VENI VIDI VICI Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnostic criteria- Lewy Dementia

A

Central: Progressive decline in cognition - dementia + >= 2 of the following: Core: 1. Fluctuation in cognition 2. Visual hallucinations 3. Spontaneous parkinsonism features 4. rREM sleep behavior disorder (Dream enactment). THYE HAYVE ANIPSYCHOTIC HYPERSENSITIVITY

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2
Q

Most common causes of Dementia

A

1st is AD, 2nd Lewy Body ( survival time after diagnosis is 8 years)

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3
Q

Tto for lewy dementia

A

Donepezil (Cognition), Carbidopa-levodopa (Parkinsonism), Melatonin(rEM disorder), Antispychotic( Hallucinations- BUT MAY WORSEN CONFUSION, PARKINSONISM AND AUTONOMIC DYSFUNCTION

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4
Q

Patient with Lew Dementia treated with Donepezil, Carbidopa-Levodopa, and Risperidone, that comes with worsening confusion

A

They have antipsychotic hypersensitivity- may worsen the confusion, parkinsonism, orthostatic changes. IF ANTIPSYCHOTIC NEEDED TRY QUETIAPINE (risk is lower). In addition to worsening confusion, antipsychotics are associated with increased mortality in patients with dementia

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5
Q

Brain death algorithm

A

say it

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6
Q

why can brain death pts have some movements

A

because these originate for peripheral nerveso spinal cords

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7
Q

Transverse myelitis

A

Progressive lower extremity weakness, urinary retention, loss of sensation in the setting of URI

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8
Q

RF for Tunnel Syndrome

A

Obesity, Pregnancy, DM, Hypothyroidism, RA

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9
Q

Dx Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

A

Nerve conduction studies

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10
Q

Tto Carpal Tunnel syndrome

A

wrist splint, glucocorticoid injection,

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11
Q

the striatal dopamine transporter scan

A

imaging that can be considered when Parkinson disease diagnosis in unequivocal

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12
Q

TTO Parkinson

A

If < 60 and mild Pramipexole or Bromocriptine. For odler levodopa carbidopa.

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13
Q

Traumatic LP

A

Often has > 6000 RBCs. iT may also elevate WBCs usually 1 per 750-1000. If WBC/RBC< 0.01 is less likely that is meningitis

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14
Q

SAH vs traumatic LP

A

Xantochromia is seen with SAH

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15
Q

Amaurosis fugax

A

Is a marker of carotid artery atherosclerosis - Carotid bruit indicates obstruction

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16
Q

Triad of SAH

A

Sudden onset headache, nausea, nuchal rigidity- often due to aneurysm rupture ( can be posterior cerebral artery causing compressinon of third nerve -diplopia- can also have anisocoria, proptosis)

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17
Q

Brainstem glioma

A

Has more brainstem involvement , multiple CN involvement , ataxia, motor and sensory involvement

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18
Q

Patient with DVT that 2 days after develops hemiparesis and Facial paralysis

A

Paradoxical embolism- Transesophageal echocardiogram

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19
Q

Meningovascular syphilis

A

low grade infection in the subarachnoid space can affect intracranial vessels and cause stroke

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20
Q

Stroke in young- Cardiac causes

A

Patent foramen ovale, congenital heart disease, arrhythmia

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21
Q

Stroke in young Heme causes

A

HIT, Sickle cell anemia, inherited hypercoagulable disorders

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22
Q

Stroke in young- Infectious causes

A

Meningovascular syphilis, Endocarditis, TB meninigits, Bacterial meninigits, vzv

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23
Q

Stroke in young- other causes

A

Cocaine, amphetamines, nflammatory arteritis, cerebral artery dissection

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24
Q

TTO of meningovascular syphilis (stroke)

A

Penicillin

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25
Q

Red flags for headaches: SNOOP

A

Systemic signs(fever) or illnesses(Cancer), Neurologic signs/symptoms, Onset is new, Other associated conditions ( head trauma), Previous headaches with changes in frequency, quality.

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26
Q

NSAIDs induced headache

A

Patients who take analgesics (eg, acetaminophen) for headaches >10 days/month for >3 months can develop a secondary headache disorder due to medication overuse.

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27
Q

Prophylaxis Cluster

A

The first-line therapy for cluster headaches that typically last >2 months is verapamil. This medication is usually initiated at 240 mg and titrated up as needed.

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28
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia tto

A

Carbamazepine

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29
Q

Ages of febrile seizure

A

6 months to 5 years

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30
Q

Prognosis of febrile seizure

A

Risk of epilepsy is 1-2%, if complex increases to 5-10%. In addition, abortive antiepileptic drugs do not alter the outcome of a child who has had a febrile seizure, even with an abnormal EEG.

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31
Q

Spina bifida complications

A

Neurogenic bladder/bowel, hydrocephalus, scoliosis, motor or sensory dysfunction.

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32
Q

Vertebrobasilar insufficiency

A

Eldery who presents with dizziness, unable to speak, nauseated, sensation of tingling in face, body, lasting 8-10 minutes. Common in patients with hypertension, DM, hypercholesterolemia. vertigo, dizziness, dysarthria, diplopia, and numbness.

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33
Q

Patient with NPH by clinic and then imaging, next step?

A

LP ALWAYS FIRST- TO CONFIRM THAT THIS IS NORMAL PRESSURE. MILLER FISCHER TAP- looks if patient improves after removal of 30-50 cc of CSF. THE TREATMENT IS THEN VP SHUNT

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34
Q

MS and pregnancy

A

lower MS activity during pregnancy, but at delivery higher likelihood of cesarea or instrumented delivery. If exacerbation during pregnancy– short term steroids.- After delivery there is high MS activity.

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35
Q

Major risk factor for stroke

A

HTN! , THEN SMOKING, THEN DM. Maintain < 150/90 in > 60 years old

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36
Q

Subtypes of syncope

A

Cardiovascular: .1Arrhythmia 2. Aortic stenosis. NonCardiovascular: vasovagal, carotid sinus hypersensitivity, orthostasis, seizure TIA

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37
Q

Opoiod withdrawal medications and when to use one over the other

A

Opioid agonists ( Methadone and buprenorphine): require supervision program - so patient needs to be adherent. Clonidine and adjunctive medis( antidiarrheal, antiemetics)

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38
Q

Prior to giving aspirin in stroke what should you consider?

A

Swallowing study! Some patients may have dysphagia. quick swallowing screening evaluation (eg, water swallow test, Toronto Bedside Swallowing Screening Test)

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39
Q

Management of Hypertension in patients with stroke

A

In pastients who do not receive the tPA <220/120 is allowed to assure good perfusion to brain . In patients who receive tPA 180/105.

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40
Q

How do you monitor the respiratory function in Guillain Barre

A

vital capacity and negative inspiratory force. NOT THE PEAK EXPIRATORY PHASE

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41
Q

In whom do you give IVIG or plasmapheresis in Guillain Barre

A

Non ambulatory and within 4 weeks of onset. If ambulatory and doing well generally do not require treatment.

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42
Q

Botulism characteristics

A

symmetric descending paralysis, does not have sensory compromise.

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43
Q

Guillain Barre Progression

A

2 weeks of progressing weakness and can arrive to full paralysis , 2-4 weeks of full plateau, slow recovery over months

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44
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Narcolepsy

A

Recurrent lapses into sleep and multiple naps in the day, at least 3 times a week for 3 months. aT LEAST 1: Cataplexya, low hyporexin, REM< 15 min

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45
Q

MOA modafinil

A

Direct, non direct dopamine receptor agonist

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46
Q

tto of cataplexy

A

SSRIs

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47
Q

MOA methylphenidate

A

inhibits the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine, increased dopaminergic and noradrenergic activity in the prefrontal cortex may explain its efficacy in ADHD.

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48
Q

Childhood absence prognosis

A

CAE often spontaneously remits by early puberty with no major long-term sequelae. When the patient has been seizure-free for 2 years, the antiepileptic medications frequently can be tapered.

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49
Q

Neurofibromatosis I and II

A

Type I: Tumor suppression gene chromosome 17, neurofibromin. Cafe au lait, neuromas, lisch nodules, can have optic gliomas. Type II: Merlin, chrom 22, bilateral acoustic neuroma and cataracts.

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50
Q

Nerve injuries during endarterectomy

A

hypoglossal nerve ( ipsilateral deviation of tongue when is protruded), recurrent laryngeal nerve (unilateral vocal cord paralysis- is distal to lesion) facial nerve( damage the mandibular brnch innervates orbicularis oris muscle- asymmetric smile),vagus nerve, ansus hypoglossal nerve innervates neckm can be sacrificed.

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51
Q

Parinaud Syndrome

A

pineal gland. 4 things: vertical gaze paralysis, loss of pupillary reaction, loss of optokinetic nystagmus , ataxia

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52
Q

Cremasteric reflex - level, and causes

A

Diabetic neuropathy, L1, L2

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53
Q

gET UP AND gO TEST

A

To assess postural stability

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54
Q

Valproate SE

A

Dose-related Thrombocytopenia , hepatotoxicity,pancreatitis, teratogen

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55
Q

Psychogenic coma

A

normal reaction to caloric stimulation : transient, conjugate, slow deviation of gaze to the side of the stimulus (brainstem-mediated), followed by saccadic correction to the midline (cortical correction).

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56
Q

unilateral facial nerve palsy, hepatomegaly, and lymphadenopathy

A

Extrapulmonary manisfestations of sarcoidosis

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57
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of sarcoidosis

A

Skin: erythema nodosum,

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58
Q

If you suspect sarcoidosis, next step in management?

A

Chest X ray

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59
Q

Confirm diagnosis of sarcoidosis

A

Excicional lymph node biopsy - Biopsy reveals noncaseating granulomas

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60
Q

Contraindications tpa

A

Presence of active internal bleeding
Bleeding diathesis (eg, platelets <100,000/µL)
Hypodensity in >33% of an arterial territory on CT scan
Presence of intracranial hemorrhage on CT scan
Intracranial surgery in the last 3 months
Blood pressure >185/110 mm Hg

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61
Q

Alzheimer

A

Donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine

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62
Q

Wernicke’s Korsakoff triad

A

Encephalopathy, ophtalmoplegia, Gait ataxia

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63
Q

Wernicke’s Korsakoff tTO

A

IV thyamine- Intravenous thiamine usually improves ocular abnormalities within hours, but confusion and gait ataxia may persist for days or weeks; many patients never fully recover. - DO NOT GIVE GLUCOSE PRIOR TO THIAMINE! WORSENS IT

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64
Q

Initial workup of Tuberous sclerosis

A

MRI for hamartomas, and EEG

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65
Q

MC cause of death in tuberous sclerosis

A

epilepsy, renal

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66
Q

ASTHMA IN BABY

A

maternal asthma may be associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, pre-eclampsia and caesarean delivery.

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67
Q

Scissors gait

A

spastic CP

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68
Q

Evaluation of CP

A

MRI-eg, periventricular leukomalacia, brain malformation, ischemia. MRI is superior to CT!

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69
Q

Gerstmann syndrome

A

Dominant parietal lobe: acalculia, agraphia, R/L

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70
Q

ataxia, weakness, and absent deep tendon reflexes after a camping trip to Washington State

A

tick paralysis - normal sensation

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71
Q

prolactinoma

A

bromocriptie and cabergoline- dopamine agonists

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72
Q

Prolactinoma presentation and definition

A

PRL>200. Rule out renal insuff or thyroid problems. Microadenoma (<10mm or 1 cm). Macroprolactinoma(>10mm, >1cm). If macroprolactinoma or micro but symptomatic try dopamine agonists- that decrease PRL (Bromocriptine, cabergoline). If > 3 cm surgery

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73
Q

Dx of Myasthenia gravis

A

acethylcholine receptor antibodies, if negative- muscle specific tyrosine kinase antibodies. CT chest

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74
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

NM junction

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75
Q

Tto of myasthenia gravis

A

Pyridostigmine/neostigmine ( acethylcholinesterase inhibitor), if doesn’t work and patient < 60 thymectomy.

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76
Q

Triggers for myasthenia gravis

A

surgery, childbirth, pregnancy, surgery, infection. TTO is plasmapheresis

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77
Q

Definition of concussion

A

Transient neurological disturbance ( dizziness, amnesia, disorientation), and NO intracranial injury

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78
Q

Management of concussion, recs on returning to physical activity

A

suspend from same day play. Rest for 24 hours. If without ss start exercise ( light aerobic exercise, non contact sports, then contact sports) . For mental: decreased screen time, and school accomodations. Potentially returning to full contact sports in one week.

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79
Q

Unilateral headache and partial horner ( anisocoria, transient vision impairment)

A

Carotid artery dissection- so always do imaging

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80
Q

MCC of carotid dissection

A

Trauma, HTN, Smoking or connective tissue disease

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81
Q

Presentation of carotid artery dissection

A

unilateral head and neck pain, transient vision loss, ipsilateral horner disease ( ptosis and miosis without anhidrosis), signs of focal cerebral ischemia( focal weakness)

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82
Q

Dx of carotid artery dissection

A

CT angiography head and neck

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83
Q

TTO OF carotid artery dissection

A

Thrombolysis if < 4.5 hours ( dissection leads to thrombi formation), aspirin, anticoagulation

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84
Q

presentation of temporal arteritis

A

head ache, jaw claudication, fever, anemia, high ESR. No anisocoria.

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85
Q

Peripheral Facial palsy and hx of cold sores, tto

A

Steroids within the first 3 days of onset . Bell palsy. If there is a central facial nerve palsy it requires further imaging . Although HSV can be a cause, there is NO BENEFIT og given antiviral therapy

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86
Q

PECARN rule

A

say it

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87
Q

Blepharospasm presentation and treatment

A

type of dystonia, involuntary closeure of the eye, usually trigger by bright light, irritants ( like smoke). Older women are predisposed potentially due to dry eye. TTO: Botulin toxin

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88
Q

Wallenberg Syndrome, etiology

A

aka lateral medullary infarction - caused by intracranial vertebral artery occlusion- or PICA

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89
Q

Wallenberg Syndrome presentation

A

Vestibulocerebellar findings ( dizziness, ipsilateral limb ataxia), ipsilateral horner, contralateral loss of pain and T, Ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia, nausea, nystagmus, vertigo,

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90
Q

lateral pontine syndrome

A

anterior inferior cerebellar artery is occluded

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91
Q

lateral pontine syndrome

A

Afftect motor and sensory trigemin. Weakness of muscles of mastication, diminished jaw jerk reflex, impaired tactile sensation. In contrast dysphagia, hoarseness, and dimished gag reflex are more lateral medulla.

