Bacteria Flashcards

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1
Q

Group B strep
Genus/species name?
Age group?
Gm stain?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae
Common in neonates- meningitis, pneumonia, sepsis
Gram + coccus, encapsulated

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2
Q

3 most common pathogens associated with meningitis in neonates/infants less then 3 months of age?

A

Group B strep, Listeria, E. Coli

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3
Q

Viridans Group Streptococci
Where are they normal flora?
Types of associated infections?

A

Gram + cocci
Normal in GI tract, nasopharynx, gingiva
Associated with dental cavities, subacute endocarditis

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4
Q

What should you suspect when blood culture is positive for Angiosus strep species?

A

Suspect occult abscesses

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5
Q

What 3 organisms are usually associated with Otitis media?

A

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catherallis

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6
Q

Group A strep
Gram stain?
Genus/species?
Disease associations?

A

Gram + cocci
Streptococcus pyogenes
Strep throat, scarlet fever, skin infections (necrotizing fasciitis), rheumatic fever, post-strep glomerulonephritis

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7
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Gm stain?
Dz presentation?

A

Gm+ cocci, Catalase +, Coagulase -

2nd most common cause of UTI’s (esp in females)

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8
Q

Strep pneumoniae
Optochin, quellung tests?
Most common dz caused?

A

Optochin -, quelling + (encapsulated)
Causes MOPS- Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia, Sinusitis
Pneumonia- most common cause of community acquired pneumonia, severe lobar pneumonia with consolidation and rust-colored sputum

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9
Q

What organism is responsible for gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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10
Q

What does staphylococcus epidermis cause?

A

Normal skin flora

Creates biofilms-> infects prosthetics, catheters

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11
Q

Most common causes of meningitis from 6months- 3years?

A

Neisseria meningitides

Haemophilis influenzae

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12
Q

What are the Weil-Felix results for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

OX-19+
OX-2+
OX-K-

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13
Q

What kind of bacteria are resistant to lysozyme and penicillin? Why?

A

Gm- bacteria

The outer - LPS membrane blocks their passage

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14
Q

What are the 6 classic Gm+ pathogens? Which are cocci and which are bacilli?

A

Strep and Staph- Cocci

Bacillus, Clostridium, Corynebacterium, Listeria- Rods

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15
Q

What gram + bacteria form spores?

A

Bacillus (anthrasis, cerus)

Clostridium (botulinum, tetani, diff, perfringens)

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16
Q

What are the Gram- cocci?

A

Neisseria

Moraxella

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17
Q

What infections are associated with Group A strep delayed-antibody response?

A

Rheumatic fever

Post-Streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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18
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired and lobar pneumonia?

A

Strep pneumoniae

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19
Q

What organism is the most common cause of otitis media in children and bacterial meningitis in adults?

A

Strep pneumoniae

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20
Q

What age groups does Staph aureus cause septic arthritis?

A

Kids and adults over 50

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21
Q

What are the 2 leading causes of UTI’s in sexually active young women?

A
  1. E. Coli

2. Staph saprophyticus

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22
Q

What is the difference between B. cereus and B antracis?

A

Anthracis- Susceptible to penicillin, Causes cutaneous, Pulmonary, GI anthrax, mediated via exotoxins
Cerus- Resistant to penicillin, Causes food poisoning via heat-labile and heat-stable enterotoxins

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23
Q

What is the difference between adult and infant botulism?

A

Infant- Ingestion of spores, which germinate in GI tract and release toxin
Adult- Ingestion of neurotoxin

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24
Q

What 4 things do Clostridium species cause?

A

Botulism, tetanus, gas gangrene (C. perfringens), pseudomembranous colitis (C. Diff)

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25
Q

What is the first differential for an abx course followed by serosanguinous diarrhea?

A

Clostridium difficile-> cause of pseudomembranous colitis

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26
Q

A kid presents with dark grey exudate on their pharynx. Should immediately think of what?

A

Diptheria (Corynebacterium diphtheria)

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27
Q

What do Group A B-hemolytic strep and Cornynebacterium toxin have in comon?

A

The bacteria both must be lysogenized (infected) by a bacteriophage to produce exotoxin

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28
Q

What causes upper lung lobe nodules that form air-fluid levels?

A

Rhodococcus equi (type of corynebacterium)

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29
Q

What foods do pregnant women need to avoid to prevent Listeria infections?

A

Soft cheese and cold cuts

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30
Q

What bacteria causes meningitis in neonates, elderly, and immunocompromised and HIV patients?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

because they have poor cell-mediated immunity

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31
Q

What organism is associated with meningitis with a measles-like rash?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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32
Q

What is Waterhouse-Friderichen hemorrhage?

A

Septic shock, b/l hemorrhage into adrenal glands, DIC

Caused by Nesseria meningitidis

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33
Q

What disease do men tend to be symptomatic but women are usually asymptomatic?

A

Gonorrhea

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34
Q

What is Ophthalmia neonatorum?

