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Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Group B strep
Genus/species name?
Age group?
Gm stain?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae
Common in neonates- meningitis, pneumonia, sepsis
Gram + coccus, encapsulated

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2
Q

3 most common pathogens associated with meningitis in neonates/infants less then 3 months of age?

A

Group B strep, Listeria, E. Coli

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3
Q

Viridans Group Streptococci
Where are they normal flora?
Types of associated infections?

A

Gram + cocci
Normal in GI tract, nasopharynx, gingiva
Associated with dental cavities, subacute endocarditis

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4
Q

What should you suspect when blood culture is positive for Angiosus strep species?

A

Suspect occult abscesses

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5
Q

What 3 organisms are usually associated with Otitis media?

A

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catherallis

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6
Q

Group A strep
Gram stain?
Genus/species?
Disease associations?

A

Gram + cocci
Streptococcus pyogenes
Strep throat, scarlet fever, skin infections (necrotizing fasciitis), rheumatic fever, post-strep glomerulonephritis

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7
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Gm stain?
Dz presentation?

A

Gm+ cocci, Catalase +, Coagulase -

2nd most common cause of UTI’s (esp in females)

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8
Q

Strep pneumoniae
Optochin, quellung tests?
Most common dz caused?

A

Optochin -, quelling + (encapsulated)
Causes MOPS- Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia, Sinusitis
Pneumonia- most common cause of community acquired pneumonia, severe lobar pneumonia with consolidation and rust-colored sputum

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9
Q

What organism is responsible for gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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10
Q

What does staphylococcus epidermis cause?

A

Normal skin flora

Creates biofilms-> infects prosthetics, catheters

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11
Q

Most common causes of meningitis from 6months- 3years?

A

Neisseria meningitides

Haemophilis influenzae

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12
Q

What are the Weil-Felix results for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

OX-19+
OX-2+
OX-K-

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13
Q

What kind of bacteria are resistant to lysozyme and penicillin? Why?

A

Gm- bacteria

The outer - LPS membrane blocks their passage

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14
Q

What are the 6 classic Gm+ pathogens? Which are cocci and which are bacilli?

A

Strep and Staph- Cocci

Bacillus, Clostridium, Corynebacterium, Listeria- Rods

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15
Q

What gram + bacteria form spores?

A

Bacillus (anthrasis, cerus)

Clostridium (botulinum, tetani, diff, perfringens)

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16
Q

What are the Gram- cocci?

A

Neisseria

Moraxella

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17
Q

What infections are associated with Group A strep delayed-antibody response?

A

Rheumatic fever

Post-Streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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18
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired and lobar pneumonia?

A

Strep pneumoniae

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19
Q

What organism is the most common cause of otitis media in children and bacterial meningitis in adults?

A

Strep pneumoniae

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20
Q

What age groups does Staph aureus cause septic arthritis?

A

Kids and adults over 50

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21
Q

What are the 2 leading causes of UTI’s in sexually active young women?

A
  1. E. Coli

2. Staph saprophyticus

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22
Q

What is the difference between B. cereus and B antracis?

A

Anthracis- Susceptible to penicillin, Causes cutaneous, Pulmonary, GI anthrax, mediated via exotoxins
Cerus- Resistant to penicillin, Causes food poisoning via heat-labile and heat-stable enterotoxins

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23
Q

What is the difference between adult and infant botulism?

A

Infant- Ingestion of spores, which germinate in GI tract and release toxin
Adult- Ingestion of neurotoxin

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24
Q

What 4 things do Clostridium species cause?

A

Botulism, tetanus, gas gangrene (C. perfringens), pseudomembranous colitis (C. Diff)