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92
Q

Patients with late life depression are more likely to develop alzheimer

A

true , this is in contrast with patients who develop depression at any age.

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93
Q

Medial Medullary Syndrome etiology

A

aka alternating hypoglossal hemiplegia, occlusion of vertebral or the anterior spinal artery

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94
Q

Medial medullary Syndrome presentation

A

Contralateral paralysis of the arm and leg. And tongue deviation towars the side of the injury.

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95
Q

Presentation of vit B12 deficiency

A

Dementia and subacute combined degeneration ( dorsal column: loss of vibration, impaired Romberg)( Lateral corticospinal tract: spastic paresis and hyperreflexia)

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96
Q

Cause for increase in indirect bilirrubin in patients with vit B12def

A

ineffective erythropoiesis - defective DNA and cell production– intramedullary hemolysis.

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97
Q

Clinical suspicion of spinal/epidural abscess, next step

A

MRI with gadolinium (preferred) or CT with contrast

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98
Q

MCC bacteria in spinal epidural absces s

A

S.aureus

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99
Q

tto od epidural abscess

A

CT guided aspiration and culture for antibiotic, most pts require immediate surgical decompression.and drainage

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100
Q

fOR DEMENTIA TEST FOR

A

TSH,VITB12, AND DEPRESSION

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101
Q

Pt with forgetfulness, responses are very slow, gait is slow and cautious,

A

TSH- IS ASSOCIATED WITH HYPONATRMIA AND MICROCYTOSIS

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102
Q

Phenytoin toxicity

A

Horizontal nystagmus is the first sign! Blurred vision, diplopia, ataxia, slurred speech, drowsiness and decreased mentation . Oif this happen phenytoin should be decreased and look for resolution of nystagmus.

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103
Q

Never do an LP prior to MRI if suspecting tumor

A

TRUE

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104
Q

ss of postconcussive syndrome and prognosis

A

amnesia, headache, confusion,difficulty concentrating, vertigo, hypersensitivity to stimulus, mood alteration, sleep disturbances, and anxiety. Ss often resolve with symptomatic treatment within few weeks and months but some patients may have persistent ss lasting >=6 months.

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105
Q

Normal glucose, protein, cell count in CSF

A

glucose : 40-70, protein < 40, cell count 0-5

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106
Q

Bacterial meningitis glucose, protein, cell count in CSF

A

cell count >1000, glucose < 40, protein >250

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107
Q

Viral meningitis glucose, protein, cell count in CSF

A

cell count 100-1000, glucose normal, protein <100

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108
Q

TB meningitis

A

cell count 5-1000, glucose <10, protein >250

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109
Q

treatment of meningitis -empiric

A

vancomyicin, ceftriaxone, steroids + Ampi for Listeria

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110
Q

glucose less than 10 IN CSF, and lymphocytosis predominance

A

TB, cells 5-1000, glucose <10, protein >250, elevated adenosine deaminase

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111
Q

meninigits + yellow white nodules in bilateral optic discs, basilar enhancement

A

TB tuberculosis

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112
Q

TB meningitis dx

A

serial lumbar punctures with CSF examination for acid fast bacilli

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113
Q

In patients with altered mental status check

A

TSH , CMP,Urinalysis, infection. Thyrotoxicosis or hypothyroidism can present as confusion, altered mental status

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114
Q

Apathetic thyrotoxicosis is often misdiagnosed with dementia

A

TRUE

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115
Q

MVP

A

Non ejection click due to snapping of the mitral chordae as the valve cusps extend to the left atrium during systole, followed by a systolic murmur or mitral regurgitation. WORSE with low venous return( standing valsalva) and better with handgrip or squatting that increases left ventricular size.

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116
Q

Ejection murmur followed by crescendo-decrescendo

A

Aortic or pulmonic valve stenosis

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117
Q

Harsh holosystolic murmur with palpable thrill

A

VSD

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118
Q

Compartment syndrome presentation

A

pain out of proportion, increased pain with passive stretch, paresthesia “ ants crawling”, burning pain.

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119
Q

Dx of compartment syndrome

A

Compartment pressure > 30, or DBP-Compartment pressure < 20-30.

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120
Q

HF with preserved EF

A

Diastolic HF

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121
Q

Most common cause of Diastolic HF

A

htn –> concentric hypertrophy and impaired diastolic filling.

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122
Q

BNP in HF and obesity

A

BNP IN HEART FAILURE IS VERY SENSITIVE. HOWEVER, OBESITY LOWERS THE BNP, MAKING IT UNRELIABLE IN THIS PATIENTS.

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123
Q

Newborn with respiratory distress and murmur, son of diabetic mother

A

transient hypertrophic cardiomyopathy due to increase glycogen storage in the heart, and particularly interventricular. Flow can be obstructed and patient can have congestive heart failure,

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124
Q

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

A

seen in children of prediabetic mothers.

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125
Q

Most common complication of Compartment syndrome

A

Renal failure due to myoglobin release –rhabdomyolysis

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126
Q

Left foot pain likely due to arterial thrombosis + diastolic murmur

A

left cardiac myxoma

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127
Q

Hypertension,who to treat?

A

If >=60 with >= 150 or 90. If<60, CKD, DM >=140/90

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128
Q

Tto of HTN

A

Black: thiazides or CCB, alone or in combination . Other ethnicities: thiazides, ACEi, ARB or CCB Other ethnicities with DM or CKD: ACEi and ARB

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129
Q

alpha blockers are not 1st line HTN meds but can be used in BPH

A

yes

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130
Q

Classification of pulmonary hypertension

A

WHO Classification 1.Pulmonary arterial Hypertension 2. Due to left heart disease 3. Due to chronic lung disease ( COPD, ILD), 4. Chronic thromboembolic disease 5. other causes(sarcoidosis)

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131
Q

progressive dyspnea with exertion, prominent S2, Chest X ray with prominent pulmonary arteries but no infiltrate, ECG right axis deviation Dx?

A

Pulmonary hypertension

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132
Q

If clinically you suspect pulmonary HTN, next step?

A

Transthoracic TTE – mean arterial pressure >=25

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133
Q

TTO pulmonary HTN

A
  1. Endothelin antagonists ( bosentan, Ambrisentan): vasodilation, and delay progression of disease
  2. PD5 inhibitors (Sildenafil, tadalafil)
  3. Prostacyclin pathway agonists ( epoprostenol, treprostenol)
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134
Q

Prgnosis of postural tremor

A

incidence increases with age, familiar cases may present younger, no disability and normal life expectancy

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135
Q

Tto of essential tremor

A

propanolo, primidone

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136
Q

Trastuzumab cardiotoxicity PROGNOSIS

A

is a monoclonal antibody that targets HER 2 , Causes decline in LVEF. Cardiotoxicity is REVERSIBLE , is due to loss of myocardial contractility. It should be withheld by 4 weeks if EF decreases > 16% from baseline, and if symptomatic heart failure discontinue.

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137
Q

Anthracycline(Doxorubicin) cardiotoxicity PROGNOSIS

A

IRREVERSIBLE, there is myocyte destruction. Toxicity is associated with accumulative dosing

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138
Q

Tto of post MI perdicarditis

A

high dose aspirin, is preferred over NSAIDs and if refractory may consider Colchicine. NSAIDs not ideal because they interfere with myocardial healing. Steroids should be avoided as well.

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139
Q

Tto of idiopathic or viral pericarditis

A

Naproxen and colchicine

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140
Q

Patient with blunt thoracic trauma, mildly hypotensive, next step?

A

Bedside US or Focused assessment with sonography in trauma. Bedside Chest X rays ( Anteroposteroir) are performed after and are preffered over the posterior anterior and lateral that require the patient to stand up.

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141
Q

Causes of prolonged QT

A

Reemember that Sinus bradycardia can also cause it!

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142
Q

Pulmonary edema -exacerbation CHF

A

Can present with hypoxia, tachypnea, sensation of choking.

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143
Q

tto of acute decompensation of HF

A

fUROSEMIDE, OXYGEN, NITROGLYCERIN IV, MEXT STEP? ECHO

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144
Q

After LMNOP in acute HF exacerbation , next step?

A

Echo, to assess for type of HF and any valvular abnormalities that may be contributing to it . If there is signficant left ventricular dysfunction – then pt may require stress testing or coronary angiography

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145
Q

TIMI score

A

say it

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146
Q

Aortic dissection tto

A

IV B blocker, morphine, Sodium nitroprusside IV if SBP>120, emergent surgical repair.

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147
Q

TTO for chronic HF

A

NYHA classification

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148
Q

Tto for cocaine induced MI

A

BZD and nitrates. NO B BLOCKERS, CCbs if persistent chest pain , phentolamine if persistent hypertension, +/- PCI if MI

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149
Q

Chest pain cocaine induced and new neurologic symtpom, and negative CT head, diagnosis and next step?

A

acute dissection of ascending aorta– Ctangiography– that is a surgical emergency

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150
Q

Meds for redcuing TRG

A

Fibrates ( Gemfibrozil)

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151
Q

Niacin

A

Increased HDL, modest decrease of LDL

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152
Q

Bile acid sequestrants function

A

cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam– decrease LDL levels but no impact on cardiac outcomes.

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153
Q

Interaction between warfarin and amiodarone

A

amiodarone (for Afib) increases warfarin level, so warfarin dose should be reduced by 25-50%.

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154
Q

SE of amlodipine

A

Peripheral edema - are arteriolar vasodilators . To reduce it you can add ACEis

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155
Q

difficulty breathing ECG with narrow QRS complex, different P wave morphology , not able to talk

A

Multifocal atrial tachycardia

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156
Q

Multifocal atrial tachycardia

A

Seen in patients with pulmonary disease, but can be triggered by exacerbation of pulmonary disease, electrolyte disturbance, or cathecolamine surge(sepsis)

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157
Q

ECG findings multifocal atrial tachycardia

A

R-R interval irregular, P waves of at least 3 different morphologies atrial rate of >100

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158
Q

tto of multifocal atrial tachycardia

A

underlying disease, can be electrolyte replacement, NIPPV or O2 supplementation

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159
Q

short apical low pitch diastolic rumbling murmur, notched p waves, opening snap

A

mitral stenosis

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160
Q

Mitral stenosis presentation

A

Dyspnea, orthopnea, hemoptysis, SOB, cough at night.

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161
Q

Sudden cardiac death in young patients– think of 2 things

A

HCM, and Anormalous Aortic Origin of Coronary Artery

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162
Q

Types of Aortic Origin of Coronary Artery

A
  1. LAD originating from the right aortic sinus 2. RCA originating from the Left aortic sinus
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163
Q

Why is AAOCA dangerous

A

it creates a curvature that is less amenable for high flow, and in situatins of high flow like exercise when pulmonary and aortic vessels are dilated these may cause external compresion as the anomalous coronary is in the middle.

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164
Q

AAOCA DX

A

ECG resting is normal, Echo sometimes can show it, but the best is CT coronary angiography.

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165
Q

Medications that should be withheld prior to any surgery

A

ACEi/ARBs unless heart failure( they have peri and postoperative risk of hypotension), Diuretics, Metformin, Raloxifen.

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166
Q

Ortner syndrome

A

Hoarseness due to recurrent laryngeal nerve compression due to left atrial enlargement- seen in mitral stenosis

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167
Q

Brugada Syndrome ECG characteristics

A

Right bundle branch block and ST elevation on V1-V3,can cause SCD but not in exertion

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168
Q

Define long QT syndrome

A

> 450 in men, > 470 in females

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169
Q

Raloxifen SE

A

Venous thromboembolism, should be discontinued 4 weeks prior to any surgery

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170
Q

Treatment of Afib

A

say it

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171
Q

Algiruthm arrythmias, PE/Asystole, and Vfib/pulseless Vtach

A

say I t

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172
Q

Chronic heart failure tto

A

1) ACEi/ARBs + B blockers 2. Same 1 + Furosemide 3. Same as 2 + spironolactone , hydralazine+nitrate

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173
Q

Indications for hydralazine+nitrate in CHF

A

African americans and if ACEi/ARBs are not tolerated

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174
Q

Patient with sudden onset of SOB, diaphoresis, hypotension, hyperdynamic pre-cordium and early decrescendo holosystolic murmur

A

Acute mitral regurgitation - can be seen in patients with ehler Danlos, Marfan, or in patients with papillary muscle rupture in the setting of MI. THE MURMUR IS OFTEN ABSENT!!! ( due to severity, and equalizationof LA and LV pressures

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175
Q

Tto of acute Mitral regurgitation

A

Echo at beside, emergent surgical eval

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176
Q

What do Ehler and Marfan share in common and what is different

A

Common things: JPSM: Joint hypermobility, Pectus excavatum, Scoliosis, MVP. Ehler danlos: Easy bruising, velvety skin, atrophic scars, uterine prolapse, inguinal and abdominal hernias, high arched palate. Marfan: tall stature, aortic root dilation, lens and retinal detachmen, spontaneous pneumothorax.

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177
Q

Definition of peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

occurs between 36 weeks and 5 months postpartum, signs of left heart failure, and LVEF =<45

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178
Q

RF for peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

MATERNAL AGE>30, PRE-ECLAMPSIA,MULTIPLE PREGNANCIES

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179
Q

Prognosis of peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

Some may resolve spontaneously and completed. If at time of diagnosis LVEF<20 the risk of recurrence is higher. Patients need to be followed with Echo for years. If persistent or recurrent, may be adviced not to pursue another pregnancy

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180
Q

3 Complications of cardiac catheterization

A
  1. Hematoma: +/- mass, no bruit 2. Pseudoaneurysm: bulging, pulsatile mass, systolic bruit 3. AV fistula: continuous bruit, no mass.
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181
Q

Patient post catheterization, leg pain, pulsatile mass, next step

A

US leg

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182
Q

Main RF for pseudoaneurysm after catheterization

A

inadequate post-procedural manual compression

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183
Q

tto of pseudoaneurysm post catheter

A

Small can be treated with US guided compression or intraluminal thrombin injection, larger or rapidly expanding can rupture so surgery.