A

Gonorrhea eye infection passed to baby through passage through birth canal. Can cause corneal damage, blindness

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35
Q

What is the most common cause of Gram - sepsis?

A

E. Coli

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36
Q

What bacteria cause HUS?

A
E coli (EIEC)- Shiga like toxin
Shigella- Shigella toxin
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37
Q

If you see a pneumonia with abscesses, what should your 2 bacterial differentials be?

A

Staph aureus

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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38
Q

What bacterial pneumonia is associated with red currant jelly sputum?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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39
Q

What organism is a common cause of UTI’s that cross-reacts with Rickettsia?

A

Proteus mirabilis

40
Q

How can you tell between Shigella and EIEC?

A

Both present with bloody, purulent diarrhea BUT only Shigella presents with fever

41
Q

What organism causes pseudoappendicitis?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

42
Q

What are the three most common causes of diarrhea in the world?

A

Camplylobacter jejuni, ETEC, and rotavirus

43
Q

What type of pneumonia would have a positive cold agglutinin test?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

44
Q

What is the difference between Lepromatous and Tuberculoid leprosy?

A

Lepromatous- Severe, leonine facies, saddlenose, skin lesions covering body
Tuberculoid- Mild, localized, superficial (+) lepromin skin test d/t cell-mediated response

45
Q

What are distinguishing features of congenital syphilis?

A

Saddle nose, saber shins, Hutchinson’s teeth, mulberry molars, eye disease

46
Q

What causes Epidemic typhus? Vector?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

OX19+, OX2-, OXK-

47
Q

A patient presenting with severe sore throat, tonsillitis, and neck lympadenopathy after eating contaminated food most likely contracted what disease?

A

Oropharyngeal tularemia

Francisella tularensis

48
Q

What is pneumonic tularemia? What makes it so virulent?

A

Infhalation of aerosolized bacteria->High fever, sore throat, pneumonia and pleuritis
Only 10 organisms need to cause infection, can be rapidly fatal
CDC Category B Bioterrorism threat

49
Q

What are the 2 CDC category A bioterrorism agents?

A

Bacillis anthrasis

Smallpox

50
Q

What is the primary cause of bacterial bronchitis and pneumonia in teens and young adults? Classic CXR findings?

A

Mycoplasma

CXR- Typically a streaky infiltrate that looks worse then it is (Walking pneumonia)

51
Q

What is Weil’s disease? What causes it?

A

Infectious jaundice-> Renal failure, hepatitis, jaundice

Caused by Leptospira (subgroup icterohemorrhagiae)

52
Q

What are the stages of Lyme disease?

A

Early localized stage: Flulike sx, bullseye rash at site of bite (Erythema Chronicum Migrans)
Early disseminated stage: Multiple, smaller ECM, b/lateral bells palsy, heart block, migratory arthritis
Late stage: Chronic arthritis, encephalitis

53
Q

What is the Jarisch-Herxheimer phenomenon?

A

Syphilis patient develop worsening sx after starting abx-> mild fever, chills, malaise (Killed spirochete releases pyrogens)

54
Q

What features are characteristic of congenital syphilis?

A

High mortality rate-> saddle nose, saber shins, Hutchinson’s teeth, mulberry molars, eye disease

55
Q

What is the classic presentation of secondary syphilis?

A

Rash on palms and soles, condyloma latum (wartlike lesion in warm, moist sites like vulva/scrotum- very contagious), systemic organ infections, can resolve and enter latent phase

56
Q

What are the 5 presentations of neurosyphilis?

A
Asymptomatic but with a + CSF test
Subacute meningitis
Meningovascular syphilis
Tabes dorsalis
General paresis
57
Q

What does cardiovascular syphilis (tertiary syphilis stage) result in?

A

Ascending aorta and aortic arch aneurisms

58
Q

What are two organisms that cause relapsing fevers? How are their vectors different?

A

Bartonella Quintana-Trench fever: Louse vector
Borrelia recurrentis-Relapsing fever: B. recurrentis has a body louse vector but all the other Borrelia that cause relapsing fever have a tick vector

59
Q

What are the phases of the life cycle of Chlamydia?

A
  1. Elementary body- Infectious particle- attaches to epithelial cells and enters, then transforms to initial body via binary fission .
  2. Initial body- synthesizes DNA, RNA, etc. using host ATP, transform back to Elementary bodies-> infect more cells
60
Q

What is the most common cause of a wound infection following a cat or dog bite?

A

Pasturella multocida

61
Q

What serological diagnostic tests are done to confirm syphilis?

A

VDRL and RPL- both nonspecific, can have a false +

FTA-ABS- Specific test, looks for Ab’s against spirochete

62
Q

What are the clinical phases of leptospirosis?

A

Leptospiremic phase: Bacteria invade blood and CSF-> abrupt temp spike, HA, malaise, red conjunctiva wi/photophobia
Immune phase: IgM antibodies appear, meningismus

63
Q

What is cat-scratch disease? What causes it? What does it cause in AIDS patients?

