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Bacteriology Flashcards

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0
Q

Gram (+) cocci in clusters; Catalase (+); Coagulase (-); Novobiocin sensitive

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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1
Q

Gram (+) cocci in clusters; Catalase (+); Coagulase (+)

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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2
Q

Gram (+) cocci in clusters; Catalase (+); Coagulase (-); Novobiocin resistant

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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3
Q

Beta hemolytic yellow or golden colonies on blood agar; Salt-tolerant on Mannitol Salt Agar; Normal flora of human nose and skin

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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4
Q

Gold color is due to the pigment

A

Staphyloxanthin

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5
Q

Alter immune response

A

Immunomodulators

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6
Q

Prevents Complement Activation

A

Protein A

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7
Q

Builds an insoluble fibrin capsule

A

Coagulase

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8
Q

Toxic to hematopoeitic cells

A

Hemolysins (cytotoxins)

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9
Q

Specific for white blood cells

A

PV Leukocidin

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10
Q

Detoxifies hydrogen peroxide

A

Catalase

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11
Q

Inactivates penicillin derivatives

A

Penicillinase

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12
Q

Hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid

A

Hyaluronidase

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13
Q

Dissolves fibrin clots

A

Fibrinolysin (Staphylokinase)

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14
Q

Spread in fat-containing areas of the body

A

Lipase

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15
Q

Causes epidermal separation

A

Exfoliatin

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16
Q

Superantigens causing food poisoning

A

Enterotoxins (heat-stable)

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17
Q

Superantigen leading to Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1)

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18
Q

Causes marked necrosis of the skin and hemolysis

A

Alpha Toxin

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19
Q

Skin and Soft Tissue Infections caused by S. aureus

A 
Bullous impetigo
Folliculitis
Furuncles
Carbuncles
Cellulitis
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Mastitis
Surgical site infections
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20
Q

Most common cause of Acute Endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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21
Q

Native valve involved in IV drug abusers

A

Tricuspid valve

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22
Q

Pneumonia caused by S. aureus

A

Nosocomial pneumonia
VAP
Necrotizing pneumonia

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23
Q

Pneumonia by S. aureus: Complicated by

A

Empyema
Abscess
Pneumatocoele

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24
Q

From hematogenous spread or local introduction at wound site

A

Osteomyelitis and Septic Arthritis

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25
Q

Sequestered focus of osteomyelitis arising in the metaphyseal area of a long bone

A

Brodie abscess

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26
Q

Acute onset (4hrs) of vomiting and diarrhea due to ingestion of preformed heat-stable enterotoxin; Usually from salad made with mayonnaise (potato or tuna); Common cause of food poisoning

A

Gastroenteritis by S. aureus

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27
Q

Exfoliatin cleaves Desmoglein in desmosomes; Separation of epidermis at Stratum Granulosum; Distinguish from TEN (Lyell Disease) where separation occurs at dermoepidermal junction

A

Scalded Skin Syndrome (Ritter Disease)

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28
Q

Due to TSST-1; Fever, hypotension, slouging of the filiform papillae; Strawberry tongue, desquamating rash & multi-organ involvement; Usually no site of pyogenic inflammation; Blood CS negative; Usual scenario: Tampon-using menstruating women or in patients with nasal packing for epistaxis

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

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29
Q

Treatment: Methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA)

A

Nafcillin
Oxacillin
Dicloxacillin

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30
Q

Treatment: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

A

Drug of Choice: Vancomycin

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31
Q

Treatment: Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

A

Drug of Choice: Linezolid

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32
Q

Gram (+) cocci in clusters; Catalase (+); Coagulase (-); Novobiocin sensitive; Whitish, non-hemolytic colonies on Blood Agar; Normal flora of skin

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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33
Q

Most common cause of Prosthetic valve Endocarditis; Septic arthritis in prosthetic joints; Ventriculoperitoneal shunt infections

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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34
Q

Drug of choice for Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

Vancomycin

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35
Q

Gram (+) cocci in clusters; catalase (+); coagulase (-); Novobiocin resistant; Whitish, non-hemolytic colonies on Blood Agar

A

Staphylococcus saphrophyticus

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36
Q

2nd most common cause of UTIs in sexually active women

A

Staphylococcus saphrophyticus

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37
Q

Treatment for Staphylococcus saphrophyticus

A

TMP-SMX, Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin, Gatifloxacin)

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38
Q

Gram (+) cocci in chains; catalase (-); alpha hemolytic; bile optochin sensitive

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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39
Q

Gram (+) cocci in chains; catalase (-); alpha hemolytic; bile optochin resistant

A

Viridans streptococci

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40
Q

Gram (+) cocci in chains; catalase (-); beta hemolytic; bacitracin sensitive

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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41
Q

Gram (+) cocci in chains; catalase (-); beta hemolytic; bacitracin resistant

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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42
Q

Gram (+) cocci in chains; catalase (-); gamma hemolytic

A

Group D Streptococci

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43
Q

Measures hydrolysis of l-pyrrolidonyl-beta- naphthylamide and release of beta-naphthylamine, which in the presence of p-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde forms a red compound.

A

PYR test

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44
Q

Gram (+) cocci in chains; Beta hemolytic; Catalase (-); Bacitracin sensitive; Lancefield group A; Positive PYR test; Normal flora of human throat and skin

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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45
Q

Spreading factor

A

Hyaluronidase

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46
Q

Activates plasminogen

A

Streptokinase (fibrinolysin)

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47
Q

Degrades DNA in exudates or necrotic tissue

A

DNAse (Streptodornase)

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48
Q

Inactivates complement C5a

A

C5a peptidase

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49
Q

Produces Scarlet Fever

A

Erythrogenic toxin

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50
Q

Highly antigenic, causes AB formation; Oxygen-labile; Irreversibly inhibited by cholesterol in skin lipids

A

Streptolysin O

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51
Q

Oxygen-stable

A

Streptolysin S

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52
Q

Superantigen similar to TSST

A

Pyogenic exotoxin A

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53
Q

Protease that rapidly destroys tissue causing Necrotizing fasciitis

A

Exotoxin B

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54
Q

Titers to document antecedent pharyngitis

A

Anti-streptolysin O (ASO)

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55
Q

Titers to document antecedent skin infection

A

Anti-DNAse B

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56
Q

Antibodies decrease efficacy of streptokinase in managing MI

A

Anti-streptokinase

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57
Q

Perioral blistered lesions with honey-colored crust; Accumulation of neutrophils beneath stratum corneum; Complication: PSGN

A

Impetigo contagiosa

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58
Q

Superficial infection extending into dermal lymphatics; Painful

A

Erysipelas

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59
Q

Deeper infection involving subcutaneous or dermal tissues; Facilitated by hyaluronidase (spreading factor)

A

Cellulitis

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60
Q

Rapidly progressive infection of deep subcutaneous tissues; Facilitated by Exotoxin B

