for only 25% to develop jaundice

104
Q

How is measles virus (rubeola) transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets

105
Q

How is rotavirus transmitted?

A

fecal-oral route

106
Q

Which single stranded linear DNA virus is responsible for slapped cheeks rash in children?

A

parvovirus

107
Q

Recent hepatitis B infection. Which Ab would display positive serology?

A

HBsAb and HBcAb (positive during window period)

108
Q

Name the routes of transmission for EBV. (2)

A

respiratory secretions. saliva

109
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of cytomegalovirus? (3)

A

cytomegalic inclusion disease-congenital abnormalities, liver and brain damage, abortion, still births. Infection may be assymptomatic. CMV mononucleosis, CMV hepatitis-acute fever with signs of hepatitis

110
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of human herpes virus-6 infection. (4)

A

roseola infantum-(ages 6 months to 4 years) sudden high fever (seizures rare) followed by faint macular rash 3-5 days later with slapped cheek appearance. Self limiting.

111
Q

What lab findings are useful to help diagnose human papilloma virus?

A

diagnosis is clinical, but pap smears used to monitor changes to cervix.

112
Q

What is the morphology of advenovirus?

A

dNA non-enveloped virus with Icosahedral nucleocapsid

113
Q

RNA viruses: Which single stranded linear, nonsegmented RNA virus family is responsible for measles, mumps, and croup?

A

paramyxovirus

114
Q

Describe the clinical course of hepatitis infection. (3)

A

acute hepatitis-3-4 weeks incubation followed by fever, nausea, jaundice dark urine and clay coloured not become a chronic carrier

115
Q

What is the morphology of molluscipoxvirus?

A

large DNA virus, enveloped

116
Q

How is rabies virus transmitted?

A

bite from any infected animal (bats more common than dogs)

117
Q

Name the routes of transmission for HSV-1. (2)

A

respiratory secretions and saliva

118
Q

What is the morphology of prions?

A

non viral glycoprotein 5nm in diameter

119
Q

Describe the clinical course of measles. (6)

A

measles-7-14 day incubation followed by cough, coryza, conjunctivitis for 2-4 days followed by Koplik’s spots (bright red lesions with white centre), followed by maculopapular rash with photophobia, pruritis

120
Q

Identify the major virulence factor associated with Varicella zoster.

A

virus may become latent in dorsal root ganglia.

121
Q

Picorna-, Calci-, Flavl-, Toga-, Retro-, and Coronaviruses all share which RNA form?

A

single stranded linear RNA

122
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of rhinovirus? (2)

A

common cold-major cause of URI in all ages, year round. 2-3 days incubation followed by acute URI symptoms for 3-7 days.

123
Q

What is the morphology of smallpox virus?

A

large, DNA virus, enveloped

124
Q

What is pathognomic or the most common association with rotavirus? (2)

A

40-60% of all acute gastroenteritis in children under age two

125
Q

What is the morphology of rabies virus?

A

RNA, enveloped

126
Q

Which laboratory marker is monitored to determine the course of HIV drug therapy?

A

hIV PCR/ viral load

127
Q

What virus causes measles?

A

paramyxovirus

128
Q

How does rabies travel to the CNS?

A

retrograde migration up nerve axons

129
Q

Name two RNA viruses which do not replicate in the cytoplasm.

A

influenza virus and retroviruses

130
Q

Who is immune to HIV?

A

individuals homozygous for CCR5 mutation

131
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of human papilloma virus? (2)

A

plantar warts-generally asymptomatic but may be painful. Condyloma acuminata (genital warts)-can be benign or preneoplastic (16, 18 and 31)

132
Q

Name the most common opportunistic infections acquired in those human immunodeficiency virus. (5)

A

pneumocystis pneumonia, tuberculosis, mycobacterium avium-intercellulare, cryptococcal mneingitis and candidiasis

133
Q

Which hepatitis virus types lead to chronic carrier status?

A

B, C, and D

134
Q

Name the routes of transmission for CMV. (5)

A

congenital, transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, urine, transplant

135
Q

Yellow fever is transmitted by ____.

A

the Aedes mosquito (flavivirus)

136
Q

How is human papiloma virus transmitted? (2)

A

skin to skin contact. STD

137
Q

What lab findings are useful to help diagnose Varicella zoster? (3)

A

diagnosis based on clinical signs and symptoms; cell culture possible; serological titres can help in diagnosis

138
Q

How is mumps virus transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets

139
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of polio virus? (2)

A

gastroenteritis (abortive pollomyelitis)-mild fever with headache, sore throat, damage, reversible or permanent paralysis

140
Q

How is Herpes simplex (I and II) transmitted?

A

type I-saliva. type II- oral to genital or genital to oral

141
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of rabies virus?

A

30-50 day incubation varies on proximity of bite to head. Restlessness, malaise and fever then excitement, hypersalivation and excruciating laryngeal and pharyngeal muscle spasms

142
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of rotavirus? (3)

A

infant diarrhea-1-3 days incubation followed by sudden nausea and vomiting for 1-3 days, then a low fever and frequent watery stools for 5-8 days. Death by dehydration.

143
Q

How is coxsackie viruses transmitted?

A

fecal oral

144
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of rubivirus (rubella)? (3)

A

rubella (German Measles)-14-21 day incubation followed by 1-5 days of malaise and lymphadenopathy, followed by 1-3 days of maculopapular rash spreading from face to trunk.

145
Q

What is the morphology of Epstein-Barr virus?

A

dNA enveloped herpes virus

146
Q

How is rubivirus (rubella) transmitted? (2)

A

respiratory droplets or transplacentally

147
Q

How is Epstein-Barr transmitted?

A

human to human (saliva-the kissing disease)

148
Q

What is the pathognomic symptom of measles virus (rubeola)?

A

koplik’s spots on buccal mucosa

149
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of molluscipoxvirus?

A

molluscum contaglosum-2-8 week incubation followed by painless pearly nodules. Sometimes ‘cheesy’ matter may be expressed. Self limited, but slow to fade.

150
Q

Mononucleosis is caused by _____.

A

EBV

151
Q

How is Influenza virus types A, B, C transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets

152
Q

What lab findings are useful to help diagnose Epstein-Barr virus? (3)

A

blood smear shows absolute lymphocytosis and atypical lymphocytes; monospot test shows heterophile Abs for first 2 weeks of infection; rising IgG (previous infection) and IgM (acute infection) titres useful to follow course of disease

153
Q

What is the morphology of human immunodefiency virus?

A

rNA retrovirus

154
Q

What is the morphology of measles virus (rubeola)?

A

rNA enveloped paramyxoviridae

155
Q

What are the three ‘Cs’ of measles?

A

cough, coryza, conjunctivitis

156
Q

What is the morphology of polio virus?

A

non enveloped RNA picoRNAvirus, an enterovirus

157
Q

Describe the ulcers associated with HSV-2.

A

genital herpes with painful penile, vulvar or cervical ulcers

158
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of prions?

A

15-20 months incubation, then slow, progressive dementia and other neurological symptoms (compare Alzhemers). Creutzfeld-Jacob disease?

159
Q

Prions: Jeopardy style: pathologic prions take on this conformation

A

what is beta-pleated sheet

160
Q

What is the morphology of respiratory syncytial virus?

A

enveloped RNA virus

161
Q

What regions are associated with alpha and flavi viruses? (2+3)

A

yellow fever in tropical Africa and South America. Dengue fever in Middle East, Africa and Caribbean

NPLEX - Microbiology and Immunology (18 decks)

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