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Virology Flashcards

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0
Q

Attachment to host cell receptors

A

Surface proteins

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1
Q

Nucleic acid genome + capsid =

A

Nucleocapsid

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2
Q

For replication

A

DNA or RNA polymerases

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3
Q

Interaction between nucleocapsid and envelope

A

Matrix protein

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4
Q

Evasion of host defenses

A

Antigenic (serotypic) variants

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5
Q

Lipid membrane derived from host cell

A

Viral envelope

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6
Q

Viral envelope is acquired as the virus exits from the cell in a process called

A

Budding

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7
Q

All enveloped viruses acquire their envelope from plasma membrane EXCEPT

A

Herpesvirus

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8
Q

True or False: Enveloped viruses are less stable and more easily inactivated

A

True

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9
Q

Naked Viruses

A

Calici
Picorna
Reo

Parvo
Adeno
Papilloma
Polyoma

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10
Q

Purified nucleic acids of most dsDNA and (+) strand genome ssRNA viruses are ________?

A

Infectious

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11
Q

dsDNA of Poxviruses and HBV

A

Not infectious

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12
Q

Naked nucleic acids of (-) strand ssRNA and dsRNA viruses are _____?

A

Not infectious

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13
Q

Infectious particles composed entirely of protein which cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies

A

Prions

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14
Q

Non-pathogenic prions

A

Alpha helix

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15
Q

Pathogenic prions

A

Beta-pleated sheet

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16
Q

All viruses are haploid EXCEPT

A

Retroviruses

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17
Q

Segmented Genome Viruses

A

Bunyaviruses
Orthomyxoviruses
Arenaviruses
Reoviruses

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18
Q

Negative strand RNA viruses

A 
Arenaviruses
Bunyaviruses
Paramyxoviruses
Orthomyxoviruses
Filoviruses
Rhabdoviruses
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19
Q

Causes epidemics

A

Genomic reassortment

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20
Q

One virus produces a protein that can be used by another virus

A

Complementation

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21
Q

Two different viruses infect the same cell

A

Phenotypic mixing

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22
Q

Viral Growth Curve: A single virus particle infects a cell

A

Phase 0: Entry

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23
Q

Viral Growth Curve: Virus decreases in number but continues to function

A

Phase 1: Decline

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24
Q

Viral Growth Curve: No virus is detectable inside the cell

A

Phase 2: Eclipse Period

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25
Q

Viral Growth Curve: Dramatic increase in amount of detectable viruses

A

Phase 3: Rise Period

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26
Q

Viral Growth Curve: Amount of detectable viruses reaches a plateau

A

Phase 4: Latent Period

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27
Q

Viral Growth Curve: Marked derangement of cell function leading to lysis and cell death; Remarkable amplification in number of viral particles

A

Phase 5: Cytopathic Effect

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28
Q

Visual or functional change in infected cells

A

Cytopathic effect

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29
Q

Oncogenic viruses induce transformation and unrestrained growth

A

Malignant transformation

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30
Q

Infected cells appear normal, but are producing large numbers of progeny viruses

A

Commensal symbiosis

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31
Q

Bind cytokines and block their ability to interact with receptors on their intended targets

A

Cytokine decoys

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32
Q

Reduce the expression of antigen presenting cells and inactivate complement

A

Virokines

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33
Q

Produce virus for long periods of time; Can serve as a source of infection for others

A

Carrier state

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34
Q

Not producing virus at the present but can be reactivated at a subsequent time

A

Latent infections

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35
Q

Long incubation period, often measured in years

A

Slow virus infections

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36
Q

Attachment of RBCs to surface of infected cells

A

Hemadsorption

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37
Q

Interference with CPE by another virus

A

Interference

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38
Q

Finding antibody in one who previously had none

A

Seroconversion

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39
Q

Can be used to diagnose current infection

A

Presence of IgM

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40
Q

Cannot be used to diagnose current infection; Detect past or chronic infection

A

Presence of IgG

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41
Q

Gold Standard in Viral diagnosis

A

Presence of viral DNA or RNA

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42
Q

Induce humoral and cell-mediated immunity but may revert to virulence on rare occasions; Dangerous to give to immunocompromised patients or their close contacts