A

Necrotizing fasciitis

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61
Q

Most common bacterial cause of sore throat; Inflammation, exudate, fever, leukocytosis, and tender CLAD; Pyogenic complications: abscess, otitis, sinusitis, meningitis

A

Steptococcus pyogenes

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62
Q

Postpharyngitic; Due to erythrogenic toxin, seen in lysogenized strains; Fever, strawberry tongue, centrifugal rash (sandpaper-like), Pastia’s lines, desquamation

A

Scarlet Fever

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63
Q

Susceptibility test for Scarlet Fever

A

Dick Test

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64
Q

Clinically similar but milder than S. aureus TSS; Due to pyogenic exotoxin A; Recognizable site of pyogenic inflammation; Blood cultures are often positive

A

Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome

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65
Q

Postpharyngitic; Cross reacting antibodies to M proteins and antigens of joint, heart and brain tissue

A

Acute Rheumatic Fever

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66
Q

JONES Criteria

A 
P-E-C-C-S
Polyarthritis
Erythema marginatum
Chorea (Sydenham's)
Carditis (Pancarditis)
Subcutaneous nodules
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67
Q

Postpharyngitic or post-impetigo; M protein incites immune complex deposition on the glomerular basement membrane

A

Glomerulonephritis

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68
Q

Drug of choice for Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Penicillin G

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69
Q

Gram (+) cocci in chains; Beta hemolytic; Catalase (-); Bacitracin resistant; Hydrolyze hippurate; CAMP test positive; Lancefield group B; Grow using LIM broth; Normal flora of Vagina

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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70
Q

Causative agent: Urinary Tract Infection in pregnant women

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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71
Q

Most common cause of Neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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72
Q

Most commonly polymicrobial Endometritis; Foul-smelling

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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73
Q

Drug of choice for Streptococcus agalactiae

A

Penicillin G

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74
Q

Drug of choice for more serious S. Agalactiae infection

A

Penicillin G + Aminoglycoside

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75
Q

All pregnant women should be screened for GBS colonization at

A

35-37 weeks aog

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76
Q

Gram (+) cocci in chains; Catalase (-); Gamma (nonhemolytic) colonies; Lancefield group D; Bile and Optochin resistant; Hydrolyzes esculin in bile-esculin agar (BEA); positive PYR test; Normal flora of human colon

A

Group D Streptococci

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77
Q

Endocarditis in patients who underwent GIT surgery due to

A

Enterococcus faecalis

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78
Q

UTIs due to indwelling urinary catheters and urinary tract instrumentation; Biliary tract infections

A

Group D Streptococci

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79
Q

Marantic endocarditis in patients with abdominal malignancy due to

A

Streptococcus bovis

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80
Q

Associated Ca with Marantic Endocarditis

A

Pancreatic Ca

Colorectal Ca

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81
Q

Treatment for Group D Streptococci

A

Penicillin plus Gentamicin

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82
Q

For Penicillin-resistance Group D Streptococci

A

Vancomycin

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83
Q

For Vancomycin-resistant Strains

A

Linezolid

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84
Q

Gram (+) “lancet-shaped” cocci in pairs (diplococci) or short chains; Alpha hemolytic; Catalase (-); Sensitive to bile and optochin; Prominent polysaccharide capsule; Quellung reaction (+); Normal flora of upper respiratory tract

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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85
Q

Optochin Sensitivity

A

Optochin
Viridans Resistant
Pneumonia Sensitive

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86
Q

Quellung Reaction

A

Capsular swelling

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87
Q

Encapsulated Bacteria

A 
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Neisseria meningitidis
Salmonella typhi
B group streptococci
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88
Q

Antiphagocytic factor

A

Capsule

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89
Q

For colonization

A

IgA protease

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90
Q

Reacts with CRP; Acute phase reactant

A

C-substance

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91
Q

Most common cause of Community Acquired Pneumonia (CAP); Sudden chills, fever, productive cough (rust-colored sputum), pleuritic chest pain; Lobar pattern

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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92
Q

Most common cause of Otitis media, Sinusitis, Bacterial Meningitis; Skull fracture with spinal fluid leakage from nose predisposes to meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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93
Q

Splenectomy predisposes to sepsis

A

Septic Shock

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94
Q

Congenital Absence of Spleen; Need to get meningococcal and pneumococcal vaccines

A

Ivemark Syndrome

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95
Q

Drug of choice for Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Penicillin G

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96
Q

Gram (+) cocci in chains; Alpha hemolytic; Catalase (-); Resistant to bile and optochin; Normal flora of Oropharynx

A

Viridans Streptococci

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97
Q

Enhances adhesion to damaged heart valves

A

Glycocalyx

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98
Q

Protected from host defenses within

A

Vegetations

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99
Q

Found in Dental caries

A

Streptococcus mutans

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100
Q

Found in Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE); Most common cause of subacute and native valve endocarditis

A

Streptococcus sanguis

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101
Q

Found in brain abscesses

A

Streptococcus intermedius

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102
Q

Treatment for Viridans streptococci

A

Penicillin G with or without Aminoglycoside

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103
Q

Spore-forming, gram (+), rods; aerobic, nonmotile, box car-shaped

A

Bacillus anthracis

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104
Q

Spore-forming, gram (+), rods; aerobic, motile, reheated fried rice

A

Bacillus cereus

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105
Q

Spore-forming, gram (+), rods; anaerobic, tennis racket-like

A

Clostridium tetani

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106
Q

Spore-forming, gram (+), rods; anaerobic, bulging cans

A

Clostridium botulinum

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107
Q

Spore-forming, gram (+), rods; anaerobic, lecithinase, gas-forming

A

Clostridium perfringens

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108
Q

Spore-forming, gram (+), rods; anaerobic, pseudomembranes

A

Clostridium difficile

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109
Q

Non-spore-forming, gram (+), rods; aerobic, nonmotile, curved, chinese characters

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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110
Q

Non-spore-forming, gram (+), rods; aerobic, curved, tumbling motility

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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111
Q

Aerobic, gram (+) box car-like rods; nonmotile; spore-forming; Medusa head morphology; Habitat: soil

A

Bacillus anthracis

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112
Q

Dry “ground glass” surface and irregular edges with projections along lines of inoculation

A

Medusa Head Morphology

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113
Q

Transmission by contact with infected animals or inhalation of spores from animal hair and wool

A

Woolsorter’s Disease

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114
Q

Calmodulin-dependent adenylate cyclase

A

Edema factor (EF)

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115
Q

Inhibits a signal transduction in cell division

A

Lethal factor (LF)

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116
Q

Mediates entry of the other two components into cell

A

Protective antigen (PA)

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117
Q

EF + PA =

A

Edema Toxin

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118
Q

LF + PA =

A

Lethal Toxin

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119
Q

True or False: EF, LF, PA are toxic individually.

