CPR/ECG Flashcards

1
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

Failure to pump - heart failure

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2
Q

What is distributive shock?

A

Flow maldistribution

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3
Q

What causes distributive shock?

A

Trauma, anaphylaxis, heat stroke, sepsis

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4
Q

What medical conditions are associated with obstructive shock?

A

Heartworm Disease, GDV

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5
Q

What is the most commonly seen shock?

A

Hypovolemic shock

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6
Q

What causes hypovolemic shock?

A

Blood/Fluid loss

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7
Q

What are the elements of the history gathered in cases of shock?

A

A-Allergies

M- Medications

P - Past medical histroy

E- Events

L- Lasts (last meal, last BM, last urination)

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8
Q

What are the components of an initial assesment in cases of shock?

A

Vitals

Level of conciousness

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9
Q

What is the first phase of shock?

A

Hyperdynamic

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10
Q

What is the second phase of shock?

A

Hypodynamic

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11
Q

What symptoms are associated with hyperdynamic shock?

A

Tachycardia, tachypnea, brick red m.m., rapid CRT, bounding pulse

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12
Q

What symptoms are associated with hypodynamic shock?

A

Weak abnormal pulses, pale and prolonged mm, hypothermia, weakness, depression, loss of conciousness

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13
Q

Cats in septic shock present with what?

A

Bradyardia

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14
Q

What are the components of shock treatment?

A

Oxygen therapy

Venous access

Fluid resuscitation

Drugs

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15
Q

What are some signs of impending collapse?

A

Cyanosis

Poor perfusion (prolonged CRT)

Irregular/absent heart sounds

Abnormal breathing patterns / Apnea

Fixed and dilated pupils

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16
Q

What two organs are we most concerned with in Basic Life Support situations?

A

Heart and Brain

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17
Q

What is the “CAB” of resuscitation?

A

Circulation

Airway

Breathing

18
Q

How do you perform CPR on small dogs/cats?

A
  1. Use direct compression
  2. Right lateral recumbency, squeeze thorax and compress chest wall 1/2 - 1/3 inch with a rate of 100 per minute
  3. Artificial ventilations should be given at a rate of 10 breaths per minute (1 breath per 6 compressions)
19
Q

If administering CRP alone what is the process?

A

Do 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths, mouth to snout.

20
Q

What breed of dogs must be in dorsal recumbency for CPR?

A

Bulldogs

21
Q

What is the depth of compression to be used for average size dogs?

A

2-3 inches

22
Q

What is the compression to breath ratio for large breed dogs?

A

15:1

23
Q

What are interposed abdominal compressions?

A

When the abdomen is compressed during the recoil phase of chest compressions

Enhances venous return to the heart

24
Q

What complications are associated with interposed abdominal compressions?

A

Organ contusions (liver)

Hemoabdomen

25
Q

What are the signs of partial obstruction?

A

Difficulty breathing on inspiration

Cyanosis

26
Q

What are the signs of total airway obstruction?

A

No airway sounds

Chest does not move or expand

27
Q

If no spontaneous respirations are occurring what should be done?

A

Administer 100% oxygen to patient

28
Q

What 3 conditions require immediate attention?

A

Respiratory arrest

Circulatory failure

Severe bleeding - catastrophic hemorrhaging

29
Q

Failure to achieve effective ventilation may lead to acidosis and hypoxemia which may then lead to:

A

Cardiovascular dysfunction

Hypotension

Circulatory collapse

30
Q

Under hypoxemia and acidosis which muscles function poorly?

A

Cardiac and vascular smooth muscles

31
Q

Intratracheal administration is recommended for all drugs except what, and why?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

Inactivates lung surfactant which leads to decreased lung function

32
Q

What is monitored during post-resuscitative care?

A

Pulse

ECG

Respirations

Body temp

CNS signs

33
Q

What occurs during the P wave?

A

Atria are depolarizing (contracting)

34
Q

What occurs during the QRS complex?

A

Ventricular depolarization (contracting)

35
Q

What occurs during the T wave?

A

Ventricular repolarization

36
Q

What are the 3 main ECG rythms in CPR?

A

Ventricular Asystole

Electromechanical dissociation (EMD)

Ventricular Fibrillation

37
Q

What occurs during ventricular asystole?

A

No mechanical or electrical activity (flat line)

38
Q

What is administered during ventricular asystole?

A

Epinephrine and patient is defibrillated

39
Q

What is EMD?

A

Electrical activity without corresponding mechanical heart contraction. (slow rhythm with bizarre wide QRS complexes with a slow rate)

40
Q

What is usually associated with EMD?

A

Massive pump destruction or free wall rupture

41
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation?

A

Uncoordinated ventricular contraction which results in ineffective cardiac output

Heart is severely damaged

42
Q

What should never be used with electrical defibrillators?

A

Alcohol- risk of fire