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184
Q

Criteria for biventricular pacing in HF

A
  1. LVEF < 35% 2. NYHA II,III,IV with ss despite tto 3. LBBB with QRS > 150. These patients also meet criteria for cardioverter defibrillator implant.
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185
Q

wHAT DOES Deep Q waves indicate

A

prior infarct

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186
Q

MC location of abdominal aneurysm

A

infrarenal > 3cm

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187
Q

What intervention will more likely decrease the expansion risk of aortic aneurysm

A

stop smoking

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188
Q

aortic aneurysm screening

A

Abdominal US, 65-75 yo who have ever smoked

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189
Q

Indications for aortic aneurysm repair

A

large > 5.5 cm, rapidly progressive > 0.5 in 6 months, AAA associated with PAD or aneurysm

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190
Q

Management of AAA

A

Smoking cessation, ASA, statin, and evaluate If candidate for surgery

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191
Q

Follow-up of aortic aneurysms

A

Medium : 4-5.4 (US every 6-12 months), Small( every 2 -3 years)

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192
Q

Patient with hypertensive emergency who received IV labetalol and IV nitroprusside , 2 days after presents with confusion and seizures

A

Cyanide toxicity

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193
Q

Cyanide toxicity presentation

A

Cherry red color first, then cyanosis, altered mental status to seizures, arrythmias, respiratory depression and then tachypnea, pulmonary edema, METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

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194
Q

Cyanide toxicity treatment

A

sodium thiosulfate

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195
Q

Beck’s triadforcardiac tamponade:

A

hypotension, muffled heart sounds, JVP

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196
Q

The most specific finding of cardiac tamponade indicating that emergent treatment is needed

A

early diastolic collapse of the right ventricle and right atrium. Other signs pulsus paradoxus . LOW VOLTAGE QRS IS NOT SPECIFIC OF CARDIAC TAMPONADE, THAT CAN BE FOUND IN OTHER CAUSES. THIS IS DIFFERENT FROM ELECTRICAL ALTERANS

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197
Q

Most significant predictor of cardiovascular risk ?

A

Diabetes Mellitus , other CHD equivalents are: CKD, and noncoronary atherosclerotic isease

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198
Q

Strict glycemic control improves microvascular complications but not macro

A

Micro include retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy. Macro: CHD, stroke

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199
Q

Criteria for Aortic valve replaement

A

Severe AS (JET>0.4, GRADIENT>40,) PLUS >=1: onset of symptoms, LVEF< 50%, undergoing other cardiac surgery (CABG)

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200
Q

men died steering wheel , motor vehicle accident. Cause of sudden death?

A

Aortic rupture. NOT CARDIAC CONTUSSION! IT CAN CAUSE BUT WHEN THERE IS INVOLVEMENT OF VESSELS AND CHAMBERS.

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201
Q

Management of statin myopathy or rhabdomyolysis

A

Symptomatic patients-discontinue statin. Asymptomatic patients with CK increased >10 times stop. BECAREFUL because statin can also potentiate myopathy in the setting of exercise so if pt did a marathon presents with high CK, discontinue statin, and then recheck CK, and if levels have normalized re-start statin as it was initially tolerated.

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202
Q

Patient developing cardiogenic sshock in the setting of inferior MI and bradyarrhythmia. Not responsive to atropine, hemodynamically stable, next step

A

temporary pacing, and then PCI

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203
Q

Patient diagnosed with bicuspid aortic valve, next step?

A

First degree relative screen with echocardiography. Patients are followed with echo every 1-2 years. And can require valvuloplasty.

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204
Q

Complications or risks of having bicuspid valve

A

Endocarditis, Severe aortic stenosis or regurgitation, aortic root dilation, dissection.

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205
Q

Treatment of Wolff Parkinson white Afib

A

unstable: cardioversion. Stable: procainamide or ibutilide

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206
Q

Meds CI in Wolff Parkinson White

A

Digoxin, CCBs, b blockers, verapamil, adenosine

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207
Q

INR target with aortic and mitral mechanic valve

A

Warfarin 2-3: aortic valve replacement with no risk factors(

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208
Q

Patients with bicuspid valve should be assessed for

A

thoracic aortic aneurysm, or dissection.

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209
Q

Afib but pulseless

A

Pulseless electrical activity- any type of arrythmia. Start compressions and then give Epinephrine

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210
Q

Syncope in patient with prior mI

A

think that cause can be ventricular tachyarrhythmia due to scarring tissue.

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211
Q

Causes of cardiogenic syncope

A

Aortic stenosis/HCM, Ventricular tachyarrhythmia, Sick sinus syndrome, Torsades de pointes, advanced AV blocl

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212
Q

Athlete asymptomatic with low heart rate, next step

A

reassure, and routine care

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213
Q

Patients with suspected marfan syndrome require an echo prior to initiation of physical activity

A

if there is root dilation, they are advised not to do strenous activity.

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214
Q

Patient with cardiogenic shock secondary to MI, presenting with sinus bradycardia and infarct on II, III, Avf, next step

A

Intravenous atropine. Inferior infarcts can be associated with sinus bradycardia because the the SA node is irrigated by the RCA. In RV infarcts its true that they can be preload dependent and may require IV fluids, but its not the case for patients who have cardiogenic shock, where fluids can worsen it

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215
Q

Perioperative stratification for cardiac risk, High risk and low risk procedures.

A

High risk procedures: aortic surgery , or peripheral vascular. Low risk : ABCE: Ambulatory or superficial, Breast, Cataract, Endoscopy. Low risk no further testing unless decompensated HF, or unstable angina. For high and intermediate risk based on RCRI risk, and if they are able to do brisk walking or climb 2 flight of stairs no further testing.

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216
Q

Lateral wall of the heart Is irrigated by

A

LCA

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217
Q

LAD irrigation

A

anterior interventricular groove and irrigates the anterior wall of the left ventricle

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218
Q

RCA irrigation

A

right ventricle and inferoposterior wall of left ventricle

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219
Q

TCA overdose

A

CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIA, ALTERED MENTAL STATUS, Hyperthermia, confusion, flushing, blurred vision, urinary retention, mydriasis

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220
Q

TCA antidote

A

sodium bicarbonate for stabilization of the heart. , if not resolve give Mg, or lidocaine.

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221
Q

Management of TCA OVERDOSE

A

O2,intubation as needed, IV fluids. Activated charcoal if within 2 hours of ingested( unless ileus is present) and sodium bicarbonate for WIDE QRS arrhythmias

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222
Q

patients with CAD that are elderly > 80 may present more often with anginal ss ( shortness of breath) rather than chest pain in CAD!!!

A

TRUE

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223
Q

Patient with MI leading to acute decompensated HF, what medication should NOT BE GIVEN

A

B blockers, as it may worsen pulmonary edema

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224
Q

Resume sex after MI

A

If they are asymptomatic they can resume ot. Guidelines say within 3-4 weeks after MI, and as early as 1 week.

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225
Q

ECG findings in constrictive pericarditis

A

nonspecific, Afib, low voltage QRS complex. Imaging shows calcifications

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226
Q

Causes of constrictive pericarditis

A

Idiopathic or viral, cardiac surgery or radiation, TB

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227
Q

T wave abnormalities in ECG may raise suspicion for CAD

A

always do troponin (at least 2 in 3 hours apart) and serial EKG every 30 minutes.

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228
Q

indications of implantable cardioverter-defibrilator in HCM

A
  1. Prior history of cardiac arrest or sustained Vtach 2. family history of SCD 3. Recurrent or exertional syncope 4. Nonsustained SVT, 5. Hypotension with exercise 6. Extreme left ventricular hypertrophy
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229
Q

PCI timing

A

ideally 90 minutes from when patient is seen by physician (independent of when the ss started) and 120 if will be transfer

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230
Q

Epigastric pain associated with exercise, think of CAD!

A

WARRANTS ECG

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231
Q

Management of Afib

A

b blocker or CCBs!and assess need for cardioversion and CHA2DS2VASc

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232
Q

PAD management

A

Aspirin + High dose statin , then supervised exercise progrma > 3 x/week for 3 months. If despite this persist cilostazole, if persists revascularization

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233
Q

Antiarrhythmics for Afib indication and what to use

A

Indications: 1. inability to maintain adequate HR control with rate drugs 2. Symptomatic despite rate control agents. For LVH AND HF: Amiodarone. Nothing: flecainamide, propafenone, CAD:Sotalol.

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234
Q

What has the major impact inHTN

A

Weight loss ( < 25%), BASH diet, and exercise.

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235
Q

Digoxin toxicity

A

nausea/emesis, anorexia, fatigue, confusion, visual disturbances, cardiac abnormalities

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236
Q

What drugs cannot be given with Digoxin, otherwise there is Digoxin toxicity?

A

VASQ–Verapamil, Amiodarone, Spironolactone, Quinidine.

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237
Q

Patients in TPN should be closely monitored for which electrolyte and why?

A

Phosphorous. It is possible that they develop silent hypophosphatemia ( in the setting of IV dextrose in TPN- Dextrose–insulin production–insulin drives serum phosphate into the cell for ATP generation– and there is hypohosphatemia. It is also seen in refeeding syndrome

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238
Q

Complications of refeeding syndrome

A

seizures, rhabdomyolysis, arrhythmias, CHF

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239
Q

First line tto for DVT/PE in cancer and non cancer patients

A

in non cancer: oral X inhibitors (Rivaroxaban) for at least 3 months. In cancer LMWH (this is non oral)

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240
Q

Alternative for horomone replacement therapy for hot flashes due to risk of DVT

A

SSRIs OR NSRIS

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241
Q

Risks of hormone replaceent therapy

A

Increase risk of breast Ca, stroke, and DVT

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242
Q

Down is associated wiith which conditions

A

Endocardial cushion defect, duodenal atresia, hirschprungs, atlanto axial instability, hypothyroidism

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243
Q

Patients with Down syndrome are at risk of developing

A

ALL, Alzheimers, autism, ADHD, depression and seizures

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244
Q

characteristics of AS murmur,

A

single S2 ( delay in aortic equalizing pulmonic), pulsus parvus et tardus ( diminished and delayed carotid pulse), soft S2 in severe, and loud S2 in mild and severe.

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245
Q

in vasovagal syncope prodromal symptoms may persist briefly AFTER the syncope

A

true.

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246
Q

HCM treatment

A

B blocker, if not work verapamil, and disopyramide. Implantable cardioverter defibrillator.

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247
Q

Single most important RF for CAD

A

DM

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248
Q

Is stress a RF for CAD

A

NO

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249
Q

RF fo0r CAD (8)

A

DM- IS THE MOST IMPORTANT. Others: HTN, smoking, Obesity, sedentarism, hyperlipidemia, PAD, family history (female < 65, men <55)

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250
Q

Chest pain in CAD

A

Dull chest pain, lasts 15-30 mint, occurs in exertion, substernal location, and radiates to the jaw or left arm.

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251
Q

The most common cause of pain that is not cardio related

A

GERD

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252
Q

NSTEMI tto

A

DNA BSG. Dual anticoagulation( Aspirin, clopidogrel), nitroglycerin, anticoagulation( heparin) , b blickers, statin

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253
Q

EKG changes in CAD

A

ST depression, elevation, and T wave inversions

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254
Q

Types of troponins and function

A

T- tropomyosin C- binds calcium to activate actin-myosin interaction, and Troponin I blocks or inhibits actin-myosin interaction.

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255
Q

When do CKMB levels go down and and then up

A

go down at day 2-3 and then elevate after if re-infarct. While troponins will remain elevated

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256
Q

Best initial treatment for CAD

A

Aspirin

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257
Q

Aspirin lowers mortality?

A

Aspirin alone reduces mortality by 25% for acute MI, reduces mortality by 50% in unstable angina.

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258
Q

MOA clopidrogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor

A

P2Y12 antagonists- block aggregation of platelets to each other by INHIBIYING ADP-induced activation of the P2Y12 receptor.

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259
Q

Angioplasty and thrombolytics both lower mortality in STEMI

A

true , IBUT IN STABLE ANGINA it does not decrease mortality more than medical therapy

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260
Q

Stable angina tto

A

ABNS - Aspirin, B blocker, Nitrate, Statin

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261
Q

Timing for angioplasty and thrombolytics

A

angioplasty > thrombolytics. Angioplasty 90 min of arrival to ED. If not able to PCI then thrombolytics within 30 minutes of arrival to the ED, BUT CAN BE GIVEN UP TO 12 HOURS FI THERE IS ST ELEVATION >=2 leads.

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262
Q

ACEis lower mortality in STEMI?

A

ONLY IF there is LV dysfunction or systolic dysfunction

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263
Q

When to add prasugrel inSTEMI

A

If they go to Angioplasty

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264
Q

Mechanism of thrombolytics and why time matters

A

thrombolytics convert plasminogen to plasmin. Plasmin cleaves fibrin clot into D dimer. Normally, once fibrin clot is formed after a couple of hours it is stabilized by factor XIII, Once is stabilized plasmin will not cleave fibrin.

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265
Q

Mechanism of B blockers in STEMI

A

Slow heart rate– increases coronary artery perfusion, and ncreased left ventricular time increases both stroke volume and cardiac output.

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266
Q

Meds in ACS that lower mortality

A

Aspirin, thrombolytics, primary angioplasty, metoprolol, statins, clopidogrel, prasugrel ticagrelol.

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267
Q

Heparin lowers mortality in MI?

A

only if ST DEPRESSION- NSTEMI

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268
Q

When do you give prasugrel, clopidogrel,?

A

aspirin allergy, they go to PCI, or MI.

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269
Q

SE of ticlopidine

A

neutropenia

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270
Q

When to give CCBs in MI

A

intolerance to b-blockers: asthma patients, cocaine induced chest pain, or Prinzmetal angina

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271
Q

When do you give lidocaine or amiodarone in MI

A

When is Vtach or Vfib. NEVER prophylaxis.

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272
Q

In which patients prasugrel cannot be given

A

> 75years and in stroke. It increases bleeding.

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273
Q

When is a pacemaker needed in MI

A

Symptomatic bradycardia, Mobitz II, 3rd degree block, bifascicular block, New LBBB.