A

False (nontoxic individually but form toxins when combined)

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120
Q

Direct epidermal contact with spores causes formation of malignant pustule with subsequent eschar and central necrosis

A

Cutaneous Anthrax

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121
Q

Inhaled spores from animals or from weaponized preparations (bioterrorism); Prolonged latent period before rapid deterioration; Massively enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes, pulmonary hemorrhage, meningeal symptoms

A

Inhalational Anthrax

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122
Q

Ingestion of live spores leads to UGI ulceration, edema, and sepsis (rapidly-progressive course)

A

Gastrointestinal Anthrax

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123
Q

DOC for Cutaneous Anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin

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124
Q

DOC for Inhalational or Gastrointestinal Anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin or Doxycycline with one or two additional antibiotics (Rifampicin, Vancomycin, Penicillin, Imipenem, Clindamycin, Clarithromycin)

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125
Q

Aerobic, gram (+), spore-forming rods, motile; Spores germinate when rice is kept warm for many hours

A

Bacillus cereus

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126
Q

Cholera-like enterotoxin causes ADP-ribosylation with increasing cAMP

A

Heat-labile Enterotoxin (Secretory Diarrhea)

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127
Q

Staphylococcal-like enterotoxin functions as superantigen

A

Heat-stable Enterotoxin

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128
Q

Short incubation period (4hrs); Consists primarily of nausea and vomiting, similar to Staphylococcal Food Poisoning

A

Emetic Form (heat-stable) Food Poisoning

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129
Q

Long incubation period (18hrs); Watery, non bloody diarrhea, resembling Clostridial gastroenteritis

A

Diarrheal Form (heat-labile) Food Poisoning

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130
Q

Occur after traumatic penetrating eye injuries of the eye with a soil-contaminated object; Complete loss of light perception within 48 hours of the injury

A

Ophthalmitis

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131
Q

Treatment for Emetic or Diarrheal Food Poisoning

A

Symptomatic treatment only

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132
Q

Treatment for Ophthalmitis

A

Vancomycin, Clindamycin, Ciprofloxacin or Gentamicin

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133
Q

Anaerobic, gram (+), spore-forming rods; Spore is at one end (terminal spore); tennis racket-like; Habitat: soil; Entry thru traumatic break in the skin

A

Clostridium tetani

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134
Q

Protease that cleaves proteins involved in the release of Glycine from Renshaw cells in spinal cord

A

Tetanus toxin (Tetanospasmin)

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135
Q

Spectrum of Disease: Tetanus

A 
Strong muscle spasms 
Lockjaw (Trismus)
Risus sardonicus
Opisthotonos
Respiratory Failure
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136
Q

Treatment and DOC for Tetanus

A

Debridement of primary wound

DOC: Metronidazole (Pen G - Philippines)

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137
Q

Tetanus vaccination for clean, minor wound

A

Toxoid (TeANA) for uncertain or 3 doses who had last dose >10 years

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138
Q

Tetanus vaccination for contaminated wound

A

Toxoid (TeANA) & TIG (ATS) for uncertain or 3 doses who had last dose >5 years

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139
Q

Anaerobic, gram (+), spore-forming rods; Habitat: Soil; Transmitted in improperly preserved food

A

Clostridium botulinum

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140
Q

Heat-labile neurotoxin that blocks acetylcholine release causing flaccid paralysis (descending pattern)

A

Botulinum Toxin

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141
Q

Most common Botulinum Toxin in humans

A

Types A, B and E

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142
Q

Commercial preparation of Exotoxin A

A

Botox

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143
Q

Triad of Botulism

A

Symmetric descending flaccid paralysis (with prominent bulbar involvement)
Absence of Fever
Intact sensorium

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144
Q

When babies ingest spores found in household dust or honey; Due to absence of competitive bowel flora

A

Infant Botulism (Floppy Baby Syndrome)

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145
Q

Traumatic implantation and germination of spores at the wound site

A

Wound Botulism

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146
Q

Treatment for Botulism

A

Adequate ventilatory support
Elimination of the organism from GIT
Trivalent Botulinum antitoxin (types A, B, E)

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147
Q

Anaerobic, gram (+), spore-forming rods; Nonmotile; Double hemolysis on Blood Agar; Growth on Egg-yolk Agar; Rapidly spreading growth on culture media; Habitat: soil and human colon

A

Clostridium perfringes

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148
Q

Caused by Alpha toxin which is a lecithinase that cleaves cell
membrane; Results from contamination of wound with soil or feces; Gas produced by anaerobic metabolism; Pain, edema & cellulitis with crepitation; Hemolysis and jaundice are common

A

Gas Gangrene (Myonecrosis)

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149
Q

Production of enterotoxin which acts as superantigen; 8-16 hour incubation period; Characterized by watery diarrhea with cramps and little vomiting; Resolves in 24 hours

A

C. perfringens Food Poisoning

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150
Q

Treatment for Gas Gangrene

A

Wound debridement

Penicillin

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151
Q

Treatment for C. perfringens Food Poisoning

A

Supportive management

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152
Q

Anaerobic, gram (+), spore-forming rods; Exotoxin in stool detected by cytopathic effect (final phase by which viral cells infect cells) on cultured cells or ELISA; Carried in the colon; Transmitted by fecal-oral route

A

Clostridium difficile

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153
Q

Antibiotics that suppress normal flora in colon, allowing C. difficile to overgrow

A

Clindamycin
2nd and 3rd Gen Cephalosporins
Ampicillin

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154
Q

Inhibit GTPases, leading to apoptosis an death of enterocytes

A

Exotoxins A and B

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155
Q

Visual result of Exotoxins A and B

A

Pseudomembranes

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156
Q

This infection can precipitate flare-ups of ______?

A

Ulcerative colitis

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157
Q

Nonbloody diarrhea associated with pseudomembranes (yellow-white plaques) on the colonic mucosa

A

Pseudomembranous Colitis

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158
Q

Can occur in Pseudomembranous colitis

A

Toxic megacolon

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159
Q

What causes Pseudomembranous pharyngitis?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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160
Q

What causes Pseudomembranous esophagitis?

A

Candida albicans

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161
Q

Drug of Choice for Pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Metronidazole

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162
Q

Aerobic, non-spore-forming, non-motile, gram (+) rods; Club or comma-shaped rods arranged in V or L shape; Look like Chinese characters; Picket fence appearance; Metachromatic granules (Babes-Ernst granules or volutin granules); Black colonies on Tellurite plate; Habitat: Human throat

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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163
Q

Toxigenicity Test for Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Elek Test

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164
Q

Exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis by adding ADP-ribose to ______

A

Elongation Factor-2 (EF-2)

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165
Q

Has ADP-ribosylating activity

A

Subunit A of EF

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166
Q

Binds the toxin to cell surface

A

Subunit B of EF

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167
Q

Exotoxin is encoded by ______?

