Viruses Flashcards

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1
Q

What does CMV classically cause in BMT and AIDS patients?

A

BMT patients- CMV pneumonia
AIDS patients- CMV retinitis
Both- may develop CMV colitis, viremia

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2
Q

What two causes of viral gastroenteritis have indistinguishable symptoms? What are they?

A

Caliciviridae and Rotavirus

Both cause diarrhea, vomiting, and fever

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3
Q

What does coxsackie virus A cause?

A

Hand, foot and mouth disease

Herpangina

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4
Q

What does coxsackie virus B cause?

A

Pleurodynia (sharp, u/l pleuritic pain)

Myocarditis, pericarditis

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5
Q

What antibodies would indicate a new vs. and old Hepatitis A infection?

A

anti-HAV IgM= Acute infection

anti-HAV IgG= Chronic infection

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6
Q

What are the naked DNA viruses?

A

Papova, Adeno, Parvo, Papilloma (PAPP)

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7
Q

What virus is associated with progressive pulmonary edema and respiratory failure after inhalation of infected rodent droppings?

A

Hantavirus

Think- 4 corners area (NM, UT, CO, AZ)

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8
Q

What virus is most commonly associated with gastroenteritis on cruise ships and in nursing homes?

A

Norovirus- diarrhea and vomiting

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9
Q

What is the clinical difference between chicken pox and smallpox lesions?

A

Chickenpox lesions- Appear in waves, are at different stages, (pustules, scabs, etc)
Smallpox lesions- Develop at the same time, lesions are all the same stage

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10
Q

What is molluscum contagiosum? What virus causes them?

A

A wart-looking lesion with a dimple in the center, caused by Poxvirus

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11
Q

What is the classic presentation of Chikungunya?

A

Initial rash, fever, and joint pain following a mosquito bite-> may progress to arthritis that persists

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12
Q

What disease causes a fever and “slapped-cheek” rash in kids? What is the organism?

A

5th disease, aka Erythema infectiosum

Caused by parvovirus

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13
Q

What enzymes would be elevated in hepatitis vs bile duct obstruction?

A

Hepatitis- Elevated AST, ALT

Bile duct obstruction (gall stone)- Alkaline phosphates and bilirubin are elevated more then AST, ALT

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14
Q

What is the leading cause of chronic Hepatitis in the US, and the leading indication for a liver transplant?

A

Hepatitis C

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15
Q

What is the primary cause of pneumonia in young children, with multinucleated giant cell formation?

A

RSV

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16
Q

What are the 4 segmented viruses?

A
BOAR- All RNA
Bunyavirus
Orthomyxovirus
Arenavirus
Reovirus
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17
Q

Where do RNA viruses replicate? What is the exception?

A

In the cytoplasm

EXEPT orthomyxovirus and retrovirus replicate in the nucleus

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18
Q

All DNA viruses are double stranded and positive sense except what?

A

Parvoviridae is single stranded and - sense

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19
Q

DNA viruses have icosahedral symmetry except what?

A

Poxvirus- Has a box-like complex

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20
Q

What RNA virus is double stranded?

A

Reoviridae- (Rotovirus)

21
Q

Where do DNA viruses replicate? What is the exception?

A

In the nucleus, except Poxviridae replicates in the cytoplasm

22
Q

What are the characteristics of H5N1 pneumonia?

A

Primary viral pneumanitis without secondary bacterial infeciton, rapid progression to ARDS or pulmonary edema

23
Q

What test can be used to diagnose H5N1?

A

RT-PCR from pharyngeal/nasal washings, immunofluorescence, and will be found in feces

24
Q

What virulence factor is present in Paramyxovirus that is not present in Orthomyxovirus and causes multinucleated giant cell formation?

A

Fusion (F) protein

25
Q

What is the marker that indicates Hepatitis B has high infectivity?

A

HBeAg= High infectivity

anti-HBeAg=low infectivity

26
Q

What immunoglobulins will be seen with acute and chronic/resolving hepatitis B?

A
Acute= IgM anti-HBcAg
Old= IgG anti-HBcAg
27
Q

The presence of what antibody indicates a live hepatitis B infection?

A

HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen)

anti-HBsAg indicates immunity

28
Q

What is HDV superinfection?

A

Infection of HDV in a patient with chronic HBV. Cannot make Anti-HBsAg antibodies. Complications-> fulminant hepatitis, cirrhosis

29
Q

What are the 2 most common opportunistic infections in AIDS patients with a CD4 count

A

CMV with retinitis ad Mycobacterium avium (disseminated)

30
Q

How would classic shingles present?

A

Painful, burning, rash over one sensory dermatome

31
Q

What is the difference between CMV and EBV mononucleosis?

A

EBV will have a positive Monospot test from heterophile antibody.

32
Q

What virus is responsible for Molluscum contagiosum?

A

Poxviridae

33
Q

What virus causes Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy in the immunocompromised?

A

JC Polyomavirus

34
Q

What TORCHeS infection is the most common viral cause of mental retardation?

A

CMV- Also causes deafness, seizures, microcephaly

35
Q

How is parvovirus different from the rest of the DNA viruses? What does it cause?

A

It is ssDNA and negative sense.

Causes Erythema infectiosum (5th dz) and transient aplastic anemia crisis

36
Q

What mosquito-borne Alpha virus typically does not cause encephalitis?

A

Chikungunya

37
Q

What happens when you give a child aspirin when they have influenza or varicella?

A

Reye’s Syndrome- severe liver/brain disease

38
Q

What gene products does a Western Blot look for to confirm HIV? What is a positive test?

A

p24 (major capsid protein), gp41 and gp120 (surface glycoproteins). + test= bands for 2

39
Q

What genes does an ELISA to test for HIV look for?

A

gag, pol, and env

40
Q

For what Hepatitis virus is serology NOT useful?

A

HDV- fleetingly present

41
Q

Negri bodies in the brain are consistent with what disease?

A

Rabies- Rhabdovirus

42
Q

What clinical manifestations are characteristic of H5N1?

A

Develop clinical pneumonia with patchy infiltrates-> can rapidly progress to ARDS

43
Q

How is RSV different from the rest of the paramyxoviruses?

A

Lacks hemagglutinin and neurominidase

44
Q

What malignancies are classically associated with AIDS? What are the associated viruses?

A

B-cell lymphoma (EBV), Kaposi’s sarcoma (HHV-8)

45
Q

What strains of HPV cause most cervical cancers? What strains cause genital warts?

A

16 and 18- cervical cancer

6 and 11- genital warts

46
Q

What fetal defects are most commonly caused by Rubella?

A

Heart (patent ductus), Eye (cataracts, chorioretinitis), and CNS defects (deafness, microcephaly)

47
Q

What flavivirus is characterized as being extremely painful?

A

Dengue fever- Severe backache, HA, and muscle and joint pain

48
Q

What viruses are in the picornavirus family?

A

PERCH- Polio, Echo, Rhino, Coxsackie A and B, HAV

49
Q

What polio vaccine has potential dangerous side effects? Why?

A

Oral polio vaccine with attenuated poliovirus. It can pick up virulence and cause paralysis in the person taking the vaccine or those exposed to shedding. (Vaccine-associated paralytic poliomyelitis)