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25
What is the first differential for an abx course followed by serosanguinous diarrhea?
Clostridium difficile-> cause of pseudomembranous colitis
26
A kid presents with dark grey exudate on their pharynx. Should immediately think of what?
Diptheria (Corynebacterium diphtheria)
27
What do Group A B-hemolytic strep and Cornynebacterium toxin have in comon?
The bacteria both must be lysogenized (infected) by a bacteriophage to produce exotoxin
28
What causes upper lung lobe nodules that form air-fluid levels?
Rhodococcus equi (type of corynebacterium)
29
What foods do pregnant women need to avoid to prevent Listeria infections?
Soft cheese and cold cuts
30
What bacteria causes meningitis in neonates, elderly, and immunocompromised and HIV patients?
Listeria monocytogenes | because they have poor cell-mediated immunity
31
What organism is associated with meningitis with a measles-like rash?
Neisseria meningitidis
32
What is Waterhouse-Friderichen hemorrhage?
Septic shock, b/l hemorrhage into adrenal glands, DIC | Caused by Nesseria meningitidis
33
What disease do men tend to be symptomatic but women are usually asymptomatic?
Gonorrhea
34
What is Ophthalmia neonatorum?
Gonorrhea eye infection passed to baby through passage through birth canal. Can cause corneal damage, blindness
35
What is the most common cause of Gram - sepsis?
E. Coli
36
What bacteria cause HUS?
``` E coli (EIEC)- Shiga like toxin Shigella- Shigella toxin ```
37
If you see a pneumonia with abscesses, what should your 2 bacterial differentials be?
Staph aureus | Klebsiella pneumoniae
38
What bacterial pneumonia is associated with red currant jelly sputum?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
39
What organism is a common cause of UTI's that cross-reacts with Rickettsia?
Proteus mirabilis
40
How can you tell between Shigella and EIEC?
Both present with bloody, purulent diarrhea BUT only Shigella presents with fever
41
What organism causes pseudoappendicitis?
Yersinia enterocolitica
42
What are the three most common causes of diarrhea in the world?
Camplylobacter jejuni, ETEC, and rotavirus
43
What type of pneumonia would have a positive cold agglutinin test?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
44
What is the difference between Lepromatous and Tuberculoid leprosy?
Lepromatous- Severe, leonine facies, saddlenose, skin lesions covering body Tuberculoid- Mild, localized, superficial (+) lepromin skin test d/t cell-mediated response
45
What are distinguishing features of congenital syphilis?
Saddle nose, saber shins, Hutchinson's teeth, mulberry molars, eye disease
46
What causes Epidemic typhus? Vector?
Rickettsia prowazekii | OX19+, OX2-, OXK-
47
A patient presenting with severe sore throat, tonsillitis, and neck lympadenopathy after eating contaminated food most likely contracted what disease?
Oropharyngeal tularemia | Francisella tularensis
48
What is pneumonic tularemia? What makes it so virulent?
Infhalation of aerosolized bacteria->High fever, sore throat, pneumonia and pleuritis Only 10 organisms need to cause infection, can be rapidly fatal CDC Category B Bioterrorism threat
49
What are the 2 CDC category A bioterrorism agents?
Bacillis anthrasis | Smallpox
50
What is the primary cause of bacterial bronchitis and pneumonia in teens and young adults? Classic CXR findings?
Mycoplasma | CXR- Typically a streaky infiltrate that looks worse then it is (Walking pneumonia)
51
What is Weil's disease? What causes it?
Infectious jaundice-> Renal failure, hepatitis, jaundice | Caused by Leptospira (subgroup icterohemorrhagiae)
52
What are the stages of Lyme disease?
Early localized stage: Flulike sx, bullseye rash at site of bite (Erythema Chronicum Migrans) Early disseminated stage: Multiple, smaller ECM, b/lateral bells palsy, heart block, migratory arthritis Late stage: Chronic arthritis, encephalitis
53
What is the Jarisch-Herxheimer phenomenon?
Syphilis patient develop worsening sx after starting abx-> mild fever, chills, malaise (Killed spirochete releases pyrogens)
54
What features are characteristic of congenital syphilis?
High mortality rate-> saddle nose, saber shins, Hutchinson’s teeth, mulberry molars, eye disease
55
What is the classic presentation of secondary syphilis?
Rash on palms and soles, condyloma latum (wartlike lesion in warm, moist sites like vulva/scrotum- very contagious), systemic organ infections, can resolve and enter latent phase
56
What are the 5 presentations of neurosyphilis?
``` Asymptomatic but with a + CSF test Subacute meningitis Meningovascular syphilis Tabes dorsalis General paresis ```
57
What does cardiovascular syphilis (tertiary syphilis stage) result in?
Ascending aorta and aortic arch aneurisms
58
What are two organisms that cause relapsing fevers? How are their vectors different?
Bartonella Quintana-Trench fever: Louse vector Borrelia recurrentis-Relapsing fever: B. recurrentis has a body louse vector but all the other Borrelia that cause relapsing fever have a tick vector
59
What are the phases of the life cycle of Chlamydia?
1. Elementary body- Infectious particle- attaches to epithelial cells and enters, then transforms to initial body via binary fission . 2. Initial body- synthesizes DNA, RNA, etc. using host ATP, transform back to Elementary bodies-> infect more cells
60
What is the most common cause of a wound infection following a cat or dog bite?