A

Beta-prophage

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168
Q

Result from death of mucosal epithelial cells

A

Pseudomembranes

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169
Q

Prominent, thick, gray, pseudomembranes over tonsils and throat; Complications: airway obstruction, myocarditis, cranial nerve or muscle paralysis

A

Pseudomembranous pharyngitis

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170
Q

Treatment for Pseudomembranous pharyngitis?

A

Antitoxin

Penicillin G

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171
Q

Aerobic, non-spore-forming, gram (+) rods; Arranged in V or L shape; Tumbling motility; Narrow zone of beta hemolysis; Paradoxical growth in cold temp (Cold Enhancement); Habitat: GI and female GUT; Transmitted across placenta or by contact and ingestion of unpasteurized milk products

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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172
Q

Interacts with E-cadherin on the surface of cells

A

Internalin

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173
Q

Escape from phagosomes

A

Listeriolysin

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174
Q

Propels the bacteria thru the membrane of one human cell and into another

A

Actin Rockets

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175
Q

Transplacental transmission; Characterized by late miscarriage or birth; Complicated by sepsis, multiorgan abscesses and Disseminated granulomas

A

Early-onset Neonatal Listeriosis (Granulomatosis Infantiseptica)

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176
Q

Transmitted during childbirth and manifests as meningitis or meningoencephalitis

A

Late-onset Neonatal Listeriosis

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177
Q

Bacteremia, sepsis, or meningitis in pregnant, elderly or immunocompromised individuals

A

Adult Listeriosis

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178
Q

Treatment for Listeriosis

A

Ampicillin with or without Gentamicin

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179
Q

Bacteria motility: Tumbling

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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180
Q

Bacteria motility: Swarming

A

Proteus mirabilis

181
Q

Bacteria motility: Shooting-star

A

Vibrio cholerae

182
Q

Bacteria motility: Falling leaf

A

Giardia lambia

183
Q

Gram (-) diplococci, encapsulated, ferments maltose and glucose

A

Neisseria meningitidis

184
Q

Gram (-) diplococci, insignificant capsule, ferments glucose only

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

185
Q

Gram (-) “kidney-bean” diplococci; Large polysaccharide capsule; Oxidase (+) colonies on Chocolate Agar; Ferments maltose and glucose; Habitat: URT; Humans are the only natural hosts; High carriage rate in close quarters

A

Neisseria meningitidis

186
Q

Complement deficiencies in the _____ predispose to illness; Cannot form membrane-attack complexes

A

Late-acting Complement Components (C5-C9)

187
Q

Most common cause of Meningitis among aged 2-18 yrs; With headache, fever, stiff neck, and an increased level of PMNs in spinal fluid

A

Neisseria meningitidis

188
Q

Dissemination of meningococci into the bloodstream; Multiorgan disease, consumptive coagulopathy, petechial or purpuric rash (purpura fulminans)

A

Meningococcemia

189
Q

Most severe form of meningococcemia; High fever, shock, widespread purpura, DIC, thrombocytopenia and adrenal insufficiency; Bilateral hemorrhagic destruction of the adrenal glands

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

190
Q

Drug of Choice for Neisseria meningitidis

A

Penicillin G

191
Q

Neisseria meningitidis Vaccine: Contains capsular polysaccharide of _____

A

Strains A, C, Y, and W-135

192
Q

Chemoprophylaxis to close contacts

A

Rifampicin

193
Q

Gram (-) “kidney-bean” diplococci; Insignificant capsule; oxidase (+) colonies on Thayer-Martin Medium; Ferment glucose only; Habitat: human genital tract; Transmitted by sexual contact

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

194
Q

Purulent conjunctivitis in newborns

A

Ophthalmia neonatorum

195
Q

Urethritis and epididymitis in men; Most common cause of urethritis (in men)

A

Gonococcal Urethritis

196
Q

Most common cause of PID; Complications: sterility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

197
Q

Perihepatitis with violin-string adhesions

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

198
Q

Most common cause in sexually active adults; Arthritis, tenosynovitis, or pustules in the skin

A

Septic Arthritis

199
Q

DOC for Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Ceftriaxone

200
Q

DOC for N. Gonorrhoeae with co-infection with Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline

201
Q

Cause culture-negative subacute bacterial endocarditis in patients with pre-existing heart disease

A

Eikenella corrodens

Kingella kingae

202
Q

HACEK Organisms; Minor cause of Endocarditis

A 
Haemophilus aphrophilus
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Cardiobacterium hominis
Eikenella corrodens
Kingella kingae
203
Q

Dog bite Infection

A

Pasteurella multocida

204
Q

Human bite Infection

A

Eikenella corrodens

205
Q

Gram (-) rods, enriched chocolate agar, polyribitol phosphate capsule

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

206
Q

Gram (-) rods, Regan Lowe agar or Bordet-gengou agar, whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

207
Q

Gram (-) rods, poorly gram staining, silver stain, charcoal yeast agar, airconditioning

A

Legionella pneumophila

208
Q

Small, gram (-) coccobacillary rods; Requires Factor X (hemin) and V (NAD) for growth (chocolate agar); Satellite phenomenon around S. aureus colonies; Habitat: Upper Respiratory Tract

A

Haemophilus influenzae

209
Q

95% of invasive disease of H. influenzae

A

Type B (Polyribitol phosphate)

210
Q

Affects children from 6 months to 1 year; Decline in ____________

A

Maternal IgG and Immature immune system

211
Q

Most common cause of Epiglottitis; Cherry red epiglottis with Thumb sign

A

Haemophilus influenzae

212
Q

Etiology of Laryngotracheobronchitis

A

Parainfluenza virus

213
Q

Radiologic sign of laryngotracheobronchitis

A

Steeple sign

214
Q

Treatment for H. influenzae

A

Ceftriaxone

215
Q

Treatment for Laryngotracheobronchitis

A

Racimic Epinephrine

216
Q

Small, gram (-) rods; Culture on Bordet-Gengou agar or Regan-Lowe Charcoal Medium; Habitat: Upper Respiratory Tract

A

Bordetella pertussis

217
Q

Mediates attachment

A

Filamentous hemagglutinin

218
Q

Causes ADP-ribosylation and lymphocytosis

A

Pertussis Toxin

219
Q

Inhibits phagocytic activity

A

False adenylate cyclase

220
Q

Damages ciliated cells; Causes whooping

A

Tracheal cytotoxin

221
Q

Paroxysmal pattern of hacking coughs, accompanied by production of copious amounts of mucus, that end with an inspiratory “whoop”

A

Pertussis or Tuspirina

222
Q

Highest bacterial yield in Pertussis

A

Catarrhal

223
Q

DOC for Pertussis

A

Erythromycin

224
Q

Poorly gram (-) rods; Visualize with silver stain; Facultative intracellular bacteria; Culture on Charcoal yeast extract agar; Rapid urinary antigen test; Habitat: Environmental water sources

