Vet Nursing Final Flashcards

1
Q

When a flap of skin is torn away but still attached, aka degloving injury

A

Avulsion

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2
Q

What are the 3 phases of healing?

A

Inflammatory, proliferative, maturation

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3
Q

Healing phase that begins immediately after injury, platelets aggregate forming blood clot, and macrophages and neutrophils begin removing bacteria

A

Inflammatory phase

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4
Q

The first 3-5 days after an injury are known as “lag phase” which occur during ______ phase

A

Inflammatory phase

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5
Q

Occurs when surgical incision or wound reopens, most like occurs within 3-5 days or the ______ phase

A

Dehiscense, inflammatory

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6
Q

This healing phase begins 2-3 days after injury and may continue for several weeks, overlaps inflammatory phase

A

Proliferative

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7
Q

When does granulation begin to fill a wound?

A

3-5 days after injury

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8
Q

Fibroblasts deposit ____ to strengthen the wound

A

collagen

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9
Q

Epithelialization begins ____ days over healthy granulation tissue

A

4-5 days

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10
Q

When does contraction of a wound begin?

A

Begins in 1 week

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11
Q

Phase begins at appx 3 weeks and can last weeks/months/years, collagen fibers form and fill the wound creating a scar

A

Maturation phse

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12
Q

What is primary or first intention healing?

A

Clean, minor wounds. Tissues can be pulled togethr and sutured or stapled with no complication

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13
Q

Wounds older than 6-8 hours, treated as an open wound and then closed surgically. Closure must occur before granulation appears

A

Delayed primary closure

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14
Q

Healing when a wound is left open and allowed to heal from the inner areas to outer surface, results in scar formation

A

Second-intention healing

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15
Q

Wound is left open for 3-5 days to allow granulation tissue to form and then surgically repaired.

Combination of 1st and 2nd intention healing, open healing followed by closure.

A

Third-intention healing

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16
Q

3 considerations for wound management

A

Cleansing, closing, covering

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17
Q

Chlorhexidine and povidine-iodine are ______ _____

A

surgical scrubs

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18
Q

Removal of necrotic tissue and foreign debris

A

Wound debridement

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19
Q

Penrose drain is a ____ drain that uses capillary action

A

Passive

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20
Q

Closed suction drain that works as wound vac is a ____ drain

A

Active drain

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21
Q

Blood sample that is low pressure and deoxygenated blood

A

Venous

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22
Q

Blood sample that is high pressure and oxygenated

A

Arterial

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23
Q

For venipuncture the needle is placed at a ____ degree angle just ____ to the vein

A

25 degree angle lateral to the vein

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24
Q

Peripheral capillary blood samples are used to check for blood parasites and are collected from ____ ___ and _____ _____

A

Marginal ear and nail trims

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25
Q

Arterial blood samples are collected from ____ artery or ____ artery

A

Femoral or dorsal metatarsal artery

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26
Q

Arterial blood samples are used to evaluate ____ ____ and _____ status

A

Acid base and respiratory

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27
Q

Collapsed lung caused that may be caused by pulmonary disease, scarring of lung, infections, tumors and foreign objects

A

Atelectasis

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28
Q

Rare disease, with flu-like symptoms, spread by contact with blood, urine, semen, milk and tissues

A

Canine brucellosis

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29
Q

Zoonotic disease spread via fecal/oral route

A

Campylobacter and salmonella

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30
Q

Disease spread via contact with infected urine

A

Leptospirosis

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31
Q

Opthalmic condition associated with intraocular pressure

A

Glaucoma

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32
Q

Glaucoma is considered a medical _____ as delay may cause permanent damage

A

Emergency

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33
Q

Nonhereditary causes of cataracts

A

Diabetes mellitus, inflammation, trauma

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34
Q

Only effective treatment for cataracts

A

removal of lens

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35
Q

Characterized by inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva

A

Keratoconjunctivitis “Dry eye”

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36
Q

Characterized by fluid backup into the lungs (pulmonary edema) and pleural effusion in cats

A

Left sided heart failure

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37
Q

Characterized by congestion in the thoracic and abdominal cavities

A

Right sided heart failure

38
Q

Edema jugular distention, abdominal distension, hepatomegaly, pleural and pericardial effusion are all signs of ____ ____ heart failure

A

Right sided

39
Q

Patients with right sided heart failure should be stabilized with _____, ____ and the removal of effusion

A

Oxygen and diuretics

40
Q

Most frequently diagnosed form of heart disease in the dog

A

Mitral insufficiency

41
Q

Clinical signs of mitral insufficiency

A

cough, pulmonary edema, dyspnea

42
Q

What breed of dog are predisposed to mitral insufficiency?