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274
Q

All complications of MI lead to hypotension

A

TRUE

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275
Q

Dx and tto of cardiogenic shock post MI

A

Echo, swan-Ganz catheter. ACEI, and urgent revascularization

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276
Q

Dx and tto of valve rupture post MI

A

Echo, ACE, nitroprusside, intraortic ballon bump to bridge into surgery

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277
Q

Dx and tto ofseptal rupture post MI

A

Echo, right heart will show step up in Oxygen. ACE, nitroprusside, and urgent surgery.

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278
Q

Dx and tto of Myocardial wall rupture inMI

A

Echo, pericardiocentesis, urgent cardiac repair.

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279
Q

Dx and tto of sinus bradycardia in MI

A

ekg, and give ATROPINE , followed by pacemaker if ss persist.

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280
Q

Dx anf tto of 3rd degree AV block

A

EKG showing canon a waves(high amplitude), and give atropine and pacemaker.

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281
Q

All patients POST-MI should go home on

A

Aspirin, clopidogrel( or prasugrel), b blocker, statin, ACEi.

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282
Q

How is NSTEMI management different from STEMI

A

NO thrombolytic use, We use heparin ( lMWH>unfractionated), Glycoprotein Iia/IIIb INHIBITORS(ABCIXIMAB) LOWER MORTALITY

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283
Q

Abciximab lowers mortality in NSTEMI

A

yes, particularly in those going for angioplasty

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284
Q

ACE and ARBs SE

A

both cause hyperK, but cough is only caused by ACE

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285
Q

In chronic CAD and pain persists despute all treatment

A

ranolazine- antianginaal- blocks inward sodium currents

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286
Q

LDL goal of statins in coronary artery disease and DM

A

<70

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287
Q

Proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9 (PCSK9). Moa and use

A

binds (LDL-R) on the surface of hepatocytes, leading to the degradation of the LDL-R and higher plasma LDL-cholesterol (LDL-C) levels. if patients on ACS already on statins and they cannot control severe hyperlipidemia. Injected meds that block clearance of LDL BY THE LIVER FROM THE BLOOD. NO impact on mortality.

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288
Q

Alirocumabandevolocumab

A

Proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9 (PCSK9). Inhibitors

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289
Q

Erectile dysfunction causes post MI

A

MC is anxiety, but can be due to B blockers.

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290
Q

mechanism of rales in CHF

A

increased hydrostatic pressure develops in the pulmonary capillaries from the left heart pressure overload. It transudates into alveoli. In inhalation the alveoli open with a popping sound referred as rales.

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291
Q

Management of Pulmonary edema as manifestation of CHF

A

LMNOP -I first prior to imaging!

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292
Q

Labs to order when patient is with pulmonary edema as complication of CHF

A

Chest X ray ( pulmonary vascular congestion, cephalization of flow, effusion, cardiomegaly). EKG, Oximeter, Echo

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293
Q

MOA dobutamine, inamrinone, milrinone

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors. Increase contractility and decrease afterload.

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294
Q

If after LMNO in pulmonary edema patient continues symptomatic

A

positive inotrope.- dobutamine 30-60 min

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295
Q

neVER USE DIGOXIN IN ACUTE TREATMENT OF CHF AND PULMONARY EDEMA

A

Digoxin can be used in chronic treatment.

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296
Q

Treatment of systolic dysfunction chf

A

ACE/ARBs, b blockers, furosemide, sspironolactone, digoxin if persistent, if still persistent jhydralazine+ nitrates, sacubitril with valsartan

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297
Q

Side effects of Mineralocorticoids receptor antogonists (Spironolactone, eplerenolne)

A

hyperK. Spironolactone can cause gynecomastia and erectile dysfunction. Eplerenone has no andorgenic. IF HYPERK and needed to decrease mortality then five Patiromer.

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298
Q

Spironolactone decreases mortality in SYSTOLIC CHF

A

TRUE

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299
Q

Treatment of diastolic CHF

A

Spironolactone, or eplerenone.

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300
Q

Patient with pulmonary edema that has Vtach, next step

A

Synchronized cardioversion , pulmonary edema is not considered hemodynamically stable.

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301
Q

when to do synchronized cardioversion in pulmonary edema

A

if Vtach, a fib, flutter or SVT- These are considered hemodynamically UNSTABLE!

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302
Q

Escalation in treatment of acute pulmonary edema

A

LMNOP –Inotropes ( Dobuitamine,iunamrinone, milrinone)–> nesitiride (SYNTHETIC FORM OF ATRIAL NATRIURETIC PEPTIDE)

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303
Q

What is wedge pressure

A

Left atrial pressure

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304
Q

When to order echo inpulmonary edema secondary to CHF

A

Once the patient has been stabilized.

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305
Q

In systolic CHF what to do if ACE/ARBs cannot be given

A

hydralazine+nitrates in addition to other meds.

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306
Q

Digoxin and diuretics in CHF do not reduce mortality

A

TRUE

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307
Q

what CHF med causes transient excess brightness or vision

A

ibravidine (Sa nodal inhibitor of funny channels that slow heart rate.

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308
Q

Pacemaker in CHF

A

LVEF <35%, and QRS >120msec

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309
Q

All valvular heart disease can be expected to have murmurs and rales on lung exam.

A

True, can also have peripheral edema, carotid pulse findings, gallop.

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310
Q

Tto of most of the murmurs

A

ACE/ARBS or diuretics.

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311
Q

Tto of MVP

A

B blocker if ss

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312
Q

tto of Mitral Stenosis

A

Furosemide and Na restriction, Balloon valvuloplasty, warfarin and rate control for Afib.

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313
Q

Early diastolic decresecendo best heard in the lower left sternal border

A

Aortic regurgitation.

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314
Q

Intensity of murmurs

A

I/VI only heard with special manuevers ( handgrip, valsalva) , II/VI AND III/VI majority, no obkective difference between these. IV/VI: palpable thrill. V/VI: can be heard with the stethoscope partially off the chest VI: stetoscope no needed to hear it.

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315
Q

Best initial test for Valvular lesions, and most accurate

A

BIT: Echo, MAT: Left heart catheterization.

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316
Q

Prognosis of AS

A

coronary disease: 3-5 year survival, syncope 2-3 year survival, CHF 1.5-2 year survival.

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317
Q

AS treatment

A

Diuretic and TRANSCATHTER valve replacement.

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318
Q

Management of bio vs. mechanical valve in AS

A

Boioprostethic valve will last 10 years but requires no anticoagulation with warfarin. Mechanical valve will last longer but requires warfarin goal INR 2-3.

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319
Q

Antithrombotic therapy in mechanical valve

A

Warfarin with INR 2-3 in Aortic valve replacement without risk factors. Warfarin 2.5-3.5 for mitral valve replacement, and for aortic valve replacement with risk factors: Afin, LV dysfunction, thromboembolism, hypercoagulable state. Always ADD ASPIRIN FOR MECHANICAL VALVES

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320
Q

how long mechanical valves last

A

10-15 years.

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321
Q

Causes of AR

A

HTN, endocarditis, rheumatic heart disease, Marfan, AS, cystic medial necrosis, Syphilis, reactive arthritis.

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322
Q

When do you repair Bicuspid aortic valve

A

> 5 cm

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323
Q

Complications of bicuspid aortic valve

A

aneurysm, and endocarditis

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324
Q

AR treatment

A

ACEi/ARBs, NIFEDIPINE.- but these are not proven to decrease velocity of disease. Surgery if LVEF < 55%

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325
Q

Murmur in MS

A

opening snap followed by diastolic rumble, loud S1, as it gets worse the opening snap moves towars S2

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326
Q

BIT and MAT in Mitral Stensois

A

Best initial therapy diuretics, MAT: ballon valvuloplasty

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327
Q

Pregnancy is NOT A Contraindication for Ballon valvuloplasty

A

TRUE

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328
Q

Operative criteria for AR and MR

A

AR: EF<55% AND LV end systolic volume > 55. MR LEVF<60% and LVESD >40

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329
Q

Mechanism of fixed splitting of S2 in ASD

A

LA/RA pressure no change in respiratrion = no change in splitting

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330
Q

When is percutaneous repair indicated in ASD

A

SHUNT RADIO EXCEEDS 1.5:1

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331
Q

Causes for Wide splitting of S2, delayed P2

A

RBBB, Pulmonic stenosis, RVH, Pulmonary HTN

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332
Q

Causes for PARASOXICAL splitting of S2, delayed A2

A

LBBB, AS, LVH, HTN

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333
Q

TTO of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

same as systolic HF- ACE/ARBs, b blockers, furosemide, spironolactone

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334
Q

Tto of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

distolic HF- Spironolactone, or eplerenone.

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335
Q

Most accurate diagnositic test in Restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

endomyocardial biopsy, but usually we do first echo and EKG

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336
Q

Amyloid cardiomyopahty ECG and Echo findings

A

Low voltage ECG and spleckled pattern on echo

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337
Q

Treatment of Tako Tsubo Cardiomyopathy

A

ACEi, diuretics, b blockers.

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338
Q

pleuritic vs ischemic pain

A

pleuritic is sharp, positional. Ischemic is dull and sore.

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339
Q

Best initial test in pericarditis

A

EKG- ST elevation everywhere, and PR segment depression in lead II but this last one is always present.

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340
Q

Electrical alternans is seen in which condition

A

cardiac tamponade

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341
Q

earliest finding in cardiac tamponade in echo

A

diastolic collapse of the right atrium and right ventricle, later findings include equalization of all pressures in the heart during diastole.

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342
Q

tto of cardiac tamponade

A

pericardiocentesis, DO NOT USE DIURETICS

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343
Q

Best initial treatment in constrictive pericarditis

A

diuretic, the most effective treatment is removal of pericardium (pericardial stripping)

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344
Q

BIT and MAT in aortic dissection

A

cHEST X RAY, AND THE MAT is CT.

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345
Q

Aortic dissection in CSS

A

Give b blocker, order EKG and Chest X ray. Then order CT angiography and start nitroprusside to control BP. ICU AND SURGERY CONSUTL,

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346
Q

Normal ankle brachial index

A

> =0.9

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347
Q

BIT and MAT in PAD

A

Ankle brachial test, angiogram

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348
Q

Treatment in PAD

A

Aspirin + High dose statin , then supervised exercise progrma > 3 x/week for 3 months. If despite this persist cilostazole, if persists revascularization

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349
Q

CCS, Patient with Afib

A

Echocardiogram ,TSH,T4, CMP,

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350
Q

if severe bleeding occur with warfarin, next step

A

Prothrombin complex concentrate (II, VII,IX, X)or FPP

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351
Q

If bleeding occurs with Xa inhibitors

A

give andenaxet

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352
Q

if bleeding occurs with dabigatran

A

gice idarucizumab

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353
Q

Factor X inhibitos and dabigatran( inhibitoer thrombin) decrease more mortality in Afib than warfarin

A

TRUE

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354
Q

When is obligatory to use Warfarin in Afib

A

metallic valves or MS

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355
Q

Atrial flutter is managed the same as Afib

A

true

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356
Q

Treatment for multifocal atrial tachycardia

A

If PO2< 55 give O2 first, then diltiazem. NO B BLOCKERS

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357
Q

SVT tto

A

unstable: cardioversion. Stable: first vagal manuevers, IV adenosine, if doesn’t work b blocker, CCBs, or digoxin

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358
Q

Best long term tto for SVT

A

radiofreq catheter ablation

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359
Q

CCS syncope

A

EKG, CMP, CBC, Cardiac enzymes, oxymetry, echo if murmur if present, head CT is neuro exam focal.

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360
Q

What class of antihypertensive agent is best known for severe, first dose orhtostatic hypotension

A

terasozin ( alpha 1antagonist)

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361
Q

List 4 primary categories of shock

A

Hypovolemic, cardiogenic, distributive( septic, anaphylactic shock, neurogenic shock), and obstructive shock ( tension pneumothorax, impeding venous return)

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362
Q

Fluids in shock

A

generally 10-20 cc/kg, but in distrubutive shock be more aggressive 30cc/kg

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363
Q

If fluid challenge fail to raise BP in shock patient, next step

A

Norepinephrine is first line tto for SEPTIC AND CARDIOGENIC SHOCK. Epinephrine for anaphylactic

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364
Q

Types of shock and parameters CO, PCWP, SVR, SVO2

A

Septic: high CO, low PCWP, Low SVR, High SVO2. Hypovolemic: low CO, low PCWP, high SVR,low SVO2. Cardiogenic : low CO, high PCWP, high SVR, Low SVO2. Anaphyactic: high CO, low PCWP, SVR, and SVO2

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365
Q

Pulmonary embolism can cause shock

A

TRUE

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366
Q

aortic dissection can cause cardiac tamponade

A

true

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367
Q

What clues suggest Addison disease as a cause of shock

A

history of steroid, traima, hypotension, eosinophilia, hyperK, and hyponatremia. Treat with steroids and high volumes of fluids

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368
Q

Norepinephrine MOA and when to use in shock

A

alpha1 and beta 1 agonist effects. For hypotension to increase peripheral resistance. 1st line in septic shock and cardiogenic shock

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369
Q

Dobutamine MOA and when to use in shock

A

B agonist to increase cardiac contractility

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370
Q

Dopamine

A

at low doses: affects dopamine receptors–> vasodilation. At higher doses its beta 1 agonist effect increases contractility. At even higher doses has alpha 1 agonist effects and causes vasoconstriction. The b1 agonist activity makes it first line symtpomatic bradycardia.

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371
Q

Stages of hypertension

A

normal <120/<80. PreHTN 120-139/80-89, HTN stage 1 140/90 , stage II >=160/100

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372
Q

HTN tto

A

black: thiazides or CCB, alone or in combination . Other ethnicities: thiazides, ACEi, ARB or CCB Other ethnicities with DM or CKD: ACEi and ARB

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373
Q

HTN in pregnancy

A

Labetalol, hydralazine and alpha methyldopa are safe.

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374
Q

Define Hypertensive urgency

A

> 200/120 without ss, if ss is called emergency

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375
Q

What tests should be ordered in HTN

A

ECG, CMP, Urinalysis, CBC, Lipid panel

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376
Q

ST changes in leads V5 and 6 are often seen with left ventricular hypertrophy from systolic overload and are termed a “strain pattern.”