Pasturella multocida
61
What serological diagnostic tests are done to confirm syphilis?
VDRL and RPL- both nonspecific, can have a false + | FTA-ABS- Specific test, looks for Ab's against spirochete
62
What are the clinical phases of leptospirosis?
Leptospiremic phase: Bacteria invade blood and CSF-> abrupt temp spike, HA, malaise, red conjunctiva wi/photophobia Immune phase: IgM antibodies appear, meningismus
63
What is cat-scratch disease? What causes it? What does it cause in AIDS patients?
Bartonella henselae Following a cat bite or scratch-> regional lymph node enlargement and low-grade fever AIDS patients- causes bacillary angiomatosis
64
How does someone get Q fever? Organism responsible? Sx?
Coxiella burnetii, forms endospores which grow in ticks, cattle. Spore inhalation causes Q fever. Sx: Abrupt onset of fever, soaking sweats, pneumonia
65
What is the vector for endemic typhus? Weil-felix rxn?
Riskettsia typhi- transmitted via rat flea | OX-19+, OX2-, OXK-
66
4 bacteria that produce exotoxins which increase cAMP?
``` "cAMP" c = cholera A = anthrax M = montezuma's revenge (ETEC) P = pertussis ```
67
What are the sx of Rheumatic Fever?
1. fever 2. myocarditis 3. arthritis 4. chorea 5. rash (erythema marginatum) 6. Subcutaneous nodules
68
Where does S. viridans cause endocarditis?
On a previously damaged valve (old rheumatic fever, CHD, MVP)- often mitral valve
69
What are the 6 disease associations with S. aureus?
1. Pneumonia 2. meningitis 3. osteomyelitis 4. acute endocarditis 5. septic arthritis 6. skin infections
70
What occurs before the development of Rheumatic fever?
An untreated Group A Strep pharyngitis infection (NOT after a skin infection)
71
What is Fournier's gangrene?
Necrotizing fasciitis of the male genital area and perineum, often caused by Strep pyogenes
72
What 3 common infections are associated with Group D Strep?
Subacute bacterial endocarditis, Biliary tract infections, and UTI's
73
What culture medium are only Neisseria able to grow on and is used to dx Neisseria infections?
Thayer-Martin VCN media- Chocolate agar wi/abx
74
How are Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrheae differentiated in the lab?
Both are Gram- diplococci that ferment glucose, only N. meningitidis can metabolize (ferment) maltose to produce acid
75
What disease can present with cutaneous manifestations called id reactions?
Gonorrhea
76
What is a diagnostic way to distinguish Shigella, E. coli, and Salmonella?
Shigella is non-motile and does not ferment lactose or produce H2S. E. coli ferments lactose, and Salmonella produces H2s.
77
Patients with what disease trait are particularly susceptible to Salmonella osteomyelitis?
Sickle-cell anemia
78
The presence of clue cells in vaginal discharge is diagnostic of what organsim?
Gardnerella vaginalis
79
What water-loving organism commonly causes pneumonia in CF and hospitalized patients?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
80
Up to half of children who acquire meningitis from what organism have permanent residual neurological deficits?
Haemophilus influenzae type B
81
What differs in the presentation of Bubonic plague and Ulceroglandular tularemia?
Tularemia will have a characteristic skin ulcer- Well-demarcated hole with a black base
82
What causes undulant fever? How is it acquired?
Brucellosis | From eating unpasteurized dairy, infected meat
83
What are the symptoms of Reiter's syndrome? What infection causes it?
Can't see (conjunctivitis), Can't pee (uveitis), Can't climb a tree (arthritis). Caused by Chlamydia
84
What energy characteristics do Chlamydia and Rickettsia have in common?
Both are obligate intracellular parasites
85
What bacteria without a cell wall causes urethritis?
Ureaplasma urealyticum
86
What are two diseases associated with saddlenose deformity?
Congenital syphilis | Lepromatous leprosy
87
What factor determines weather a patient will develop Lepromatous or Tuberculoid leprosy?
Ability to mount a cell-mediated response
88
What are the characteristic features of Tuberculoid leprosy skin lesions?
Localized, usually only 1-2, and they have no sensation or hair growth.
89
What is the Weil-Felix reaction for both Epidemic and Endemic Typhus?
OX-19+, OX-2-, OX-K-
90
What is Brill-Zissner disease?
Patients who recover from Epidemic Typhus may retain the pathogen (R. prowazekii) in latent state-> produce milder disease later in life
91
What is a scrofula? What organism is it associated with?
Swollen, matted, draining lymph node | Mycobacterium tuberculosis
92
What organism classically causes middle and lower lung nodular disease in middle-aged female nonsmokers and upper lung cavitary disease in elderly smokers?
Mycobacterium aviium complex
93
How does the rash of R. rickettsia differ from that of R. prowazekii?
Rickettsia rickettsia- Palms and soles | Rickettsia prowazekii- Spares palms and soles
94
In an acute bacterial infection, what should you expect to see in the CSF?
Has a turbid color, increased opening pressure, increased protein and decreased glucose
95
What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in infants?
Hemophilus influenzae- usually only 1 joint
96
Most bacterial meningitis presents with high neutrophils. What causes have a predominance of lymphocytes?
Treponema pallidum and Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Microbiology (7 decks)

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