A

Legionella pneumophila

225
Q

Facultative Intracellular Bacteria

A 
Salmonella
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Listeria
Francisella
Legionella
Yersinia
226
Q

Sole virulence factor of Legionella pneumophila

A

Endotoxin

227
Q

3 Most common cause of Atypical Pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Legionella pneumophila
Chlamydia pneumoniae

228
Q

Pneumonia accompanied by confusion, nonbloody diarrhea, hyponatremia, proteinuria and hematuria

A

Atypical Pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila

229
Q

Mild, flu-like illness, “Legion of Silver Pontiac”

A

Pontiac Fever

230
Q

Drug of Choice for Legionella pneumophila

A

Azithromycin or Erythromycin

231
Q

Gram (-) rods, lactose fermenter, green sheen

A

Escherichia coli

232
Q

Gram (-) rods, lactose fermenter, urease (+), Extended spectrum Beta lactamase producer

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

233
Q

Gram (-) rods, comma-shaped, motile, oxidase (+), shooting star motility

A

Vibrio cholerae

234
Q

Gram (-) rods, comma-shaped, microaerophilic, Skirrow’s agar (Campy’s Agar)

A

Campylobacter jejuni

235
Q

Gram (-) rods, comma-shaped, urease (+), microaerophilic

A

Helicobacter pylori

236
Q

Non-lactose-fermenting, gram (-) rods, motile, oxidase (-), H2S producer

A

Salmonella spp.

237
Q

Non-lactose-fermenting, gram (-) rods, nonmotile, oxidase (-), H2S producer

A

Shigella spp.

238
Q

Non-lactose-fermenting, gram (-) rods, swarming, oxidase (-), H2S producer, urease

A

Proteus mirabilis

239
Q

Non-lactose-fermenting, gram (-) rods, oxidase (+), H2S non-producer, obligate aerobe

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

240
Q

Facultative gram (-) rods, Lactose fermenting colonies on EMB or MacConkey’s Agar; Green sheen on EMB agar; Metallic sheen; TSI aar shows acid slant and acid butt with gas but no H2S; Habitat: Human colon

A

Escherichia coli

241
Q

O antigen

A

Somatic antigen (outer membrane)

242
Q

H antigen

A

Flagellar antigen

243
Q

K antigen

A

Capsular antigen

244
Q

Enterotoxins of E. coli that cause watery diarrhea

A

HST

HLT

245
Q

Enterotoxins of E. coli that cause bloody diarrhea

A

Verotoxin (Shiga-like)

246
Q

Enterobacteriaceae MESSY SPECK

A 
Morganella
Escherichia
Shigella
Salmonella
Yersinia
Serratia
Proteus
Enterobacter
Citrobacter
Klebsiella
247
Q

Most common cause of Community-Acquired UTI and hospital-acquired

A

E. coli

248
Q

2nd most common cause of neonatal meningitis in the world (#1 in the Philippines)

A

E. coli

249
Q

Causes of Neonatal meningitis

A

B group streptococci (S. agalactiae)
Escherichia coli
Listeria monocytogenes

250
Q

ETEC: Watery diarrhea (Traveller’s Diarrhea)

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

251
Q

EPEC: Watery diarrhea of long duration, mostly in infants, often in developing countries

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli

252
Q

EHEC: Bloody diarrhea, Hemorrhagic colitis, and Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome; Eating raw hamburger; E. coli O157:H7

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

253
Q

EIEC: Bloody diarrhea

A

Enteroinvasive E. coli

254
Q

EAEC: Persistent watery diarrhea in children patients infected with HIV

A

Enteroadherent E. coli

255
Q

Treatment for E. Coli

A

Ampicillin or Sulfonamides for UTI

3rd Gen Cephalosporins for meningitis and sepsis

256
Q

Facultative gram (-) rods, non-lactose-fermenting; Producing H2S; Cultured in Xylose-Lysine-Deoxycholate (XLD) medium; Habitat: human colon only

A

Salmonella spp.

257
Q

Detects antibodies in patient’s serum

A

Widal Test

258
Q

Invasion of the epithelial and subepithelial tissue of the small and large intestines; Infectious dose is high

A

Enterocolitis (S. Enteritidis/S. typhimurium)

259
Q

Due to Vi capsular antigen; Organisms enter, multiply in Peyer’s patches and then spread to reticulo-endothelial system; Predilection for invasion of the gallbladder, which can result in establishment of the chronic carrier state

A

Typhoid Fever (S. typhi)

260
Q

Bacteremia results in the seeding of many organs, with osteomyelitis, pneumonia, and meningitis as the most common sequelae; Commonly in patients with Sickle Cell Anemia or Cancer

A

Septicemia (S. choleraesuis)

261
Q

Drug of Choice for Salmonella spp.

A

Ceftriaxone (Philippines: Amoxicillin Chloramphenicol, Cotrimoxazole)

262
Q

DOC for Salmonella in Gallbladder

A

Ampicillin

263
Q

Enteric Fever: Week 1 Culture Source

A

Blood

Bone marrow

264
Q

Enteric Fever: Week 2 Culture Source

A

Urine

265
Q

Enteric Fever: Week 3 Culture Source

A

Stool

266
Q

Enteric Fever: Week 4 Culture Source

A

Bone marrow

267
Q

Enteric Fever: Post Culture Source

A

Bile
Stool
Bone marrow

268
Q

Non-lactose-fermenting, gram (-) rods; Produce no gas from the fermentation of glucose; Do not produce H2S; Nonmotile; Cultured XLD medium; Habitat: human colon only; Transmission: fecal-oral route

A

Shigella spp.

269
Q

Shigella Transmission 4 Fs

A

Food
Fingers
Feces
Flies

270
Q

Invade the distal ileum and colon; Low infectious dose (highly infectious); Local inflammation accompanied by ulceration

A

Shigella

271
Q

Most common cause of Bacillary Dysentery

A

Shigella Sonnei-Duval’s Bacillus

272
Q

Most severe form of bacillary dysentery; Most common cause of epidemic dysentery (Bloody Diarrhea)

A

Shigella dysenteriae type 1 - Shiga Bacillus

273
Q

Some produce an enterotoxin or verotoxin

A

Shiga toxin

274
Q

Group A - Shigella dysenteriae

A

Shigella dysenteriae type1 - Shiga bacillus

Shigella dysenteriae type2 - Schmitz bacillus

275
Q

Group B - Shigella flexneri

A

Flexner’s bacillus or Hiss and Russell’s bacillus

276
Q

Group C - Shigella boydii

A

Newcastle Manchester bacillus

277
Q

Group D - Shigella sonnei

A

Duval’s bacillus

278
Q

Treatment for severe cases of Shigella Dysentery

A

Ciprofloxacin

279
Q

Comma-shaped, gram (-) rods, motile, oxidase (+), cultured on Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar; Shooting star motility; Habitat: human colon only

A

Vibrio spp.