A

TRUE

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377
Q

Hyperthyroidism algorithm

A

say it

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378
Q

Hypothyroidism algorythm

A

say it

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379
Q

Thyroid nodule algorithm

A

say it

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380
Q

Types of Ca in thyroid

A

say it

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381
Q

Indications for treating in subclinical hyperthyroidism

A

TSH < 0.1 , or TSH 0.1- 0.5 IF >=65, hear problems, osteoporosis, and nodular disease . TTO is indicated due to the risk of developing overt hyperthyroidism

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382
Q

Precocious puberty algorithm

A

say it

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383
Q

Patient with acne, no testes enlargement, and advanced age. No CNS ss, cause?

A

Peripheral precocious puberty - CAH. There is significant acne, may exhibit hypotension, hypoNa, hyperK.

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384
Q

Dx of Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, classic

A

Elevated 17 hydroxyprogesterone on ACTH stimulation test.

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385
Q

Dx of glucagonoma

A

pancreatic alpha cell tumor. Glucagon > 500. Necrolytic erythema migrans, new diagnosis of DM, weigh loss, GI ss ( diarrhea, constipation), venous thrombosis , neuro ss(ataxia, dementia, proximal weakness)

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386
Q

Treatment of glucagonoma

A

octeotride or surgery

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387
Q

Treatment of hyperthyroidism

A

Anthythyroid drugs ( Methimazole prefered over PTU, unless is 1st trimester pregnancy), radioactive iodine, and thyroidectomy. IN ACTIVE SYMPTOMS ADD B BLOCKER

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388
Q

Patients candidate for Antithyroid medications

A

Mild hypothyroidism, older with limited life expectancy, preparation for radioactvie iodine, pregnancy

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389
Q

Patients candidate for radioactive iodine

A

Moderate to severe hyperTSH with or without ophtalmopathy, patient preference in mild hyperTSH

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390
Q

Patients candidate for thyroidectomy

A

large goiter, suspect cancer, concurrent hyperparaTSH, Pregnant who cannot tolerate antithyroid meds, severe ophtalmopathy, retrosternal goiter with obstructive ss

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391
Q

When do you check labs in thyroid disease once starting antithyroid meds?

A

4-6 weeks after initiating meds, and then every 2-3 months. TSH levels remain suppressed for a while so check with T3 and T4

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392
Q

iF YOU WANT TO MONITOR FOR EFFICACY OF antithyroid medications what are the labs you check

A

TSH levels remain suppressed for a while so check with T3 and T4

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393
Q

SE of anithyroid

A

agranulocytosis and hepatotoxicity

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394
Q

Patient with hypertension and hyperK, what do you think of?, next step in management

A

Hyperaldosteronism - plasma aldosterone to renin ratio

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395
Q

Causes of primary hyperaldosteronism and labs

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn Syndrome), bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. Low renin and high aldosterone (PAC/PR>20) – Do CT scan

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396
Q

Causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism and labs

A

High renin, high aldosterone. Renovascular HTN, Malignant HTN, Renin producing tumor, diuretic use, coartaction, cirrhosis (PAC/PR~10)

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397
Q

causes of decreased renin and decreased aldosterone, hypertension, and hypoK

A

Non aldosterone causes: CAH, Cushings, Exogenous mineralocorticoids

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398
Q

treatment of bilateral vs unilateral adrenal hyperplasia

A

unilateral may benefit from surgery, bilateral just medical therapy ( spironolactone, eplerenone)

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399
Q

Aldosterone escape mechanism

A

sodium and water retention volume expansion → secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and pressure natriuresis (other mechanisms may be responsible, although how these operate remains unclear)→ compensatory diuresis → “escape” from edema and formation and frank hypernatremia

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400
Q

Why patients with hyperaldosteronism have polyuria

A

hypokalemia → desensitization of renal tubules to antidiuretic hormone (ADH) → increased water excretion (polyuria) and excessive thirst (polydipsia)

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401
Q

The best way to assess diabetic neuropathy

A

tuning fork

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402
Q

First line treatment for diabetic neuropathy

A

glycemic control + First line meds: duloxetine (SNRI), pregabalin- alter neuronal transmission and decrease pain. TCA decrease pain but not alter transmision. Other meds are gabapentin, lamotrigine, or carbamazepine.

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403
Q

what is the advantage of using Glargine or other long acting insulin over NPH

A

Less risk of hypoglycemia

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404
Q

Short acting insulins

A

Analogs (Lispro, aspart, glulisine), and Regular

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405
Q

Peak and duration of short acting insulin

A

analogs (Peak 0.5-1.5, Duration 3-5hours), Regular ( Peak 2-4h, duration 5-8hrs)

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406
Q

Intermediate acting insulin

A

NPH

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407
Q

Peak and duration of NPH Insulin

A

Peak 4-12 and duration 14+

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408
Q

Long acting insulins

A

Detemir, Glargine, and Degludec

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409
Q

Duration of detemir, glargine, and degludec

A

12-24, 20-24, 42+

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410
Q

hypertension, hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, mood swings, and hypoK with metabolic alkalosis

A

Cushing syndrome

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411
Q

Clinical presentation of cushing

A

central obesity, bone fractures/osteopenia, mood swings, skin atrophy, proximal muscle weakness, glucose intolerance, skin pigmentation

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412
Q

Dx of cushing syndrome

A

24 hour urine cortisol, late evening salivary cortisol, low dose dexamethasone test

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413
Q

high cortisol, high/normal ACTH, next step

A

MRI. If >6mm –> dexamethasone suppression test and CRH suppresion test. If suppressed cortisol but elevated ACTH- cushing disease. If < 6mm or no mass: inferior petrosal venous sampling: high cushing

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414
Q

Dexamethasone supression test for Cushing

A

dexamethasone administration woul decrease cortisol levels

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415
Q

Presentation of pseudoparathyroidism

A

Seizures, muscle cramping, hyperreflexia, basal ganglia calcifications and cataracts- are sign of hypocalcemia.

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416
Q

Vit D deficiency related changes in Ca and pphos

A

Ca and phos are decreased

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417
Q

Scuvadiving an epistaxis

A

barotrauma, generally decongestants and pain control

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418
Q

Macrocytosis (MCV >110 fL), diarrhea and neurologic symptoms

A

Vit B12 def - Diarrhea from celiac sprue, bacterial overgrowth or pancreatic insufficiency can be seen with vitamin B12 deficiency because these are malabsorptive syndromes. Also pernicious anemia

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419
Q

folate deficiency does not cause neurologic deficits

A

develops faster than B12 def, but is often asymptomatic. Causes include nutritional deficiency, alcoholism, malabsorption, pregnancy, chronic hemolytic states and the administration of drugs that interfere with folate metabolism (for example, trimethoprim and methotrexate).

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420
Q

MCC of travelers diarrhea

A

E.coli

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421
Q

gas gangrene in a diabetic foot, pathogen?

A

C. perfringens

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422
Q

Carcinoid tumor presentation with and without metastasis

A

cutaneous flushing, abdominal cramps, bronchospasm and diarrhea, Gastrointestinal carcinoids that have not yet metastasized are much less likely to produce carcinoid syndrome, because the liver metabolizes and clears the portal blood of the vasoactive substances.

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423
Q

Carcinoid tumor cardiac complications

A

Right-sided endocardial fibrosis, with pulmonary stenosis and tricuspid regurgitation

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424
Q

Hypersensitivity types

A

Describe all and examples.

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425
Q

extrahepatic manifestations of hep B

A

polyarteritis nodosa, and glomerulonephritis.

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426
Q

Elderly, smoker, Recurrent pneumonia in same place, and imaging also shows some scarring

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma , in young patients and non-smokers may think of carcinoid tumor.

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427
Q

Indications for screening for lung cancer

A

55-80 years with Hx of 30 packs/year AND currently smoking or stopped within the last 15 years. Diagnosis is with CT and done yearly.

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428
Q

SIADH management

A

1st water restriction, and if still asymptomatic demeocycline

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429
Q

The best diagnostic test for diagnosing endobronchial obstruction

A

Is flexible bronchoscopy is the best first initial tool to assess persistent or nonresolving pneumonia, if they ask about the next step in management would have been CT chest.

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430
Q

Well’s score

A

3 Signs of DVT, alternate diagnosis less likely. 2.5 Previous PE, DVT, HR>100, Recent surgery or immobilization. 1 hemoptysis and cancer. > 4 PE likely

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431
Q

PE presentation

A

sudden onset pleuritic chest pain ( hurts with inspiration and movement), loud S2, friction rub, hypoxia, tachypnea and tachycardia, can have small pleural effusion ( in the setting of pulmonary infarction due to inflammation)

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432
Q

V/Q scan pretest results

A

If normal rules out PE, if abnormal ( saying low , medium probability) then it DOES NOT RULE IT, AND IF HIGHLY SUSPECTED BASED ON WELLS START ANTICOAGULATION. High probability on V/Q scan confirms PE

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433
Q

Test of choice for diagnosis pneumothorax in the acute setting

A

Bedside US ( in the ED, ICU). In non acute setting is the UPRIGHT POSTEROANTERIOR CHEST X RAY

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434
Q

Patients with OSA are at higher risk for residual anesthesia effect and decreased respiratory drive

A

True because there is decrease in pharyngeal muscle dilator tone, and they have prior propensity for obstructive apneic or hypoapneic events.

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435
Q

patients with respiratory failure due to residual anesthesia effect

A

respiratory acidosis with normal anion gap, and hypoxemia typically correct with supplementary oxygen.

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436
Q

Atelectasis when do they occur?

A

2-5 days POP, hypoxemia fails to correct with O2 and it is elevated anion gap.

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437
Q

cough variant asthma presentation

A

nonproductive cough triggered by exercise(particularly cold weather), allergens, and forced expiration. Occurs also at night and can present chest tightness. Wheezing and rhonchi are often absent

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438
Q

cough variant asthma tto

A

same as asthma, but If cough is resistant to bronchodilators or inhaled corticosteroids then leukotriene receptor agonists (montelukast) can be used

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439
Q

upper airway cough syndrome

A

sam is postnasal drip

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440
Q

Indications of palivizumab in bronchiolitis

A

Preterm birth <29 weeks, chronic lung disease of prematurity, hemodynamically significant congenital heart disease.

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441
Q

Complications of RSV

A

Apnea ( those premature, chronic lung disease and congenital heart failure are more likely to develop), and respiratory failure

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442
Q

Labs in pertussis

A

lymphocyte predominant lymphocytosis: > 20,000 with >50% lymphocytes.

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443
Q

Why does tachycardia in asthma exacerbation occurs, is it contraindication for albuterol?

A

hypoxia– activates carotid chemoreceptors that release catecholamines drom adrenal gland, not a contraindication to give albuterol.

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444
Q

Weight loss in COPD

A

Pulmonary cachexia syndrome: =<20 BMI or weight loss > 5%. Caused by: 1. Increased WOB, caloric use, energy imbalance- 2. Inflammation 3. skeletal muscle hypoxia and sometimes glucocorticosteroids.

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445
Q

tto of pulmonary cachexia syndrome

A

optimization of lung function, nutrition supplementation, and exercise.

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446
Q

asthma exacerbation+fever, malaise, brownish sputum, eosinophilia, patches in upper lobes

A

bronchopulmonary aspergillosis – do either allergy skin testing for Aspergillus or IgE.

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447
Q

tto of bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

MAINSTAY IS ORAL STEROIDS , and also voriconazole or itraconazole.

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448
Q

How to differentiate pulmonary contusion from pulmonary embolism

A

pulmonary contusion often occurs in the setting if blunt trauma, has SOB, chest pain, tachycardia, hypoxia BUT respiratory ss can present even 24 hours after insult, and the XRAY SHOWS IRREGULAT , LOCALIZED OPACIFICATION.

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449
Q

tto of pulmonary contusion

A

supportive- pulmonary hygiene, supplemental oxygen, pain management. Most resolve by 3-5 days.

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450
Q

patients with pulmonary contusion are at higher risk of pneumonia

A

true but prophylaxis antibiotics are not indicated

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451
Q

Why is the hypoxemia in COPD

A

low V/Q mismatch. Poor ventilation leads to hypoxic vasoconstriction.

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452
Q

Why do COPD patients that are hypoxic improve with supplemental oxygen

A

despite low V/Q mismatch, supplemental oxygen is able to reach alveoli, decrease the vasoconstriction increasing Q, and overal V/Q.

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453
Q

Croup presentation

A

Inspiratory stridor, cough, hoarseness

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454
Q

Croup tto

A

mild(no stridor at rest): humidified air +/- corticosteroids. Mod/severe (stridor at rest): corticosteroid + racemic epinephrine.

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455
Q

Suspects croup, next step?

A

TREAT! CORTICOSTEROIDS. NO NEED FOR IMAGING, DX is clinical.

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456
Q

STOPBANG Questionnaire for OSA

A

Snoring, Tiredness during day, Observed apnea or chocking/gasping, Pressure high, BMI>35, aGE>50, Neck size M>17 and women >16, Gender Male.

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457
Q

Elimination of bedtime alcohol and smoking are preferred strategies for isolated snoring- no OSA

A

TRUE

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458
Q

Factors increasing the malignancy of solitary nodule

A

Large size (>2cm), Female, advanced age, smoker(previous or active), personal or familiar hx of Ca, spiculated, upper lobe

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459
Q

Algorithm of solitary nodule.

A

say It

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460
Q

hypotension and hypoxemia in the absence of infiltrates, requiring intubation

A

massive pulmonary embolism- patients can have massive RH strain causing RBBB, dilation of the RV and tricuspid regurgitation

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461
Q

suspect massive PE, next step

A

bedside Echo, but first stabilize the patient like with intubation

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462
Q

postextubation stridor and hypoxemia, what is it and tto?

A

laryngeal edema, re-intubate if impending respiratory failure

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463
Q

Signs of impending respiratory failure

A

pH<7.35 AND PCO2>45. clinical signs of respiratory failure, , RR > 25 X 2 HRS, Hypoxemia

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464
Q

RF for extubation failure

A

weak cough, frequent suctionin, poor mental status, positive fluid balance, pneumonia as initial cause of respiratory failure, Age > 65, Comorbid conditions

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465
Q

Administration of multiple doses of corticosteroids prior to intubation can prevent laryngeal edema and extubation failure

A

TRUE

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466
Q

Acute respiratory failure due to OSA postop causes

A

hypoventilation (evidenced by bibasilar atelectasis in the chest X ray) and hypercapnic and hypoxic respiratory failure. With respiratory acidosis.