A

Live-attenuated Vaccines

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43
Q

The only live-attenuated vaccine that can be given to HIV (+) patients

A

MMR

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44
Q

Live-attenuated Vaccines

A

Yellow fever
Varicella zoster
Sabin’s Polio
MMR

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45
Q

Induce only humoral immunity but are stable

A

Killed vaccines

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46
Q

Killed Vaccines

A

Rabies
Influenza
Polio (Salk’s)
Hepatitis A

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47
Q

Recombinant Vaccines (Synthetic)

A 
Hepatitis B (recombinant HBsAg)
HPV (types 6,11,16,18)
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48
Q

DNA viruses

A 
Hepadna
Herpes
Adeno
Pox
Parvo
Polyoma
Papilloma
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49
Q

All DNA viruses have double-stranded DNA EXCEPT

A

Parvovirus (single-stranded)

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50
Q

All DNA viruses have linear DNA EXCEPT

A

Papilloma
Polyoma
Hepadna

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51
Q

All DNA viruses are icosahedral EXCEPT

A

Poxvirus

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52
Q

All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus EXCEPT

A

Poxvirus

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53
Q

Mode of Transmission: Parvovirus B19

A

Respiratory

Transplacental

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54
Q

Mode of Transmission: Adenovirus

A

Respiratory

Fecal-oral

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55
Q

Mode of Transmission: Human Papillomavirus

A

Sexual

Skin contact

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56
Q

Naked virus with icosahedral symmetry; Single stranded DNA genome; One serotype; Transmission: respiratory droplets and transplacental

A

Parvovirus B19

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57
Q

Bright red cheeks (slapped cheeks) with fever, coryza and sore throat

A

Erythema infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

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58
Q

Transient but severe aplastic anemia in children; Sickle cell anemia, Thalassemia, Spherocytosis

A

Aplastic Crisis

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59
Q

Pancytopenia in immunodeficient patients

A

Chronic B19 Infection

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60
Q

Naked viruses with double-stranded linear DNA and an icosahedral nucleocapsid; Only virus with fiber; 41 antigenic types; Transmission: aerosol droplet, fecal-oral, direct contact

A

Adenovirus

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61
Q

Spectrum of Disease of Adenovirus: URT

A

Pharyngitis
Conjunctivitis
Coryza

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62
Q

Spectrum of Disease of Adenovirus: LRT

A

Bronchitis

Atypical Pneumonia

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63
Q

Spectrum of Disease of Adenovirus: GIT

A

Acute Gastroenteritis

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64
Q

Spectrum of Disease of Adenovirus: GUT

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis (Cowdry type B intranuclear inclusions)

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65
Q

Most common cause of Pediatric Viral Gastroenteritis?

A

Rotavirus

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66
Q

Naked viruses with double-stranded circular DNA and an icosahedral nucleocapsid; at least 100 types; Transmission: direct contact or sexually

A

Human Papilloma Virus

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67
Q

Infect squamous cells and induce formation of cytoplasmic vacuole

A

Koilocytes

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68
Q

Encode proteins that inactivate tumor suppressor genes

A

Genes E6 and E7

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69
Q

Skin and plantar warts

A

HPV 1-4

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70
Q

Genital warts and respiratory tract papillomas; Most common viral STD

A

HPV 6-11

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71
Q

Carcinoma of cervix, penis, and anus

A

HPV 16, 18, 31, 33

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72
Q

Gold Standard for diagnosis of HPV

A

PCR

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73
Q

Treatment for Genital warts

A

Podophyllin

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74
Q

Treatment for Skin warts

A

Liquid nitrogen

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75
Q

Treatment for Plantar warts

A

Salicylic acid

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76
Q

Only causes disease in immunocompromised hosts; Causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) in pts with AIDS

A

JC Polyoma Virus

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77
Q

Most common Demyelinating disease

A

Multiple sclerosis

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78
Q

Only causes disease in immunocompromised hosts; Causes hemorrhagic cystitis and nephropathy in patients with solid organ and bone marrow transplants

A

BK Polyoma Virus

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79
Q

Most common cause of Adult Viral Gastroenteritis?

