Vet Nursing Final Flashcards
When a flap of skin is torn away but still attached, aka degloving injury
Avulsion
What are the 3 phases of healing?
Inflammatory, proliferative, maturation
Healing phase that begins immediately after injury, platelets aggregate forming blood clot, and macrophages and neutrophils begin removing bacteria
Inflammatory phase
The first 3-5 days after an injury are known as “lag phase” which occur during ______ phase
Inflammatory phase
Occurs when surgical incision or wound reopens, most like occurs within 3-5 days or the ______ phase
Dehiscense, inflammatory
This healing phase begins 2-3 days after injury and may continue for several weeks, overlaps inflammatory phase
Proliferative
When does granulation begin to fill a wound?
3-5 days after injury
Fibroblasts deposit ____ to strengthen the wound
collagen
Epithelialization begins ____ days over healthy granulation tissue
4-5 days
When does contraction of a wound begin?
Begins in 1 week
Phase begins at appx 3 weeks and can last weeks/months/years, collagen fibers form and fill the wound creating a scar
Maturation phse
What is primary or first intention healing?
Clean, minor wounds. Tissues can be pulled togethr and sutured or stapled with no complication
Wounds older than 6-8 hours, treated as an open wound and then closed surgically. Closure must occur before granulation appears
Delayed primary closure
Healing when a wound is left open and allowed to heal from the inner areas to outer surface, results in scar formation
Second-intention healing
Wound is left open for 3-5 days to allow granulation tissue to form and then surgically repaired.
Combination of 1st and 2nd intention healing, open healing followed by closure.
Third-intention healing
3 considerations for wound management
Cleansing, closing, covering
Chlorhexidine and povidine-iodine are ______ _____
surgical scrubs
Removal of necrotic tissue and foreign debris
Wound debridement
Penrose drain is a ____ drain that uses capillary action
Passive
Closed suction drain that works as wound vac is a ____ drain
Active drain
Blood sample that is low pressure and deoxygenated blood
Venous
Blood sample that is high pressure and oxygenated
Arterial
For venipuncture the needle is placed at a ____ degree angle just ____ to the vein
25 degree angle lateral to the vein
Peripheral capillary blood samples are used to check for blood parasites and are collected from ____ ___ and _____ _____
Marginal ear and nail trims
Arterial blood samples are collected from ____ artery or ____ artery
Femoral or dorsal metatarsal artery
Arterial blood samples are used to evaluate ____ ____ and _____ status
Acid base and respiratory
Collapsed lung caused that may be caused by pulmonary disease, scarring of lung, infections, tumors and foreign objects
Atelectasis
Rare disease, with flu-like symptoms, spread by contact with blood, urine, semen, milk and tissues
Canine brucellosis
Zoonotic disease spread via fecal/oral route
Campylobacter and salmonella
Disease spread via contact with infected urine
Leptospirosis
Opthalmic condition associated with intraocular pressure
Glaucoma
Glaucoma is considered a medical _____ as delay may cause permanent damage
Emergency
Nonhereditary causes of cataracts
Diabetes mellitus, inflammation, trauma
Only effective treatment for cataracts
removal of lens
Characterized by inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva
Keratoconjunctivitis “Dry eye”
Characterized by fluid backup into the lungs (pulmonary edema) and pleural effusion in cats
Left sided heart failure
Characterized by congestion in the thoracic and abdominal cavities
Right sided heart failure
Edema jugular distention, abdominal distension, hepatomegaly, pleural and pericardial effusion are all signs of ____ ____ heart failure
Right sided
Patients with right sided heart failure should be stabilized with _____, ____ and the removal of effusion
Oxygen and diuretics
Most frequently diagnosed form of heart disease in the dog
Mitral insufficiency
Clinical signs of mitral insufficiency
cough, pulmonary edema, dyspnea
What breed of dog are predisposed to mitral insufficiency?