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467
Q

definition of acute bronchitis

A

persistent cough> 5 days up to 3 weeks, cough can present with purulent yellow or green discharge and this is associated with epitelial sloughing. 90% have a previous URI

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468
Q

Presentation of acute bronchitis

A

persistent cough > 5 days up to 3 weeks, can have purulent sputum, rhinchi at auscultation that clear when coughing. , wheezin, chest wall tenderness an mild dyspnea.

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469
Q

tto of acute bronchitis

A

symptomatic( NSAIDs and bronchodilators), no antibiotics! If pt has fever, suspect bacterial pneumonia or bronchitis with influenza

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470
Q

Spirometry in symptomatic and asymptomatic asthma

A

asthma overall has decreased FEV1/FVC and normal or high DLCO. In symptomatics if we give albuterol there is increase of FEV1 > 15%, and in asymptoamtic and we give metacholine there is a reduction of FEV >=20%

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471
Q

Elderly with confusion, hypothermia, tachypnea, hypoxia and hypotension, not responsive to fluids. Next step

A

Fluids + empiric antibiotics== qSOFA ( RR>22/MIN, AMS, SBP=<100)

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472
Q

qSOFA

A

( RR>22/MIN, AMS, SBP=<100) IF>=2

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473
Q

Inhaled bronchodilators in RSV, are they recommended?

A

Can be used but they do not show evidence that they reduce illness, admission rates, r length of hospital stay.

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474
Q

Patients with RSV are at risk of?

A

Apnea ( those premature, chronic lung disease and congenital heart failure are more likely to develop), and respiratory failure, AND RECURRENT WHEEZING 30%.

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475
Q

Low dose chest CT in lung cancer, if positive what is the probability of having cancer?

A

<10%, has a false positive rate of 96%.So any postiive finding may need confirmation. Screening reduces 20% mortality.

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476
Q

Pulmonary embolism and fever

A

15%, likely due to pulmonary necrosis in the setting of infarction.

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477
Q

risk factors for TTN

A

cESAREA, PREMATURE, MATERNAL DM.

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478
Q

Chest X ray finding in TTN

A

Hyperinflatio (flattened diaphgram), mild cardiomegaly, prominent vascular markings, fluid in the interlobal fissures, and pleural,.

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479
Q

prognopsis of TTN

A

usually resolve by 72 hrs and no long term complicatiosn

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480
Q

Management of tension pneumothorax

A

Needle decompression ins appropriate in the acute setting where cardiac arrest is imminent. However, needle decompression must ALWAYS be followed by chest tube placement. In patients that you identify pneumothorax but there is not yet a big compromise chest tube is the answer!

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481
Q

Patient 6 yo who had rhinorrhea 6 weeks ago and since then has only has cough, day and night, next step?

A

spirometry, think this can be cough variant of asthma. And also a chest X ray.

482
Q

two most important predictors of surivival en COPD

A
  1. FEV 2. AGE. BUT THE SINGLE MOST IMPORTANT IS FEV!!!!!!
483
Q

LYMPHOCYTE PREDOMINANT PLEURAL EFFUSION

A

Malignancy and TB

484
Q

Tb in pleural effusion

A

lymohaocyte predominant and elevated adenosine deaminase leve.

485
Q

Suspect TB due to pleural effusion, and imaging on chest X ray, next step

A

pleural effusion biopsy

486
Q

acute bronchitis can cause hemptysis

A

true, so do a chest X ray not a CT scan, to rule out other causes malignancy, focal infection, or cardiac disease.

487
Q

first line tto for OSA in children

A

tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy,

488
Q

Varicose vein tto

A

elevation and compression stocking, if not helpful after 3-6 months, can try sclerotherapy. Surgical ligation is done for ulcers , bleeding, or recurrent thrombophlebitis.

489
Q

Impact of decreasing smoking in COPD

A

Will decrease exacerbations, and the risk of developing cancer.

490
Q

Management of chocking

A

<1 year: back blows >=1 year: abdominal thrust and old alternate between abdominal thrust and back blows.

491
Q

whixh is the most reliabke marker to confirm endotracheal intubation?

A

persistent capnographic waveform

492
Q

What decreases mortality in sepsis

A

aggressive fluid administration and broad spectrum antibiotics- should be given within 1 hour of presentation to the hospital- after cultures have been drawn.

493
Q

Patient who you suspect PE and impaired renal function, next step

A

V/Q scan

494
Q

TB in HIV patients

A

Those with CD4 count high mount response and cause typical apical, cavitary lesion. In those whom CD4 is very low, causes lobar, pleural or disseminated infection. As pleural effusion are generally a hypersenstitivity reaction to M. tuberculosis, pelural fluid smear is generally aseptic. so pleural biopsy is needed. IF hHIV is newly diagnosed, ARTis often delayed 1-2 weeks after initiating TB tto

495
Q

best initial test for studying hemoptysis

A

Chest X ray

496
Q

When to give antibiotics in COPD exacerbation

A

increased sputum purulence, increased sputum quantity, or increased dyspnea. Also need for mechanical ventilation.

497
Q

mcc of hemoptysis

A

acute bronchitis– a trial of antibiotics needed if increased sputum quantity or purulence, dyspnea.

498
Q

Choking and then turns unconcious, next step

A

CPR once unconcious.

499
Q

medical conditionst greatest risk for POP Pulmonary complications

A

COPD, Cigarrette smoking, Sleep apnea, CHF,

500
Q

iNCENTIVE SPIROMETRY AND Deep breathing exercised to decreas POP lung complications have little to no benefit.

A

true,and we still do it.

501
Q

ST depression in V1-V2, where is the infarct

A

posterior wall

502
Q

Aspirin decreases mortality in infarct by ___

A

25%

503
Q

Anterior MI - artery and ECG leads

A

LAD V1-V6

504
Q

Inferior MI artery and ECG leads

A

RCA/LCX II, III, AVF - associated with

505
Q

Which type of infarct is associated with SINUS BRADYCARDIA and AV blocks due to increased vagal tone?

A

Inferior MI

506
Q

Lateral MI

A

LCX , elevation of I, AVL V5 and V6

507
Q

Right ventricle MI

A

RCA ST elevation V4-V6R + INFERIOR LEADS

508
Q

How do you recognize ventricular aneurysm in ECG?

A

Persistent ST elevation after recent MI, and deep Q waves in same leads.

509
Q

Prognostic indicators in CAD

A
  1. LV function > 50% ( if less, poor prognosis)
  2. Vessels involved
  3. Left main coronary artery –poor prognosis
  4. 2-3 vessels CAD
510
Q

MC cause of sudden cardiac arrest post MI

A

Vfib

511
Q

Types of arrhythmias after infarct

A

<10 min: phase 1a ventricular arrythmia- is reentrant

10-60 min: phase 1b- abnormal automaticity

512
Q

tto of cardiogenic shock

A

Dx Echo, swan Ganz

tto ACEi and urgen revascularization

513
Q

Valve rupture tto

A

ACEi, Nitroprusside, intraaortic balloon pump as bridge to surgery

514
Q

Nitroglycerin vs Nitroprusside

A

NG: smooth vessel relaxation, acts in both arteries and venins but more in veins. cleared via liver
NG–> 1,2 glyceroldinitrate + nitrate –> NO

Nitroprusside - same mechanism but nO SELECTIVITY FOR VEINS.

  • decreases BP very fast
  • cleared via RBC- produce cyanide
  • Administration warrants BPmonitoring.
515
Q

SE ACEis and ARBs

A

CATCHH

Cough, angioedema, teratogen , increased creatinin, hyperK, hypotension.

516
Q

The most common cause of death from CHF

A

Arrhythmia/Sudden death

517
Q

BIG FIB Cortisol

A
High blood pressure - increase sensitivity to alpha 1 receptors in arterioles- so epinephrine and norepi can join. in excess acts at mineralocorticoid receptor (aldosterone)
Insulin resistance (DM)
increased gluconeogenesis, proteolysis, lipolysis

Decreases fibroblasts (Striar)
Decreases immune and inflammatory response ( causes demarginzalization, inhibit production of leukotrienes and PGs, reduces eosinophils).
decreases bone formation

518
Q

Sources of hypercortisolism and low dose dexamethasone test

A
  • Adrenal - no suppression with dexamethasone
  • Pituitary- suppression with dexamethasone
  • Ectopic ACTH production ( lung tumor) no suppression
519
Q

Difference between Cushing Syndrome and Cushing disease

A

Syndrome is MCC exogenous

Disease: pituitary overproduction of ACTH (70%) or ectopic (small lung)

520
Q

If suspecting cushing next step

A

24 hour urine cortisol, midnight salivary cortisol, low dose dexamethasone ( would only suppress cortisol if ACTH produced by pituitary)

Then measure ACTH
Then can do MRI , petrosal vein sampling or chest CT

521
Q

How does hypercortisolism causes metabolic alkalosis

A

Cortisol has both mineralocortioic effects in the kidney. increase hydrogen ion excretion at the distal collecting duct

Also causes hypoK

522
Q

BIT and MAT of hypercortisolism

A

BIT : 1 mg low dexamethasone ( normally suppresses morning peak)

MAT: 24 hour urine cortisol

late night salivary cortisol( normally should be low)

523
Q

If hypercortisolism and ACTH high, next step?

A

high dose dexamethasone- if pituitary origin will suppress ACTH

If ectopic, will not suppress

524
Q

If there is a pituitary lesion causing Cushings and it cannot be removed, or there is residual hyperfunctioning, what meds are helpful?

A

Pasireotide (somatostatin analog)

Mifepristone ( helps with hyperglycemia)

525
Q

Causes of PTH independent hyperCa

A
Malignancy 
Granulomatosis 
High vit A and D
Milk Alkali Syndrome 
excess Ca intake 
thyrotoxicosis
thiazides
immobilization
526
Q

Causes of primary hyperPTH

A

Adenoma, hyperplasia , Cancer
Osteitis fibrosa cystica
familial hypocalciuric hyperCa
lithium

(high ALP,cAMP)

527
Q

Causes of secondary hyperPTH

A
CKD
Vit Deficiency 
TUmor lysis syndrome
pacnreatitis
sepsis
PseudohypoPTH
528
Q

Causes of primary hypoPTH

A

Resection ( QZ)
Polyglandular autoimmune syndrome
Infiltrate ( metastasis, wilson, hemochromatosis)
DiGeorge)

529
Q

Presentation of hypoCalcemia

A
seizures
tetany 
Chvostek sign 
ipsilateral facial muscle contraction caused by tapping the facial nerve
Trousseau sign 
carpopedal spasms by inflating the sphygmomanometer above systolic blood pressure
QTc prolongation 
laryngospasm

CHRONIC BASAL GANGLIA CALCIFICATION AND CATARACTS

530
Q

Tto of hypoCa

A
  1. asymptomatic or patients with chronic hypocalcemia
    oral calcium replacement therapy such as (calcium
    citrate, calcium carbonate)
    vitamin D supplementation
    thiazides for patients with hypoparathyroidism
  2. symptomatic patients
    IV calcium gluconate is the first-line
  3. chronic renal failure
    phosphate binders
    oral calcium replacement
    calcitriol
531
Q

tto hyperCa

A

Mild 11-12: Nothing, or NS
Moderate 12-14: only is ss: NS or calcitonin
Severe > 14:
Always treat
NS (Calcium dehydrates)-acute tto
Calcitonin ( inhibit resorption)-acute tto
Biphosphonates (Zolendronic acid)– mostly long term

If the cause is sarcoidosis+ granulomatosis+ lymphoma: add steroids

Avoid thiazide and loop diuretics– they increase Ca.

532
Q

Tto of hypoparathyroidism

A
  1. high doses of VitD ( vit D preferred over 1,25 hydroxivitD because cheaper and effective)- high doses because there is defective 25 hydroxy vitD conversion to 1,25 due to low pTH
  2. Calcium
  3. Thiazides
533
Q

Patient with hypoparathyroidism treated with Ca and Vit D has increased Urinary calcium excretion, why and next step

A

because there is low PTH who usually causes resorption of Ca in the kidney)

Add a thiazide - decreases urinary Ca excretion and increases Ca in blood

534
Q

Patient who had sex with woman and condom broke, asymptomatic and wants to be tested for infection. which test

A

HIV p24 and antibody screening.

Chlamydia only if high risk patient ( men-men, or with urethral discharge)

535
Q

Patient with hypercalcemia , next step?

A

PTH

536
Q

HyperCalcemia related to Malignancy - causes

A

PTHrP ( Small cell cancer, renal and bladder, breast, ovarian) PTH activity.

Bone metastasis ( Breast, MM)- increased osteolysis

1,25 hydroxyvit D ( Lymphoma)- increase Ca reabsorption

537
Q

Patient with central hypothyroidism, low cortisol. next step

A

ACTH level and ACTH stimulation test

538
Q

Treatment of hypoaldosteronism

A
  1. measure cortisol, give IV fluids plus hydrocortisone (provides both mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid)
  2. Prednisone for stable patients(nonhypotensive)
  3. Fludrocortisone (steroid highest in mineralocorticoid content) for adrenal insufficiency with continued hypotnesion after prednsione.
539
Q

hypertension + low renin+ low potassium

A

hyperaldosteronism

540
Q

BIT hyperaldosteronism

A

plasma aldosterone/plasma renin– has low renin

541
Q

Most common causes of meningoencephalitis in children

A

enterovirus (coxsackie, echovirus)
HSV
West nile

542
Q

Can lyme cause encephalitis

A

no

543
Q

Parathyroidectomy indications

A

> 50
symptomatic hypercalciuria (> 1 g/dl above normal)
end organ involvement ( osteoporosis, CKD, nephrolithiasis)
urinary Ca >400mg/day
T score < 2.5

544
Q

MEN 1 Pancreatic manifestations

A

pancreas or gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumors:

Gastrinoma (recurrent peptic ulcer)
Insulinoma
VIPoma (diarrhea, hypoK,hypoCl)
Glucagonoma

545
Q

organisms in non gonococcal urethritis

A

Gram stain with leukocytes no organism

Chlamydia
ureaplasma urealyticum
Mycoplasma genitalium (moxifloxacin)
Trichomona Vaginalis

546
Q

Patient who had urethritis treated with azithromycin, comes 2 weeks later due to persistent ss, next steps?

A

reswab and gram stain.