A

Bartonella henselae
Following a cat bite or scratch-> regional lymph node enlargement and low-grade fever
AIDS patients- causes bacillary angiomatosis

64
Q

How does someone get Q fever? Organism responsible? Sx?

A

Coxiella burnetii, forms endospores which grow in ticks, cattle. Spore inhalation causes Q fever.
Sx: Abrupt onset of fever, soaking sweats, pneumonia

65
Q

What is the vector for endemic typhus? Weil-felix rxn?

A

Riskettsia typhi- transmitted via rat flea

OX-19+, OX2-, OXK-

66
Q

4 bacteria that produce exotoxins which increase cAMP?

A
"cAMP"
c = cholera
A = anthrax
M = montezuma's revenge (ETEC)
P = pertussis
67
Q

What are the sx of Rheumatic Fever?

A
  1. fever
  2. myocarditis
  3. arthritis
  4. chorea
  5. rash (erythema marginatum)
  6. Subcutaneous nodules
68
Q

Where does S. viridans cause endocarditis?

A

On a previously damaged valve (old rheumatic fever, CHD, MVP)- often mitral valve

69
Q

What are the 6 disease associations with S. aureus?

A
  1. Pneumonia
  2. meningitis
  3. osteomyelitis
  4. acute endocarditis
  5. septic arthritis
  6. skin infections
70
Q

What occurs before the development of Rheumatic fever?

A

An untreated Group A Strep pharyngitis infection (NOT after a skin infection)

71
Q

What is Fournier’s gangrene?

A

Necrotizing fasciitis of the male genital area and perineum, often caused by Strep pyogenes

72
Q

What 3 common infections are associated with Group D Strep?

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis, Biliary tract infections, and UTI’s

73
Q

What culture medium are only Neisseria able to grow on and is used to dx Neisseria infections?

A

Thayer-Martin VCN media- Chocolate agar wi/abx

74
Q

How are Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrheae differentiated in the lab?

A

Both are Gram- diplococci that ferment glucose, only N. meningitidis can metabolize (ferment) maltose to produce acid

75
Q

What disease can present with cutaneous manifestations called id reactions?

A

Gonorrhea

76
Q

What is a diagnostic way to distinguish Shigella, E. coli, and Salmonella?

A

Shigella is non-motile and does not ferment lactose or produce H2S. E. coli ferments lactose, and Salmonella produces H2s.

77
Q

Patients with what disease trait are particularly susceptible to Salmonella osteomyelitis?

A

Sickle-cell anemia

78
Q

The presence of clue cells in vaginal discharge is diagnostic of what organsim?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

79
Q

What water-loving organism commonly causes pneumonia in CF and hospitalized patients?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

80
Q

Up to half of children who acquire meningitis from what organism have permanent residual neurological deficits?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

81
Q

What differs in the presentation of Bubonic plague and Ulceroglandular tularemia?

A

Tularemia will have a characteristic skin ulcer- Well-demarcated hole with a black base

82
Q

What causes undulant fever? How is it acquired?

A

Brucellosis

From eating unpasteurized dairy, infected meat

83
Q

What are the symptoms of Reiter’s syndrome? What infection causes it?

A

Can’t see (conjunctivitis), Can’t pee (uveitis), Can’t climb a tree (arthritis). Caused by Chlamydia

84
Q

What energy characteristics do Chlamydia and Rickettsia have in common?

A

Both are obligate intracellular parasites

85
Q

What bacteria without a cell wall causes urethritis?

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum

86
Q

What are two diseases associated with saddlenose deformity?

A

Congenital syphilis

Lepromatous leprosy

87
Q

What factor determines weather a patient will develop Lepromatous or Tuberculoid leprosy?

A

Ability to mount a cell-mediated response

88
Q

What are the characteristic features of Tuberculoid leprosy skin lesions?

A

Localized, usually only 1-2, and they have no sensation or hair growth.

89
Q

What is the Weil-Felix reaction for both Epidemic and Endemic Typhus?

A

OX-19+, OX-2-, OX-K-

90
Q

What is Brill-Zissner disease?

A

Patients who recover from Epidemic Typhus may retain the pathogen (R. prowazekii) in latent state-> produce milder disease later in life

91
Q

What is a scrofula? What organism is it associated with?

A

Swollen, matted, draining lymph node

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

92
Q

What organism classically causes middle and lower lung nodular disease in middle-aged female nonsmokers and upper lung cavitary disease in elderly smokers?

A

Mycobacterium aviium complex

93
Q

How does the rash of R. rickettsia differ from that of R. prowazekii?

A

Rickettsia rickettsia- Palms and soles

Rickettsia prowazekii- Spares palms and soles

94
Q

In an acute bacterial infection, what should you expect to see in the CSF?

A

Has a turbid color, increased opening pressure, increased protein and decreased glucose

95
Q

What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in infants?

A

Hemophilus influenzae- usually only 1 joint

96
Q

Most bacterial meningitis presents with high neutrophils. What causes have a predominance of lymphocytes?

A

Treponema pallidum and Mycobacterium tuberculosis