Miniature Poodles
Most common cardiomyopathy in felines
HCM (Hypertrophic)
Most common cardiomyopathy in dogs
Dilated (DCM)
Cardiomyopathy associated with Boxers
arrythmogenic right ventricular
Cardiomyopathy secondary to feline hyperthyroidism
Ventricular hypertrophy
Cardiomyopathy secondary to canine parvo virus
DCM
Disorder caused by excessive adrenal cortex production, appearance is often pot bellied, muscle wasting, alopecia
Cushing’s disease (Hyperadrenocorticism)
Disorder caused by deficient adrenal cortex function,
Addison’s disease (Hypoadrenocorticism)
Emergency- severe insulin deficiency
Ketoacidosis
Common signs of hyperthyroidism
Weight loss, increased appetite, PU/PD, V/D
Signs of hypothyroidism
Decreased metabolic- weight gain
poor haircoat, lethargy, “Heat seeking”
Uterine disease of immediate postpartum period
metritis
Occurs 2-3 weeks postpartum often in small bitches with large litters
Eclampsia (Hypocalcemia)
Formula for RER
30 X ideal weight in kg +70
___________________ tubes are used short term to administer medications and nutritional support, patient should swallow, NOT cough
Nasogastric/nasoesophogeal
Placement of this tube requires sedation, placed in the mid cervical esophagus on left side of neck. Measure from midcervical to 7th rib
Esophagastomy tube
Patients tolerate _______ tubes better than _______ tubes because there is less irritation and less likely to become dislodges or induce emesis
Esophagastomy tubes better tolerated than pharyngostomy tubes
Length of this tube is measured to the 13th rib, and used often for admin of charcoal for toxicity, medication, food, etc.
Orogastric tube
Given, the decreased tolerance for sodium load in patients with heart disease, What type of fluids would be ideal in patients with heart disease
Hypotonic solutions (5%Dextrose in water, .45% NaCl, Normosol-M)
0.9% NaCl has _____ effects
Acidifying
Balanced electrolyte solutions containing sodium bicarbonate precursors have _____ effects
Alkalinizing
What route of administration not be used for patients with severe compromise from dehydration, hypotension, or electrolyte imbalance
SQ
To avoid adverse cardiac effects, potassium should not be administered IV at a rate faster than ____ mEq/kg/hr
0.5
Cats in shock often present with _______
Bradycardia
Animals that present with _____ shock often have bounding pulse, bright red mm and fever
septic shock
Drugs that are safe to administer through an endotracheal tube
N-Naloxone
A- Atropine
V-Vasopressin
E-Epinephrine
L-Lidocaine
The blood pressure cuff width should be appx ____% of the circumference of the limb being used
40%
Atrial fibrillation is identified by lack of _____ _____ and the presence of fibrillatory waves, usually a fast, irregular rythm with supraventricular (normal) QRS
P Waves
Because of the consequences of gastric rupture, ________ intubation should be performed in all patients being examined for abdominal pain
Nasogastric
Epistaxis is a common occurrence after removal or passage of a ______ tube
Nasogastric tube
Copious amounts of a warm ____ _____ fluid are best for effective wound lavage (give examples)
Isotonic crystalloid (LRS, Normal saline)
Distal limb bandages are not appropriate for fractures ______ the elbow or stufle because they can not effectively immobilize injuries
Above the elbow or stifle
Non-weight bearing sling applied to pelvic limb to protect the hip joint after injury
Ehmer sling
Non weight bearing slings should not be maintained for longer than ____ weeks to prevent muscle and joint contracture
2-3 weeks
Non-weight bearing sling for forelimb
Valpeau
The _______ , term that describes the attachment structures of the teeth, include gingival connective tissue, alveolar bone, periodontal ligament, and cementum
Periodontium
The ultrasonic scaler tip should never be directed at a ____ degree angle toward the tooth surface as it will cause damage to the enamel
90 degree
Scalers are designed to be used on the ____ ____ while curettes are designed to be used _____
Tooth crown, subgingivally
This stage of periodontal disease is characterized by inflammatory changes confined to the gingiva and is easily reversible
Grade 1
This stage of periodontal disease is characterized by 25-50% loss of attachment; root debridement, gingival curettae and periodontal surgery are often required. Severe gingivitis upon probing, red-purple rounded gingival margin, early periodontal pocket formation
Grade 3
This stage of periodontal disease is characterized increased gingival inflammation causes rounded gingival margin, moderate amount of gingivitis
Grade 2
Term for when the upper jaw is longer than the lower jaw (overshot)
Brachygnathism
Term for when the mandible is longer than the maxilla (underbite)
Prognathism
Initiating factor of periodontal disease
Bacterial plaque
Tooth mobility, Grade 1
Slight tooth movement
Tooth mobility, Grade 2
Moderate teeth movement of 1 mm
Tooth mobility, Grade 3
Marked tooth movement of more than 1 mm
When polishing a tooth never stay on one tooth longer than ___ seconds, and when using ultrasonic scaler no longer than ___ seconds
5 seconds
10-15 seconds