NAAT

547
Q

Most cases of unsuccessfully treated Non gonococcal urethritis with azithro are caused by ____ and treated with ______

A

Mycoplasma genitalium and moxifloxacin

548
Q

Reservoir of human rabies

A

USA: bats (most common) racoons, skunks, foxes

developing countries: dogs

549
Q

Presentation of rabies

A

Encephalitis: hydrophobia and aerophobia ( due to laryngeal spasm), autonomic instability (fever, tachycardia), spasticity, agitation and altered mental status

Paralytic: ascending paralysis

550
Q

postexposure prophylaxis for rabies

A

Ig and vaccine if not able to test animal or observe

551
Q

pROGNOSIS OF RABIES

A

Coma, respiratory failure and death within weeks.

There is no treatment, mainly palliative. RABIES IS A VIRAL INFECTION

552
Q

rabies is a viral infection

A

YES

553
Q

Milwaukee protocol for rabies

A

experimental, therapeutic coma and antiviral. Currently it is not recommended.

554
Q

Treatment of gestational diabetes once pt has delivered

A

stop insulin

do a fasting glucose within 24-72 hours after delivery

then at 6-12 weeks postpartum do a glucose tolerance test

They should be screened every 3 years because they have higher risk of developing DM2

if patient had diabetes prior to gestation, usually keep half of the insulin dose required for pregnancy

555
Q

treatment of congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

hydrocortisone

556
Q

Patient with parkinson on carbidopa/levodopa and depressive ss, tto?

A

sertraline. 50% of Parkinson patients have depression

557
Q

treatment of trichomoniasus

A

single dose of MTZ 2 g. If patient. isbreastfeeding, milk should be expressed and discarded for 24 hours.

558
Q

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

A
most common
excellent prognosis
lymph node spread
orphan annie nuclei
psammoma bodies
hx of head and neck radiation 
braf and ret mutations
associated with gardner syndrome and cowden
559
Q

Patient with papillary carcinoma, next step?

A

US of the neck and lymph nodes, to asses extension. and determine treatment

560
Q

Treatment of papillary carcinoma

A

Simple lobectomy: <1 cm and no lymph node involvement
Total thyroidectomy: large papillary, extrathyroid extension, distant metastasis, in pts with head radiation

Neck dissection: involvement of neck structures and lymph node.

561
Q

Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid

A
Solitary cold nodule
Hematogenous spread
good prognosis 
hx of head and neck radiation 
uniform follicles that invade the capsule of the thyroid
562
Q

Medullary thyroid cancer presentation

A

Sporadic type: elderly
Familial: MEN, RET

Parafollicular cells: calcitonin– so hypoCa
Can produce ACTH
Dx sheets of cells with amyloidosis

563
Q

Management of DKA

A

sAY IT

564
Q

Hx of abdominal surgery (14-17 days ago), fever, leukocytosis, pain. in the shoulder

A

right subphrenic abscess

565
Q

Hx of abdominal surgery (14-17 days ago), fever, leukocytosis, pain in the shoulder. next step?

A

Abdominal US

566
Q

Patient with bipolar disorder on lithium experiencing depressive ss, and subclinical hypothyroidism. Why and next step

A

Lithium interferes with synthesis and release of thyroid hormone. Goiter in 50% and 20-30% present hypothyroidism.

Lithium induced hypothyroidism- treat with levothyroxin

567
Q

Vit D deficiency cutoff values for diagnosis

A

Deficiency < 20 ng/ml

Insuffienciey 20-30

568
Q

Treatment of Vit D

A

Cholecalciferol(Vit D3)50,000IU/weekle for 8 weeks until to achieve >30.

Maintenance: 1500-2000IU/day
Malabsorption:3000-6000IU/day

569
Q

Presentation and management of nonfunctioning pituitary adenomas

A

hypogonadism and low gonadotropins levels
SERUM ALPHA LEVELS INCREASED
Can have compressive ss like headache blurred vision if big.
transphenoidal surgery. - radiation just as adjunctive if there is something left from the surgery.

FSH has both alpha and beta subunits, dysfunctional pituitary adenoma cells just secrete alpha.

570
Q

patient with ataxia, loss of propioception and vibration, tingling + anemia, next step?

A

vit B12-subacute combined degeneration

THink of pernicious anemia if there is other autoimmune disorder such as hypothyroidism.

571
Q

POEMS SYNDROME

A

ENDOCRINOPATHY WITH POLYNEUROPATHY

Polyneuropathy.

Organomegaly. Enlarged spleen, liver or lymph nodes.

Endocrinopathy/edema. Abnormal hormone levels that can result in an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism), diabetes, sexual problems, fatigue, swelling in your limbs, and problems with metabolism and other essential functions.

Monoclonal-protein.

Skin changes. More color than normal on your skin, red spots, possibly thicker skin, and increased facial or leg hair.

572
Q

When correcting for moderate TO severe VitB12 deficiency, which electrolye you have to monitor?

A

K

Hypokalemia results from uptake of newly form RBCs
So monitor for 24 hours
Some physicians transfuse a package of RBC before treatment with Vit B12

aLSO FOLIC ACID AND IRON GO DOWN

573
Q

What causes molluscum contagiosum

A

DNA pox virus

574
Q

TTO OF molluscum contagiosum

A

1.cryotherapy
indications:well tolerated in adolescents and adults
can be too painful for young children, especially with multiple lesions
2.topical podophyllotoxin 0.5% cream
indication:ideal for genital lesions
3. cantharidin
indication: treatment is applied topically in the office and blistering occurs hours later
ideal for children with multiple lesions

575
Q

lesions that resemble molluscum contagiosum in HIV patients

A

Cryptococcal

576
Q

CSF fluids characteristics of cryptococcal meningoencephalitis

A

Extremely high opening pressure >250-300 ( yeast and capsule clog the arachnoid villi, prevents csf outflow and ICP)
low leukocyte count < 50 , but lymphocyte predominance

577
Q

tto of cryptococcal meningoencephalitis

A

3 stages:
Induction: amphotericin B and flucytosine >=2 weeks ( until ss abate)
Consolidation: high dose oral fluconazole for 8 weeks
Maintenance: low dose oral fluconazole for >= 1 year ( in HIV pts can be discontinued after a year if CD4 >100 or if viral load undetectable for 3 months)

578
Q

Difference between primary, secondary and tertiary syphilis

A

Primary: painless chancre

Secondary: Rash, LAD, Condyloma lata, oral lesions, hepatitis

Tertiary: CNS(Tabes dorsalis, Argyll Robertson)
Cardiac(aortic aneurysm, aortic insufficiency)
Gummas

579
Q

What is Tabes Dorsalis

A
Degeneration of dorsal column
orthopedic pain (charcot joints)
Reflexes decreased 
Shooting pain 
Argyl Robertson pupil
Locomotor ataxia
Impaired propioception
580
Q

Treatment of primary, secondary and early latent (< 1 year)

A

Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million U IM SINGLE DOSE

581
Q

Treatment of late latent (> 1 year), unknown duration, gummas, or CV syphilis

A

Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million U IM weekly for 3 weeks

582
Q

Treatment of neurosyphilis

A

Aqueus penicillin 3-4 million units IV Q4H for 10-14 days

583
Q

Treatment of congenital syphilis

A

Aqueus penicillin 50,000 units/kg/dose IV Q8H for 10 days-

584
Q

Alternative for penicillin in syphilis tto

A

Doxy, and for neurosyphilis ceftriaxone.

Pregnant need desensitization

585
Q

Patient with cryptococcus meningoencephalitis who is being treated but has headache, emesis, and signs of ICP. next step?

A

serial lumbar punctures until ss resolve

yeast and capsule clog the arachnoid villi, prevents csf outflow, and causes increased ICP.
Occasionally some pts may require VP shunt

586
Q

Patient with newly diagnosed HIV who has cryptococacal meningoencephalitis, when do you start antiretroviral therapy

A

2-10 weeks after initiating treatment for meningitis

587
Q

Antiretrovirals should be started independent of the CD4 count

A

true

588
Q

Antiretrovirals decrease the risk of transmission to sexual partners

A

true

589
Q

What type of drug is Canagliflozin, Dapagliflozin

A

SGLT2 inhibitors- Sodium glucose co-transporter. increase renal glucose excretion by decreasing reabsorption

590
Q

MOA SGLT2 inhibitors (Canagliflozin, Dapagliflozin)

A

Sodium glucose co-transporter. increase renal glucose excretion by decreasing reabsorption

591
Q

SE SGLT2 inhibitors (Canagliflozin, Dapagliflozin)

A
Euglycemic DKA ( IF fasting, major illness, intense exercise, excessive alcool) - glucose is < 250
UTI/Vulvoganial candidiasis
Hypotension,
AKI
HyperK
Hyperlipidemia
592
Q

MOA Thiazoladinediones

A

Activate PPAR gamma (Peroxisome proliferator activated receptor gamma) and decreases insulin resistance

593
Q

SE Thiazoladinediones

A

weight gain
Fluid retention – so CI in HF or pulmonary edema
Myalgia
URI
Increased risk for hepatitis, bladder cancer, osteoporosis

594
Q

What drug class is exenatide?

A

GLP-1 agonist

incretin mimetic - activate GLP-1 receptors

595
Q

MOA GLP-1 agonist (Exenatide)

A

incretin mimetic - activate GLP-1 receptors - delayed gastric emptying, stimulate release of insulin, suppresses appetite.

596
Q

SE GLP-1 agonist (Exenatide)

A

pancreatitis,
decreased weight
Nausea,Vomit, diarrhea
Black box warning for Thyroid Cancer ( Liraglutide)

597
Q

DPP4 inhibitors and MOA

A

Sitagliptin, saxagliptin

inhibit degradation of incretins (GLP1,GIP) increasing insulin release

598
Q

SE DPP4 inhibitors

A

Nasopharyngitis
Pancreatitis
Steven Johnson

599
Q

Sulfunylureas names and MOA

A

Glipizide, glyburide

Block K channels in B cells causing depolarization- Ca enters and releases insulin

600
Q

Sulfunylureas relation with B blockers

A

Avoidbecause B blockers can masl sympathetic response of hypoglycemia
They also decease the release of insulin

601
Q

SE of sulfunylureas (Glipizide, glyburide)

A

hypoglycemia, Weight gain, SIADH

602
Q

MOA metformin

A

Stimulates AMK
decreases gluconeogenesis
increases insulin sensitivity

603
Q

SE metformin

A

Lactic acidosis
GI distress
Weight loss
Vit B12/Folate def

CI in renal falures (creat >=1.5) or in contraststudies.

604
Q

Thyroiditis de Quervain tto

A

NSAIDs and B blocker

605
Q

Difference in presentation between hypoaldosteronisn and addison disease

A

Hypoaldosteronism: usually asymptomatic, hyponatremia not that evident if cortisol normal. NO FRECKLES , RENIN, NOT ACTH stimulates Aldosterone

Addisson: weight loss, fatigue, myalgias, ACTH causes hyperpigmentation,

606
Q

Dx of Addison disease

A

low morning cortisol and increased ACTH

607
Q

Patient with monucleosis like ss, oral painful ulcer, rash in the body involving palms and soles. Hx of unprotected sex 2-4 weeks

A

Acute HIV infection

2-4 weeks post exposure
Mononucleosis like ss ( fever, LAD, sore throat)
Generalized rash
GI ss
Painful mucocutaneous ulcer ) mouth)

Leukopenia, thrombocytopenia

608
Q

Dx of HIV

A

HIV antigen
HIV1/HIV2 antibody
HIV viral load

609
Q

Recommendations when taking levothyroxine

A

take 30-60 minutes prior to breakfast on an empty stomach

Calcium, iron, PPIs, sucralfate decrease the absorption, so calculate to administer these 3-4 hours apart.

610
Q

Drugs that increase metabolism of thyroid hormone

A

CPR
Carbamazepine,
phenytoin, rifampin

611
Q

Parents asking if HIV kid can go to school and if there are any restrictions? Do they need to disclose with school?

A

Can go to school without restrictions
Can play all sports, and standard precautions should be taken if there is blood

They do NOT need to disclose with school, is voluntary
may be beneficial for school to monitor for infections though

612
Q

primary amenorrhea, good breast development , no pubic hair/axilla, Dx?

A

Androgen insensitivity Syndrme - X linked mutation in androgen receptor

613
Q

Diabeitc with foot ulcer, how do you rule out osteomyelitis?

A

initial screen at bedside is probe to bone testing
If negative do MRI.

MRI will have changes even < 5 days from onset.

614
Q

Diagnosis of Hepatitis C

A

requires positive HCV antibody and HCV NAT (which measures HCV RNA)

615
Q

What are the diabetic medications that an cause hypoglycemia the most? and particularly in renal failure

A

Sulfunylrueas (Glipizide, glyburide)

Meglitinide(Nateflinide, repaglinide)

616
Q

Pregnant women at 26 weeks 50 g oral glucose challenge 145, next step?

A

If 50 g oral glucose challenge >=140 the do glucose tolerance test (100g)and check each hour after 3 hours. cutoff fasting, 1,2,3 hr:95, 180,155, 140 ( if equal or above in >=2 Dx of gestational)

617
Q

Target glucose levels in GDM

A

Fasting =< 95

1 hour postprandial =<140 or 2 hour postprandial =<120

618
Q

Insulin in GDM decreases the risk of shoulder dystocia

A

yes, reduces risk of macrosmia and shoulder dystocia.

619
Q

Diabetic meds ok to use during pregnancy

A

Insulin, metformin, glyburide

620
Q

Nelson’s syndrome

A

enlargement of an adrenocorticotropic hormone-producing tumour in the pituitary gland, following surgical removal of both adrenal glands in a patient with Cushing’s disease.

can manifest with compressive ss - hemianopia, and hyperpigmentatiion due to increase ACTH

pituitary enlargement due to the loss of feedback

now the tto for cushing is transphenoid surgery rather than bilateral adrenelctomy

621
Q

impact of improved glucose level on peripheral arterial disease?

A

NONE, this is considered macrovascular (MI, stroke)

The only things that can be improved: nephropathy, retinopathy.

622
Q

Patient with nodule in thyroid that is confirmed to be medullary cancer, next step?