A

Norwalkvirus

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80
Q

Herpes Viruses

A

CMV
HSV
EBV
VZV

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81
Q

Enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and linear double-stranded DNA; Multinucleated giant cells on Tzanck smear; Large, pink to purple intranuclear inclusions (Cowdry type A)

A

Herpes Simplex Viruses

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82
Q

Transmission of HSV 1

A

Saliva or direct

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83
Q

Transmission of HSV 2

A

Sexual or transvaginal

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84
Q

Site of latency of HSV 1

A

Trigeminal ganglia

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85
Q

Site of latency HSV 2

A

Lumbosacral ganglia

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86
Q

Spectrum of Disease of HSV 1

A 
Gingivostomatitis
Herpes labialis (lips)
Keratoconjunctivitis
Temporal lobe encephalitis
Herpetic whitlow (fingers)
Herpes gladiatorum (trunk)
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87
Q

Spectrum of Disease of HSV 2

A

Genital herpes
Neonatal herpes
Aseptic meningitis

88
Q

DOC of HSV

A

Acyclovir

89
Q

Enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and linear double-stranded DNA; Transmission: Respiratory droplets and by direct contact with lesions; Multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions

A

Varicella zoster virus

90
Q

Incubation period: 14-21 days; Vesicular centrifugal rash (dewdrop on a rose petal appearance); Complication: pneumonia, encephalitis, Reye’s Syndrome

A

Varicella

91
Q

Reye’s Syndrome

A 
Fever
Vomiting
Fatty liver
Kidney swelling
Brain swelling
92
Q

Uses of Aspirin in Pediatric Diseases

A

Kawasaki
ARF
JRA

93
Q

Painful vesicles along dermatomal distribution; Debilitating pain (Postherpetic neuralgia)

A

Zoster

94
Q

Involvement of geniculate ganglion causes facial nerve paralysis

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

95
Q

Treatment of VZV

A

Acyclovir

96
Q

Enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and linear dsDNA; Cultured in shell tubes; Negative heterophil test; Transmission: human body fluids, across the placenta, organ transplantation; Giant cells with owl’s-eye nuclear inclusions

A

Cytomegalovirus

97
Q

Most common cause of Congenital abnormalities; Microcephaly, seizures, deafness, jaundice, purpura; Most common when mother infected in 1st trimester

A

Congenital CMV infection

98
Q

Fever, lethargy, and abnormal lymphocytes in peripheral blood smears

A

Heterophil-negative Mononucleosis

99
Q

Pneumonitis, Hepatitis, colitis, retinitis in immunocompromised patients

A

Systemic CMV infections

100
Q

DOC of CMV

A

Ganciclovir (CMV is largely resistant to acyclovir)

101
Q

Enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and linear ds-DNA; Transmission: saliva; Infects mainly lymphoid cells, primarily B lymphocytes; Elicits EBV-specific antibodies and non-specific heterophil antibodies

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

102
Q

“Kissing disease”; Fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly; Splenic rupture is a rare complication

A

Infectious mononucleosis

103
Q

Malignancies associated with EBV

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma in African people
B cell Lymphomas
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma in Chinese people
Hairy leukoplakia in AIDS patients

104
Q

Malignancy of vascular endothelial cells; Skin lesions: dark purple, flat to nodular, and often appear at multiple sites

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma (Human Herpesvirus - 8)

105
Q

Only disease that has been eradicated from the face of the earth; Largest viruses; Brick-shaped poxvirus containing linear dsDNA; Transmission: aerosol or contact; Prodrome of fever and malaise followed by centrifugal rash

A

Smallpox (Variola virus)

106
Q

Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions of Variola virus

A

Guarnieri bodies

107
Q

Pinkish, papular skin lesions with an umbilicated center; Transmission: direct contact

A

Molluscum contagiosum

108
Q

Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions of Molluscum contagiosum

A

Henderson-Peterson bodies

109
Q

Treatment of Molluscum contagiosum

A

Cifodovir

110
Q

Enveloped virus with incomplete circular double-stranded DNA; Transmission: blood, during birth, sexual

A

Hepatitis B virus

111
Q

HBsAg

A

Surface antigen

112
Q

HBcAg

A

Core antigen

113
Q

HBeAg; marker of viral replication

A

E antigen

114
Q

IgM HBcAg

A

Acute infection

115
Q

IgG HBcAg

A

Chronic infection

116
Q

Only DNA virus that produces DNA by reverse transcription with mRNA as the template; No cytopathic effect; Incubation period: 10-12 weeks; Fever, anorexia, jaundice, dark urine, pale feces, elevated transaminase levels

A

HBV

117
Q

HBV associated with autoimmune vasculitides

A

Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)

118
Q

Associated malignancy with HBV

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

119
Q

HBV Complication: Functional renal failure without renal pathology

A

Hepatorenal Syndrome

120
Q

HBV Complication: Vascular dilatations cause overperfusion relative to ventilation, leading to VQ
Mismatch and Hypoxemia