280
Q

Enterotoxin (choleragen) acts by

A

ADP ribosylation

281
Q

Enhances attachment to the intestinal mucosa

A

Mucinase

282
Q

Pandemics caused by

A

Vibrio cholerae O1 biotype El Tor (cholera El Tor)

283
Q

Watery diarrhea in large volumes (rice-water stools); Washer women’s hand; Complications: cardiac and renal failure, non-gap acidosis, hypokalemia

A

Cholera (V. cholerae)

284
Q

Generally self-limited with an explosive onset of watery diarrhea and nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, headache and low-grade fever

A

Gastroenteritis (V. parahemolyticus, V. vulnificus)

285
Q

Associated with exposure to contaminated water

A

Wound infections (V. parahaemolyticus, V. vulnificus)

286
Q

DOC for Cholera

A

Tetracycline or Azithromycin

287
Q

Comma-shaped, gram (-) rods, microaerophilic, oxidase (+), catalase (+), grows well at 42C on Skirrows agar or Campy medium (with antibiotics); Habitat: human and animal feces

A

Campylobacter jejuni

288
Q

Most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis (from undercooked chicken); Possibly enterotoxin-mediated diarrhea; Invades mucosa of the colon but does not penetrate; Produces histologic damage to the mucosal surfaces of the jejunum; May mimic ulcerative colitis

A

Campylobacter jejuni

289
Q

Antigenic cross-reactivity between oligosaccharides in bacterial capsule and glycosphingolipids on surface of neural tissues

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

290
Q

Reactive arthritis; Triad of Urethritis, Uveitis and Arthritis

A

Reiter’s Syndrome

291
Q

Treatment for Campylobacter jejuni for severe disease

A

Erythromycin

292
Q

Curved, gram (-) rods, microaerophilic, urease (+); Habitat: human stomach

A

Helicobacter pylori

293
Q

Urease (+) Bacteria

A

Proteus mirabilis
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Helicobacter pylori
Ureaplasma urealyticum

294
Q

Damages goblet cells of the gastric mucosa; Production of large amounts of ammonia from urea by the organism’s urease; Ammonia also neutralizes stomach acid, allowing the organism to survive

A

Helicobacter pylori

295
Q

Recurrent pain in the upper abdomen, frequently accompanied by bleeding into the gastrointestinal tract

A

Peptic Ulcer Disease

296
Q

Diseases associated to Campylobacter jejuni

A

Gastric Carcinoma

MALT lymphomas

297
Q

Treatment for H. pylori infection

A

Clarithromycin or Metronidazole

Amoxicillin

298
Q

Facultative gram (-) rods with large polysaccharide capsule (bacterial conjugation); Extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) activity in drug-resistant strains; Urease (+); Habitat: Upper Respiratory and GIT

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

299
Q

Pneumonia (necrotizing) thick, bloody sputum “currant-jelly sputum”, usually nosocomial; Most common cause in alcoholics

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

300
Q

Treatment for Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

Culture-guided treatment (Cephalosporins alone or with Aminoglycosides)

301
Q

Facultative, gram (-) rods, non-lactose-fermenting, urease (+), swarming motility

A

Proteus mirabilis

302
Q

Urease hydrolyzes the urea in urine to form ammonia; Raises pH producing alkaline urine; Encourage the formation of struvite stones; Composed of magnesium-ammonia-phosphate

A

Proteus mirabilis

303
Q

UTI associated with nephrolithiasis; Staghorn calculi form on renal calyces

A

Complicated Urinary Tract Infection

304
Q

Treatment for Proteus mirabilis

A

TMP-SMX or Ampicillin

305
Q

Gram (-) rods, obligate aerobe, non-lactose-fermenting, oxidase (+), pyocyanin (blue-green pigment), sweet grape-like odor, grow on Cetrimide agar; Habitat: environmental water sources

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

306
Q

Tissue necrosis and inactivates EF-2

A

Exotoxin A

307
Q

Facilitates exotoxin transfer

A

Type III secretion system

308
Q

Damages the cilia and mucosal cells

A

Pyocyanin

309
Q

From hemoglobin breakdown

A

Verdoglobin

310
Q

Cause burn wound infections, hot tub folliculitis, skin graft-loss, green nail syndrome, puncture wound osteomyelitis, pubic osteomyelitis in IV drug abusers

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

311
Q

Most common cause of Otitis externa, Malignant otitis externa in diabetics, Chronic suppurative otitis media

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

312
Q

Ventilator-acquired pneumonia; High risk CAP; Typhlitis; Shanghai fever; ecthyma gangrenosum; februle neutropenia

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

313
Q

3rd most common cause of Nosocomial UTIs

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

314
Q

Treatment for Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Combination of active antibiotics (antipseudomonal penicillins, 3rd & 4th Gen Cephalosporins, Monobactam, Carbapenems, Fluroquinolones)

315
Q

Anaerobic, gram (-) rods, predominant anaerobe of human colon, spreads to blood or peritoneum during bowel trauma, perforation or surgery

A

Bacteriodes fragilis

316
Q

Infections commonly due to combinations if bacteria in synergistic pathogenicity; LPS with low endotoxic activity; Capsule; Foul smelling discharge; short-chain fatty acid products

A

Bacteriodes fragilis

317
Q

DOC for Bacteriodes fragilis

A

Metronidazole

318
Q

Small, gram (-) rods, without a capsule; From contaminated dairy or direct contact; Undulating Fever

A

Brucellosis

319
Q

DOC for Brucellosis

A

Doxycycline plus Rifampin

320
Q

Small, gram (-) rods; Reservoir: rabbits, deer, rodents; Transmission: ticks, aerosols, contact, ingestion; Tularemia

A

Francisella tularensis

321
Q

Treatment for Francisella tularensis

A

Streptomycin or Gentamicin

322
Q

Most virulent bacteria; small, gram (-) rods, with bipolar (safety pin) staining; Reservoir: wild rodents; Transmission: flea bite or inhalation; PE: buboes, cutaneous hemorrhage

A

Yersinia pestis

323
Q

Treatment for Bubonic, Pneumonic, and Septicemic Plague

A

Streptomycin

Tetracycline

324
Q

Short, encapsulated, gram (-) rods that exhibits bipolar staining; Buttery colonies with musty odor due to indole production; Reservoir: cats, dogs; Transmission: animal bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

325
Q

Treatment for Pasteurella multocida

A

Penicillin G

326
Q

Zoonoses

A

Brucella abortus
Francisella tularensis
Yersinia pestis
Pasteurella multocida

327
Q

Aerobic, acid-fast rods; High lipid content; Produces catalase and niacin; Slow-growing on Lowenstein-Jensen medium; Habitat: human lungs; Transmission via respiratory droplets