A

Miniature Poodles

43
Q

Most common cardiomyopathy in felines

A

HCM (Hypertrophic)

44
Q

Most common cardiomyopathy in dogs

A

Dilated (DCM)

45
Q

Cardiomyopathy associated with Boxers

A

arrythmogenic right ventricular

46
Q

Cardiomyopathy secondary to feline hyperthyroidism

A

Ventricular hypertrophy

47
Q

Cardiomyopathy secondary to canine parvo virus

A

DCM

48
Q

Disorder caused by excessive adrenal cortex production, appearance is often pot bellied, muscle wasting, alopecia

A

Cushing’s disease (Hyperadrenocorticism)

49
Q

Disorder caused by deficient adrenal cortex function,

A

Addison’s disease (Hypoadrenocorticism)

50
Q

Emergency- severe insulin deficiency

A

Ketoacidosis

51
Q

Common signs of hyperthyroidism

A

Weight loss, increased appetite, PU/PD, V/D

52
Q

Signs of hypothyroidism

A

Decreased metabolic- weight gain

poor haircoat, lethargy, “Heat seeking”

53
Q

Uterine disease of immediate postpartum period

A

metritis

54
Q

Occurs 2-3 weeks postpartum often in small bitches with large litters

A

Eclampsia (Hypocalcemia)

55
Q

Formula for RER

A

30 X ideal weight in kg +70

56
Q

___________________ tubes are used short term to administer medications and nutritional support, patient should swallow, NOT cough

A

Nasogastric/nasoesophogeal

57
Q

Placement of this tube requires sedation, placed in the mid cervical esophagus on left side of neck. Measure from midcervical to 7th rib

A

Esophagastomy tube

58
Q

Patients tolerate _______ tubes better than _______ tubes because there is less irritation and less likely to become dislodges or induce emesis

A

Esophagastomy tubes better tolerated than pharyngostomy tubes

59
Q

Length of this tube is measured to the 13th rib, and used often for admin of charcoal for toxicity, medication, food, etc.

A

Orogastric tube

60
Q

Given, the decreased tolerance for sodium load in patients with heart disease, What type of fluids would be ideal in patients with heart disease

A

Hypotonic solutions (5%Dextrose in water, .45% NaCl, Normosol-M)

61
Q

0.9% NaCl has _____ effects

A

Acidifying

62
Q

Balanced electrolyte solutions containing sodium bicarbonate precursors have _____ effects

A

Alkalinizing

63
Q

What route of administration not be used for patients with severe compromise from dehydration, hypotension, or electrolyte imbalance

A

SQ

64
Q

To avoid adverse cardiac effects, potassium should not be administered IV at a rate faster than ____ mEq/kg/hr

A

0.5

65
Q

Cats in shock often present with _______

A

Bradycardia

66
Q

Animals that present with _____ shock often have bounding pulse, bright red mm and fever

A

septic shock

67
Q

Drugs that are safe to administer through an endotracheal tube

A

N-Naloxone

A- Atropine

V-Vasopressin

E-Epinephrine

L-Lidocaine

68
Q

The blood pressure cuff width should be appx ____% of the circumference of the limb being used

A

40%

69
Q

Atrial fibrillation is identified by lack of _____ _____ and the presence of fibrillatory waves, usually a fast, irregular rythm with supraventricular (normal) QRS

A

P Waves

70
Q

Because of the consequences of gastric rupture, ________ intubation should be performed in all patients being examined for abdominal pain

A

Nasogastric

71
Q

Epistaxis is a common occurrence after removal or passage of a ______ tube

A

Nasogastric tube

72
Q

Copious amounts of a warm ____ _____ fluid are best for effective wound lavage (give examples)

A

Isotonic crystalloid (LRS, Normal saline)

73
Q

Distal limb bandages are not appropriate for fractures ______ the elbow or stufle because they can not effectively immobilize injuries

A

Above the elbow or stifle

74
Q

Non-weight bearing sling applied to pelvic limb to protect the hip joint after injury

A

Ehmer sling

75
Q

Non weight bearing slings should not be maintained for longer than ____ weeks to prevent muscle and joint contracture

A

2-3 weeks

76
Q

Non-weight bearing sling for forelimb

A

Valpeau

77
Q

The _______ , term that describes the attachment structures of the teeth, include gingival connective tissue, alveolar bone, periodontal ligament, and cementum

A

Periodontium

78
Q

The ultrasonic scaler tip should never be directed at a ____ degree angle toward the tooth surface as it will cause damage to the enamel

A

90 degree

79
Q

Scalers are designed to be used on the ____ ____ while curettes are designed to be used _____

A

Tooth crown, subgingivally

80
Q

This stage of periodontal disease is characterized by inflammatory changes confined to the gingiva and is easily reversible

A

Grade 1

81
Q

This stage of periodontal disease is characterized by 25-50% loss of attachment; root debridement, gingival curettae and periodontal surgery are often required. Severe gingivitis upon probing, red-purple rounded gingival margin, early periodontal pocket formation

A

Grade 3

82
Q

This stage of periodontal disease is characterized increased gingival inflammation causes rounded gingival margin, moderate amount of gingivitis

A

Grade 2

83
Q

Term for when the upper jaw is longer than the lower jaw (overshot)

A

Brachygnathism

84
Q

Term for when the mandible is longer than the maxilla (underbite)

A

Prognathism

85
Q

Initiating factor of periodontal disease

A

Bacterial plaque

86
Q

Tooth mobility, Grade 1

A

Slight tooth movement

87
Q

Tooth mobility, Grade 2

A

Moderate teeth movement of 1 mm

88
Q

Tooth mobility, Grade 3

A

Marked tooth movement of more than 1 mm

89
Q

When polishing a tooth never stay on one tooth longer than ___ seconds, and when using ultrasonic scaler no longer than ___ seconds

A

5 seconds

10-15 seconds

90
Q
A