A

Hepatopulmonary Syndrome

121
Q

Treatment of HBV

A

Interferon-alpha

Lamivudine

122
Q

All RNA viruses have single-stranded RNA EXCEPT

A

Reovirus

Rotavirus

123
Q

All RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm EXCEPT

A

Influenza

Retrovirus

124
Q

Picornaviridae

A 
Poliovirus
Echovirus
Rhinovirus
Coxsackievirus
Hepatitis A virus
125
Q

Naked nucleocapsid with single-stranded, positive polarity RNA; Oral-fecal transmission; replicates in motor neurons in anterior horn of spinal cord causing paralysis

A

Poliovirus

126
Q

Most common clinical form of Poliovirus; Mild, febrile illness with headache, sore throat, nausea, and vomiting

A

Abortive Poliomyelitis

127
Q

Aseptic meningitis of Poliovirus

A

Nonparalytic Poliomyelitis

128
Q

Flaccid paralysis; Permanent motor nerve damage; Most severe

A

Paralytic Poliomyelitis

129
Q

Intranuclear inclusions of Poliovirus

A

Cowdry Type B

130
Q

Naked nucleocapsid with single stranded, positive polarity RNA; Transmission: oral-fecal

A

Coxsackie virus

131
Q

Fever, sore throat, and tender vesicles in oropharynx

A

Herpangina

132
Q

Vesicular rash on hands and feet and ulcerations in the mouth

A

Hand-foot-and-mouth Disease

133
Q

Fever and severe pleuritic-type chest pain

A

Pleurodynia

134
Q

Most common cause; Fever, chest pain, and signs of congestive failure

A

Myocarditis

Pericarditis

135
Q

Most common cause of Aseptic Meningitis

A

Coxsackie Virus

136
Q

Enteroviruses

A

Coxsackie virus
Poliovirus
Echovirus

137
Q

Called “orphans” because they were not initially associated with any disease; Now known to cause aseptic meningitis, URTI, febrile illness with or without rash, infantile diarrhea, hemorrhagic conjunctivitis; Transmitted by fecal-oral route

A

Echovirus (Enteric Cytopathic Human Orphan)

138
Q

Naked nucleocapsid viruses with single-stranded, positive-polarity RNA; More than 100 serotypes; Transmitted by aerosol droplets and hand to nose contact

A

Rhinovirus (Common colds)

139
Q

Naked nucleocapsid virus with a ss-positive-RNA; Fecal-oral transmission; Children most frequently infected; Self limited hepatitis; 1 serotype; no antigenic relationship to HBV or other hepatitis

A

Hepatitis A aka Enterovirus 72

140
Q

Most important test for HAV

A

Anti-HAV IgM

141
Q

Fecal-oral route; No chronic carrier state; No cirrhosis; No hepatocellular carcinoma; high mortality in pregnancy women

A

Hepatitis E virus

142
Q

Non enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and one piece of single-stranded, positive-polarity RNA; Oral-fecal transmission; Most common cause of nonbacterial diarrhea in adults; sudden onset of vomiting and diarrhea accompanied by fever and abdominal cramping

A

Viral Gastroenteritis (Norwalk virus)

143
Q

Enveloped virus with a helical nucleocapsid and segmented, ss-negative RNA; Major antigens are hemagglutin (H) and neuraminidase (N); Respiratory droplet transmission

A

Influenza virus

144
Q

Worldwide epidemics (pandemics) each year; Most common cause of respiratory tract infections

A

Influenza A

145
Q

Major outbreaks of influenza; Does not lead to pandemic

A

Influenza B

146
Q

Mild respiratory tract infections but does not cause outbreaks of influenza

A

Influenza C

147
Q

Binds to the cell surface receptor (neuraminic acid, sialic acid) to initiate infection of the cell; The target of neutralizing antibody; Infective

A

Hemagglutinin

148
Q

Cleaves neuraminic acid (sialic acid) to release progeny virus from the infected cell; Also degrades the protective layer of mucus in the respiratory tract which enhances access to the respiratory epithelial cells

A

Neuraminidase

149
Q

Major changes based on the reassortment of segment of the genome RNA

A

Antigenic Shifts (Pandemics)

150
Q

Minor changes based on mutations in the genome RNA

A

Antigenic Drifts

151
Q

DOC of Influenza

A

Oseltamivir or Zanamivir

Amantadine or Rimantadine for Influenza A only

152
Q

Paramyxoviruses

A

Parainfluenza
RSV
Measles
Mumps

153
Q

Enveloped virus with helical nucleocapsid and one piece of single stranded, negative polarity RNA; Respiratory droplet transmission