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

328
Q

Exported repetitive protein that prevents phagosome-lysosomal fusion

A

Sulfatides

329
Q

Most important virulence factor that prevents leukocyte migration

A

Cord Factor

330
Q

Elicits delayed hypersensitivity

A

Tuberculin surface protein

331
Q

Central area of Langhan’s giant cells surrounded by a zone of epithelioid cells

A

Granulomatous Lesions

332
Q

Granuloma surrounded by fibrous tissue that has undergone central caseation

A

Tubercle

333
Q

Usually in middle or lower lobes; Subpleural granuloma

A

Ghon’s Focus in Primary Complex

334
Q

Subpleural granuloma + associated lymph node =

A

Ghon’s complex

335
Q

Radiologically detectable calcification

A

Ranke’s complex

336
Q

Usually in apices; Cicatricial changes, subpleural blebs, cavitation, fibrosis, nodules

A

Simon’s Focus in Reactivation Tuberculosis

337
Q

Secondary colonization with A. fumigatus (fungus ball)

A

Aspergilloma

338
Q

Purified Protein Derivative Skin Test

A

> 5mm - HIV+, AIDS, old TB, immunosuppressed
10mm - high-risk population
15mm - low-risk population (In Phil: 8mm accepted)

339
Q

TB Lymphadenitis

A

Scrofula

340
Q

Spondylitis

A

Pott’s Disease

341
Q

2 or 3 smear positive

A

Smear Positive TB

342
Q

If at least 1 smear positive after another collection

A

Smear Positive TB

343
Q

If all smear negative and consistent with active TB chest x-ray

A

Smear Positive TB

344
Q

Treatment for Category 1

A

2 months HRZE and 4 months HR

345
Q

Treatment for Category 2

A

2 months HRZES & 1 month HRZE

5 months HRE

346
Q

Treatment for Category 3

A

2 months HRZE

4 months HR

347
Q

Can you name other uses of BCG vaccine aside from TB prevention?

A

For management of Intravesical Bladder Cancer

348
Q

Cause pulmonary disease in immunocompromised hosts (AIDS patients with CD4<50)

A

Mycobacterium Avium-Intracellulare Complex

349
Q

DOC of Mycobacterium Avium-Intracellulare Complex

A

Azithromycin

350
Q

Aerobic, Acid-fast rods; Can’t be cultured in vitro; Reservoir: humans and armadillos; Transmission: prolonged exposure to nasal secretions of patients with the lepromatous form

A

Mycobacterium leprae

351
Q

Tuberculoid Leprosy: Number of lesions

A

One or few

352
Q

Tuberculoid Leprosy: Tissue destruction

A

Little

353
Q

Tuberculoid Leprosy: Number of acid-fast bacilli

A

Few

354
Q

Tuberculoid Leprosy: Likelihood of transmitting leprosy

A

Low

355
Q

Tuberculoid Leprosy: Cell mediated response to M. leprae

A

Present

356
Q

Tuberculoid Leprosy: Lepromin skin test

A

Positive

357
Q

Lepromatous Leprosy: Number of lesions

A

Many lesions

358
Q

Lepromatous Leprosy: Tissue destruction

A

Marked

359
Q

Lepromatous Leprosy: Number of acid-fast bacilli

A

Many

360
Q

Lepromatous Leprosy: Likelihood of transmitting leprosy

A

High

361
Q

Lepromatous Leprosy: Cell-mediated response to M. leprae

A

Reduced or Absent

362
Q

Lepromatous Leprosy: Lepromin skin test

A

Negative

363
Q

Hypopigmented plaques, thickened superficial nerves and significant anesthesia

A

Tuberculoid Leprosy

364
Q

Leonine facies; Erythema nodosum leprosum which signals acute flare-ups of disease and are tender red nodules or humps on both shins

A

Lepromatous Leprosy

365
Q

Treatment for Tuberculoid Leprosy

A

Dapsone & Rifampin

366
Q

Treatment for Lepromatous Leprosy

A

Dapsone, Rifampin, and Clofazimine

367
Q

Treatment for Erythema nodosum leprosum

A

Thalidomide

368
Q

Associated with congenital malformation: Focomelia (flipper-like limbs)

A

Thalidomide

369
Q

Anaerobe (normal oral flora); Setting: local trauma (broken jaw or dental extraction); PE: hard, nontender swelling with sinus tracts draining

A

Actinomyces israelii

370
Q

Aerobic, filamentous, gram (+) rods with aerial hyphae; weakly acid-fast (Fite-Faraco Stain); Transmission: inhalation of particles from soil; Manifests as mycetomas and lung and brain abscesses (orange colonies)

A

Nocardia asteroides

371
Q

Treatment for Nocardiosis

A

TMP-SMX + drainage

372
Q

Smallest free-living organisms; Not seen on gram stain; No cell wall; Only bacteria with cholesterol in cell membrane; Cultured in Eaton’s medium; Habitat: human respiratory tract

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

373
Q

Attachment, inhibition of ciliary motion and necrosis; Toll-like receptor 2 protein

A

P1 adhesin

374
Q

Contributes to the damage to the respiratory tract cells

A

Hydrogen peroxide

375
Q

Most common type of atypical pneumonia or walking pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

376
Q

Most common infectious cause for Steven-Johnson Syndrome

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

377
Q

DOC for Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Erythromycin or Azithromycin

378
Q

Coiled spirochete; Not seen on gram stain because too thin; Cannot be cultured in vitro; Microaerophilic; Habitat: Human Genital Tract

A

Treponema pallidum

379
Q

Within hours, enters lymphatics and multiplies; Local, nontender ulcer (chancre) usually forms in 2-10 weeks

A

Primary Syphilis

380
Q

Condyloma lata, maculopapular rash, fever, headache, malaise, anorexia, lymphadenopathy; Occurs after 1 to 3 months

A

Secondary Syphilis

381
Q

Many years after inoculation; Clinical spectrum: granulomas (gummas), neurosyphilis

A

Tertiary Syphilis

382
Q

Neurosyphilis: Prostitute’s pupil

A

Argyll-Robertson Pupil

383
Q

Snuffles/saddle nose; mulberry molars; Hutchinson triad; saber shins; rhagades; clutton’s joints; pulmonary hemorrhage

A

Congenital Syphilis

384
Q

Unilateral enlargement of the sternoclavicular portion of the clavicle

A

Higoumenakis sign

385
Q

Most important diagnostic test for Primary Syphilis

A

Dark Field Microscopy

386
Q

For Screening of Syphilis

A

Rapid Plasma Reagin

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (RPR/VDRL)

387
Q

For confirmatory test for Syphilis

A

Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody-Absorption (FTA-ABS)

388
Q

False Positive VDRL Results

A

Viruses
Drugs
Rheumatic Fever, Rheumatoid arthritis
Lupus, Leprosy

389
Q

Treatment for Syphilis

A

Benzathine Penicillin G

390
Q

Influenza-like symptoms few hours after receiving Penicillin, due to Lysis of Treponemes