A

Measles virus

154
Q

Multinucleated giant cells of Measles virus

A

Warthin-Finkeldey bodies

155
Q

Bright red lesions with a white, central dot on buccal mucosa; Pathognomonic

A

Koplik’s spots

156
Q

Complications of Measles virus

A

Encephalitis
Pneumonia
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) or Damson Disease

157
Q

Cardinal manifestations of Measles

A

Cough
Coryza
Conjunctivitis
Koplik spots

158
Q

Enveloped virus with a helical nucleocapsid and one piece of single-stranded, negative-polarity RNA; Respiratory droplet transmission; initially infects URT; tender swelling of parotid glands (parotitis)

A

Mumps virus

159
Q

Most common benign Parotid Tumor

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

160
Q

Surface spikes (fusion proteins); Causes cells to fuse, forming mutinicleated giant cells (syncytia), which give rise to the name of the virus; human host

A

Respiratory Syncitial Virus

161
Q

Most important cause of Pneumonia and Bronchiolitis in infants; Severe disease in infants due to immunologic cross reaction with maternal antibodies

A

RSV pneumonia

162
Q

Treatment of RSV Pneumonia

A

Ribavirin

163
Q

Characterized by inspiratory stridor, cough and hoarseness; Steeple sign on x-ray

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)

164
Q

Treatment of Croup

A

Racemic Epinephrine

165
Q

Bullet-shaped enveloped virus with helical nucleocapsid and one piece of single-stranded, negative-polarity RNA; Animal reservoir; Transmission: animal bite

A

Rabies virus

166
Q

Intracytoplasmic histologic presentation

A

Negri bodies

167
Q

WHO Guidelines for Post Exposure Prophylaxis: Category I

A

No treatment

168
Q

WHO Guidelines for Post Exposure Prophylaxis: Category II

A

Vaccine

169
Q

WHO Guidelines for Post Exposure Prophylaxis: Category III

A

Vaccine + Immunoglobulin

170
Q

Enveloped virus with helical nucleocapsid and one piece of single-stranded, Positive-polarity RNA; Prominent club-shaped spikes form a “corona”; 2 serotypes; respiratory droplet transmission

A

Coronavirus (Common colds)

171
Q

Atypical pneumonia rapidly progressing to ARDS; Virus binds to ACE-2 receptor; Chest x-ray: non-cavitary “ground-glass” infiltrates

A

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

172
Q

Enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and one piece of single-stranded, positive-polarity RNA; 4 serotypes; transmitted by Aedes aegypti; Diagnosed using dengue IgM; Leukopenia, Thrombocytopenia, increased hematocrit

A

Dengue virus

173
Q

Influenza-like syndrome with maculopapular rash and severe pains in muscles and joints

A

Breakbone Fever

174
Q

Enveloped virus with one piece of single-stranded, positive-polarity RNA; hypervariable region in envelope glycoprotein; 6 serotypes; Most prevalent blood-borne pathogen

A

Hepatitis C virus

175
Q

Replication of HCV in liver is enhanced by

A

Liver-specific micro-RNA

176
Q

HCV is the main cause of

A

Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia

177
Q

Treatment of Acute Hepatitis C

A

Interferon

178
Q

Treatment of Chronic Hepatitis

A

Peg-interferon and Ribavirin

179
Q

Most common indication for _____ for severe cirrhosis

A

Liver Transplantation

180
Q

Enveloped virus with an icosahedral nucleocapsid and one ss-positive-RNA; Respiratory droplet or transplacental transmission

A

Rubella Virus

181
Q

Incubation period: 14-21 days; Prodrome followed by 3-day maculopapular rash and posterior auricular LAD; immune-complex polyarthritis in adults

A

German Measles

182
Q

Infected during the 1st trimester; Associated abnormalities: patent ductus arteriosus, congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, mental retardation

A

Congenital Rubella Syndrome

183
Q

5 Bs of Congenital Rubella Syndrome

A 
Bulag (cataracts)
Bingi (sensorineural deafness)
Bobo (mental retardation)
Butas ang puso (PDA)
Blue berry muffin baby
184
Q

Distinguished from all other RNA viruses by the presence of an unusual enzyme, reverse transcriptase which converts a single-stranded RNA viral genome into double-stranded viral DNA

A

Retroviridae

185
Q

Enveloped virus with two copies (diploid) of a single-stranded, positive-polarity RNA genome; most complex of the known retroviruses; many serotypes

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

186
Q

Fusion protein of HIV; Mediates the fusion of the viral envelope with the cell membrane at the time of infection

A

gp41

187
Q

Attachment protein of HIV; Interacts with CD4 receptor; Gene mutates rapidly (many antigenic variants); High mutation rate may be due to lack of an editing function in the reverse transcriptase

A

gp120

188
Q

Capsid protein of HIV; Group-specific antigen, located in the core, not known to vary, antibodies against p24 do not neutralize HIV infectivity but serve as important serologic markers of infection

A

p24

189
Q

Outer matrix protein of HIV

A

p17

190
Q

Nucleoprotein of HIV

A

p7

191
Q

Gene that encodes p24, p7, p17

A

gag Gene

192
Q

Gene that encodes reverse transcriptase, protease, integrase

A

pol Gene

193
Q

Gene that encodes gp120 and gp41

A

env Gene

194
Q

Most immunogenic region of gp120

A

V3 loop

195
Q

Activation of transcription of viral genes

A

tat Gene

196
Q

Transport of late mRNAs to cytoplasm

A

rev Gene

197
Q

Decreases CD4 and Class I MHC proteins

A

nef Gene

198
Q

Enhances hypermutation

A

vif Gene

199
Q

Transport in non-dividing cells

A

vpr Gene

200
Q

Enhances virion release

A

vpu Gene

201
Q

Preferentially infects and kills helper (CD4+) T lymphocytes; Loss of cell-mediates immunity; High probability of opportunistic infections; Main immune response consists of cytotoxic (CD8+) lymphocytes

A

HIV

202
Q

Stages of HIV Infection: HIV acquired through sexual intercourse, blood, or perinatally

A

Phase 0: Infection

203
Q

Stages of HIV Infection: Rapid biral replication but HIV test is negative

A

Phase 1: Window Period

204
Q

Stages of HIV Infection: Peak of viral load, positive HIV test, mild flu-like illness, lasting 1-2 weeks

A

Phase 2: Seroconversion

205
Q

Stages of HIV Infection: Asymptomatic, CD4 goes down, lasts 1-15 years

A

Phase 3: Latent Period

206
Q

Stages of HIV Infection: CD4 500-200, lasts 5 years, mild mucocutaneous, dermatologic and hematologic illness

A

Phase 4: Early Symptomatic

207
Q

Stages of HIV Infection: CD4 <200 lasts 2 years, AIDS-defining illnesses develop

A

Phase 5: AIDS

208
Q

AIDS-defining Illness: CD4 <500

A

M. tuberculosis (dissiminated tuberculosis)
HSV (HSV esophagitis)
C. albicans (esophageal candidiasis)
HHV-8 (Kaposi’s sarcoma)

209
Q

AIDS-defining Illness: CD4 <200

A 
P. jiroveci (PCP pneumonia)
T. gondii (cerebral toxoplasmosis)
C. neoformans (meningoencephalitis)
C. immitis (coccidiomycosis)
C. parvum (chronic diarrhea)
210
Q

AIDS-defining Illness: CD4 <50

A

M. avium (invasive pulmonary disease)
H. capsulatum (histoplasmosis)
CMV (CMV retinitis)

211
Q

Screening test for HIV

A

ELISA

212
Q

Confirmatory test for HIV (For Definitive Diagnosis)

A

Western blot Analysis

213
Q

Used for Prognostication of HIV

A

PCR

214
Q

Treatment of HIV

A

Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)

215
Q

Retrovirus causing Adult T-cell leukemia and HTLV-associated myelopathy; HP: malignant T cell with flower-shape nucleus

A

Human T-cell Lymphotropic Virus (HTLV)

216
Q

Thread-like viruses; Longest viruses; Outbreak of hemorrhagic fever; 100% mortality

A

Ebola Virus (Ebola Hemorrhagic Fever)

217
Q

Flavivirus; Bird-mosquito-man cycle; Initial self limited febrile illness with progression to neuroinvasive disease

A

West Nile Virus (West Nile Fever)

218
Q

Membrane of flavivirus; Most common cause of epidemic encephalitis; most prevalent in SEA; Transmitted by Culex mosquitoes; Thalamic infarcts on CT Scan

A

Japanese B Virus (Japanese B Encephalitis)

Microbiology (8 decks)

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