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction

391
Q

Weakly staining, gram (-) spirochetes; Largest medically-important bacteria; Stain well with aniline dyes (Giemsa or Wright Stain); Cultured on BSK medium; From bite of deer ticks (Ixodes scapularis)

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

392
Q

Stage 1 of Lyme Disease

A

Erythema Chronicum Migrans

393
Q

Stage 2 of Lyme Disease

A

Myocarditis (AV block), meningitis, Bell’s palsy

394
Q

Stage 3 of Lyme Disease

A

Autoimmune migratory polyartjritis (onion skin lesions), acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans

395
Q

Lyme Disease

A

Bell’s Palsy
Arthritis
Cardiac block
Erythema chronicum migrans

396
Q

DOC for Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Doxycycline

397
Q

Rapid antigenic changes due to programmed rearrangements of bacterial DNA encoding surface proteins; Transmitted: human body louse (Pediculus humanus)

A

Relapsing Fever (Borrelia recurrentis)

398
Q

Thin, coiled spirochetes, hook at one or both pointed ends (Shepherd’s Crook); Obligate aerobe, grown on Ellinghausen-McCullough-Johnson-Harris (EMJH) medium or Fletcher’s medium; Habitat: wild and domestic animals

A

Leptospira interrogans

399
Q

Hallmark lesion of Leptospira interrogans

A

Vasculitis

400
Q

Gold Standard Diagnostic For Leptospira interrogans

A

Leptospire microscopic agglutination test (lepto MAT)

401
Q

Fever, chills, intense headache, calf tenderness, conjunctival suffusion

A

Acute Leptospiremic Phase

402
Q

Aseptic meningitis, pulmonary involvement, hepatic necrosis, glomerulonephritis, snow-flake lesions in chest x-ray, CSF pleocytosis

A

Immune Leptospiruric Phase

403
Q

Most severe form of Leptospirosis; Triad: Jaundice, Bleeding, Uremia; Orange cast skin; Most common cause of death is respiratory failure due to massive pulmonary hemorrhage

A

Weil Syndrome

404
Q

Treatment for Leptospira interrogans

A

Penicillin G

405
Q

Obligate intracellular bacteria; Energy parasites that use host ATP; Cell wall lacks muramic acid; Grown in cycloheximide culture; Cytoplasmic inclusions in Giemsa

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

406
Q

Inactive, extracellular; Enters cells by endocytosis

A

Elemental Body

407
Q

Metabolically active, intracellular; Seen microscopically

A

Reticulate Body

408
Q

Most common STD overall

A

Chlamydia

409
Q

Chronic keratoconjunctivitis progressing to scarring and blindness

A

Trachoma

410
Q

Most common cause of Infectious Blindness

A

Chlamydia trachomatis types A-C

411
Q

Round to oval cytoplasmic inclusion bodies near the nuclei of conjunctival epithelial cells in trachoma

A

Halberstadter-Prowazek Inclusions

412
Q

Trachoma A, B, C

A

Africa
Blindness
Chronic infection

413
Q

Striking tachypnea, characteristic paroxysmal cough (Staccato cough), absence of fever, eosinophilia

A

Chlamydia trachomatis types D-K

414
Q

Papule or vesicular which ulcerates and leads to suppurative inguinal lymphadenitis (buboes)

A

Chlamydia trachomatis types L1-L3

415
Q

Intradermal injection of antigen of C. trachomatis

A

Positive Frei Test

416
Q

Initiate lesion development or cause exacerbation of lesions; higher titers of Anti-C. pneumoniae antibodies

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae (Atypical pneumonia)

417
Q

Sudden onset pneumonia with malaise, fever, anorexia, sore throat, photophobia, and severe headache

A

Psittacosis or Bird Fancier’s Disease (Chlamydia psittaci)

418
Q

Treatment of STD (Chlamydia psittaci)

A

Azithromycin

419
Q

Treatment of Conjunctivitis (Chlamydia psittaci)

A

Erythromycin

420
Q

Treatment of LGV

A

Doxycycline

421
Q

Treatment of Psittacosis

A

Azithromycin

422
Q

DOC for all Rickettsial infections

A

Doxycycline

423
Q

Disease caused by Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

424
Q

Disease caused by Rickettsia akari

A

Rickettsial pox

425
Q

Disease caused by Rickettsia prowazekii

A

Epidemic typhus

426
Q

Disease caused by Rickettsia typhi

A

Endemic typhus

427
Q

Disease caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi

A

Scrub typhus

428
Q

Disease caused by Coxiella burnetti

A

Q fever

429
Q

Disease caused by Ehrlichia chaffeensis

A

Ehrlichiosis

430
Q

Vector of Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Tick

431
Q

Vector of Rickettsia akari

A

Mites (chiggers)

432
Q

Vector of Rickettsia prowazekii

A

Body louse

433
Q

Vector of Rickettsia typhi

A

Rat flea

434
Q

Vector of Orientia tsutsugamushi

A

Mites (chiggers)

435
Q

Vector of Coxiella burnetti

A

None

436
Q

Vector of Ehrlichia chaffeensis

A

Ticks

437
Q

Incubation period of Rickettsia rickettsii

A

7

438
Q

Incubation period of Rickettsia akari

A

9-14

439
Q

Incubation period of Rickettsia prowazekii

A

8

440
Q

Incubation period of Rickettsia typhi

A

7-14

441
Q

Incubation period of Orientia tsutsugamushi

A

10-12

442
Q

Incubation period of Coxiella burnetti

A

4-90

443
Q

Incubation period of Ehrlichia chaffeensis

A

7-21

444
Q

Rickettsial infection with eschar

A

Rickettsial pox

445
Q

Gram (-) rod, Normal oral flora of cats, “cat-scratch fever”, bacillary angiomatosis, transmission: cat bite or scratch

A

Cat Scratch Disease

446
Q

Dog reservoir, Transmission: dog tick (Dermacentor) bite, forms morulae in cytoplasm of monocytes

A

Ehrlichiosis (Ehrlichia chaffeensis)

447
Q

Facultative gram-variable rod; Clue cells present; Positive whiff test (fishy odor); Malodorous vaginal discharge

A

Bacterial vaginosis (Gardnerella vaginalis)

448
Q

Small gram (-) rod, culture on chocolate agar with heme (factor X); painful genital ulcer

A

Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)

449
Q

Gram (-) rods, reservoir: domestic animals, transmission: oro-fecal route

A

Mesenteric Adenitis or Pseudoappendicitis (Yersinia enterocolitica)

450
Q

Encapsulated, pleomorphic gram (-) bacillus, bipolar densities (Donovan bodies) look like closed safety pins, small painless papule ulcerates to form beefy red ulcer with velvety surface, pseudobuboe formation

A

Granuloma inguinale (Donovanosis) Klebsiella granulomatis

451
Q

Treatment for Klebsiella granulomatis or Donovanosis

A

Azithromycin

Microbiology (8 decks)

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