A

measure plasma free metanephrines

623
Q

What should you order in every patient with medullary thyroid cancer

A
calcitonin
CEA antibody
Neck US
Abdominal US
Plasma free metanephrines

If no metastasis- thyroidectomy

624
Q

Difference between bacterial joint infection vs. Lyme arthritis

A
Lyme: 
Arthritis tend to present weeks or months after the insult. 
Knee swelling and mild pain
ABLE TO BEAR weight
well-appearing
no fever, no leukocytosis 

Synovial fluid 20,000-60,000 with neutrophil predominance.

In bacterial: fever, ill-appearing, no bear weight, synovial fluid with cell > 50,000

625
Q

Dx of lyme arthritis

A

ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) and Western blot

626
Q

Prognosis of Lyme arthritis

A

Patients are at risk of persistent or recurrent joint damage.

So they need antibiotic 28 days with doxy or amoxi.

Prognosis: most patients are disease free after antibiotic therapy

Rest and avoid impact sports until all symptoms resolve due to risk of further joint damage.

627
Q

Can a patient with lyme arthritis go back to play sports?

A

Rest and avoid impact sports until all symptoms resolve due to risk of further joint damage.

Patient will likely be cured after antibiotic tto

628
Q

Lyme arthritis tto in children

A

SAME,DOxy. has been approved even for < 8 years. Due to good CNS penetrance and excellent efficacy with coinfections (Anaplasma)

21 days instead of 28 for children

629
Q

tto of Lyme arthritis

A

28 days with doxy or amoxi.

630
Q

Synovial fluid in JIA

A

2,000-20,000 WITH 50-75% neutrophils

631
Q

CENTOR CRITERIA

A
CAFE 
Cough absent
Adenopathy
Fever
Exudates tonsillar 

3 or more: rapid antigen detection test for strep

632
Q

tto for strep pharyngitis

A

10 days of penicillin V or amoxi

if penicillin allergy:10 days cephalexin or 5 days azythro

633
Q

tto for acute bacterial sinusitis

A

1st line: amoxi-clavulanate 5-7 days

Alternative doxy or fluoroquinolone

634
Q

Diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis

A

Any of the following:

> =10 days of ss
=3 days of severe ss, high fever, purulent discharge, face pain,
Worsening of ss >=5 days after initially improving upper respiratory illness

635
Q

Patient who had intercourse with HIV man, was tested and was negative a month ago. next step?

A

repeat HIV antibody (p24) and HIV1/HIV2 antibody.

Window period: first 4 weeks after exposure the titles may be very low causing a false negative.

636
Q

Before starting antiviral therapy in HIV patient, test for ____

A

Hep B , some antivirals have dual activity against hep B and HIV

HIV patients also screened for TB, HCV, and STIs

637
Q

Definition of failure to thrive

A

weight below 5th percentile , or downtrending weight crossin 2 or more major percentiles.

Inadequate calorie intake
Calorie malabsorption (Celiac, CF)
Increased Calorie use ( Congenital heart disease, hyperTSH)
638
Q

TTO OF ACUTE CYSTITIS IN PREGNANT WOMEN

A

Nitro, Cephalexin, amoxi-clavulanate, fosfomycin for 3-7 days

639
Q

Fluoroquinolones should be avoided in pregnancy

A

toxic to fetal cartilage development

640
Q

TMP -SMX effects in PREGNANCY

A

1ST TRIME:neural tube defects due to folate antagonist

3rd trim: neonatal kernicterus

641
Q

tto pyelonephritis in pregnant women

A

IV Ceftriaxone, once afebrile for 48 hours can place on oral antibiotic for 10-14 days.

642
Q

RF for acute pyelonephritis in pregnancy

A
<20
nulliparity
pregestational DM
sickle cell disease or trait 
tobacco use
643
Q

Complications of pyelonephritis in pregnant

A

pulmonary edema
respiratory distress syndrome
preterm labor
low birth weight

644
Q

Treatment of acute HepB

A

Most cases of acute Hep B will RESOLVE SPONTANEOUSLY (even if elevated transaminases) - outpatient and serial follow-up would be tto.

Hospitalization if severe symptoms, fever, hemodynamically unstable, encephalopathy, > 50 years, impaired hepatic synthetic function.

645
Q

When do you consider antiretroviral therapy for hep B

A

Most cases of acute Hep B will RESOLVE SPONTANEOUSLY (so just supportive tto is needed)

But antiretrovirals for: immunocompromised, Hep C, severe hepatitis, fulminant hepatitis

entecavir (Baraclude), tenofovir (Viread), lamivudine (Epivir), adefovir (Hepsera) and telbivudine (Tyzeka)

646
Q

3 criteria for acute liver failure

A
  1. Hepatic injury (elevated transaminases)
  2. encephalopathy
  3. INR >=1.5
647
Q

after initial Hep B infection, when. do transaminases normalize as well as HBV DNA levels

A

transaminases 2-8 weeks
HBV DNA at 6 m
If patient persist with HBV DNA levels after 6 months this is consider chronic hep B

648
Q

Why identification of viral genotype is helpful in chronic Hep B infection

A

genotype A has better response to interferon therapy

649
Q

Percent of patients with Hep B that evolve to chronic?

A

Depends on age:

  1. perinatally: 90%
  2. 1-5 years 20-25%
  3. Adults 5%
650
Q

In which patients is metformin contraindicated

A

renal failure, hepatic dysfunction, alcohol abuse, sepsis and congestive heart failure

651
Q

Patient on metformin undergoing cardiac catheterization, should it be held?

A

Yes, because of contrast. Should be held the day of the procedure and restart 48 hours after the procedure.

652
Q

pregnant women with hypothyroidism asking about dosing of levothyroxin

A

increase by 30% at the time of a positive pregnancy test and check every 4 weeks.

653
Q

Thyroif changes. inpregnancy

A

1st trim: BHCG joins the TSH receptors producing T4 AND T3 that given negative feedback and decreases production of TSH
Estrogen –increases TBG -increasing total T4 and T3
2nd trim

654
Q

High dose dexamethasone test in Cushing interpretation

A

If suppresses ACTH then is pituitary, if it does not suppress it can be adrenal or ectopic.

655
Q

non supressive high dose dexamethasone and low ACTH , indicates origin is in?

A

Adrenal gland

656
Q

Patient with meningococcal meningitis, who needs postexposure prophylaxis?

A
  • Family-household member
  • Roomates or intimate contacts
  • Childcare center workers
  • patients directly exposed to respiratory or oral secretions ( kissing, mouth to mouthesucitation, intubation)
  • person seated for more than >=8 hours to infected person ( airline traveler)

**coworkers, classmates or teachers do not need

657
Q

what is the postexposure prophylaxis for meningococcal meninigits

A
  1. 4 doses oral of Rifampin ( inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA synthesis by inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase)
    OR
  2. 1 dose of IM Ceftriaxone (safe in pregnancy)
    OR
  3. 1dose oral of ciprofloxacin
658
Q

Inactivated (killed vaccines)

A

Polio

Hep A

659
Q

Toxoid vaccines (inactivated toxin)

A

Diphteria, tetanus

660
Q

Live attenuated vaccines

A

MMR + Varicela + Rotavirus

661
Q

Subunit conjugate vaccines

A

Hep B , HIB, Pneumococcus, meningococcus, pertussis, influenza(injection), HPV

662
Q

CHILDREN OF PREGNANT women can be vaccinated with live vaccines?

A

YES!

  • If children develops rash from varicella vaccine, then isolate mom. but otherwise ok/
663
Q

popcorn calcification in pulmonary nodule indicates

A

benign finding, pulmonary hamartoma

664
Q

Benign signs of solitary pulmonary nodule

A

smooth, popcorn calcification, concentric, laminated CENTRAL, or diffuse homogeneous calcification

665
Q

Malignant characteristics of pulmonary nodule

A

Corona radiata or spiculated

Eccentric, reticulare, or punctuate calcification

666
Q

Presentation of prolactinoma

A

PRL decreases GNrh

In premenopausal women: oligo/amenorrhea, infertility, galactorrhea, hot flashs, osteoporosis

In postmenopausal: more compressive ss (headache, vision problems)

667
Q

Complications prolactinoma

A

osteoporosis

668
Q

Dx of prolactinoma

A

PRL >200
Rule out renal insuff and thyroid
MRI brain

669
Q

Tto prolactinoma

A
dopamine agonists (cabergoline, bromocriptine)
Trans sphenoidal surgery
670
Q

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia mechanism

A

AD, mutation on calcium sensing receptor (CaSR)
Ca levels are not high enough to cause negative feedback for PTH.
Also because of the mutation there is increased Ca reabsorption

671
Q

Presentation of chagas besides cardiomegaly

A

Biventricular heart failure R>L
Ventricular apical aneurysm
mural thrombosis and embolic complications
Fibrosis leading to conduction abnormalities - arrhythmias

672
Q

Chagas is a protozoan

A

true

673
Q

Patient with acute limb ischemia/arterial thrombosis, next step in management?

A

Heparin followed by emergency surgical revascularization

IV heparin bolus followed by continuous infusion

*** Heparin followed by imaging CT angiography would be reasonable if there is viable limb– capillary refill intact, color, mild pain.

674
Q

acute limb ischemia– when does irreversiblemyonecrosis occurs

A

4-6 hours

675
Q

Factitious vs Malignering disorder

A

BOTH ARE CONSCIOUS

Factious: consciously creates physical and/or psych ss yo assume sick role and to get medical attention (PRIMARY GAIN)
on self- Munchahausen Sx
on others- Munchhausen by proxy
think of healthcare workers

Malingering: consciously fakes, profoundly exaggerates or claims to have a disorder in other to attain specific 2dary GAIN.
-Different to factitious, complaints cease after obtainin gain)

676
Q

organisms in intraabdominal abscess

A

bacteroides fragilis, e.coli

677
Q

patient with fever, pain in knee, wrists, hand joints, and pustules in hands.

  • history of inconsistent condom use
  • dx and next step?
A

Disseminated gonoccocal infection

- NAAT urogenital specimen

678
Q

Disseminated gonococcal infection presentation

A

inconsistent condom use
present with oligo or polyarthritis
or the triad of:
1. Dermatitis - 2-10 pustules in the distal extremities
2.Tenosynovitis- swelling and pain with passive extension of multiple tendons
3. Polyarthralgia

679
Q

presentation of parvovirus in adults

A

often asymptomatic

may present with fever, arthritis/arthralgia, and reticulated or lacelike rash

680
Q

Gonoccal infection treatment

A

DUAL THERAPY:
single dose of IM Ceftriaxone
single dose of azythromycin, regardless of the Chlamydia status, to limit antibiotic resistance

** Doxycycline 7 days can be used instead of azytrho if allergy

681
Q

mutiple cutaneous papules with central umbilication in HIV patients, which is the organism

A

Cryptococcus

head and neck preferred location

682
Q

Mycobacterium avium skin lesions

A

polymorphous , rash, papules, nodule or ulcer

683
Q

Pyoderma gangrenosum is associated with

A

IBD

684
Q

Patient with HIV with cryptococcus skin lesions (resemble molluscum), what would yield the diagnosis

A

Biopsy of the lesion (will show encapsulated yeasts)

685
Q

treatment of cutaneous cryptococcocis

A

2 weeks of amphotericin B + Flucytosine

Followed by 8 weeks of fluconazole

686
Q

Presentation of diphteria

A
Corynebacterium diphteria (toxin)
<15 yo, unvaccinated

fever, malaise, sore throat
pharyngitis (grey patches, pseudomembranous ) scrapping causes bleeding

COMPLICATIONS: toxin mediated myocarditis, neuritis renal disease

687
Q

Complicatios of diphteria infection

A

toxin mediated myocarditis(complete heart block, heart failure)
, neuritis (peripheral neuropathies) - NO MENINGOENCEPHALITIS
renal disease

688
Q

Treatment of diphteria

A

Erythromycin or penicillin G

For severe Diphteria anti-toxin

689
Q

Guillain Barre caused by either URI or GI infection, examples of organisms involved

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Campylobacter

690
Q

Healthcare provider that was exposed to HIV through pts needle, next step?

A

start prophylaxis within 1-2 hours, and continue for 4 weeks

Then do HIV testing agan at 6 weeks and 4th months

691
Q

Human bites most common organisms

A

MC: Eikenella(gram negative anaerobe)
others: viridians, s.aureus, fusoacterium

692
Q

Management of human bites

A

irrigated, debridates,
LEAVE OPEN (UNLESS THE FACE) FOR SECONDARY INTENTION CLOSEURE
+Antibiotic (Amoxi-clavulanate)

693
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis

A

clean + immunized ( 3doses): give vaccine only if last booster >=10 years
clean +(unimmunized, unknown, <3 doses): vaccine

dirty + immunized : give vaccine if last >=5 years
dirty + unimunzed: Vaccine + Ig

694
Q

patient with HIV bites another person, risk of HIV transmission?

A

VERY LOW! if patient has undetectable viral count

695
Q

Antibiotic used for human bites

A

Amoxi-clavulanate

696
Q

Acute rheumatic fever cause and presentation

A

Untreated Strep A pharyngitis - murmur

JONES FEAP
Joint( migratory arthritis)
Ocarditis
Nodules (subcutaenous)
Erythema marginatum 
Syndeham chora
Minor cirteria:
Fever
Elevated CRP, EST
Arthralgias
 Prolonged PR interval
697
Q

Kid with emotional liability, decline in school performance distal hand movements that progress to facial grimacing and jerking, hypotonia global, pronator positive, relaxation of patellar reflex is delayed and MURMUR. dX

A

Sydenham chorea due to ARF

698
Q

Sydenham chorea due to ARF

A

Kid with emotional liability, decline in school performance distal hand movements that progress to facial grimacing and jerking, hypotonia global, pronator positive, relaxation of patellar reflex, ballisumus is delayed and MURMUR.

699
Q

When do carditis and Sydenham chorea develop after strep A pharyngitis untreated?

A

carditis : 3 weeks

syndenham chorea: 1-8 months

700
Q

Kid with emotional liability, decline in school performance distal hand movements that progress to facial grimacing and jerking, hypotonia global, pronator positive, relaxation of patellar reflex is delayed and MURMUR. next step?

A

echo! carditis
ARF

ALSO IS Syndenham chorea

701
Q

treatment of Acute Rheumatic Fever and complications

A

Penicillin continued until adulthood to prevent recurrence of ARF

Corticosteroids can be given but only in the severe cases, they can decrease the duration

702
Q

Why is aspirin avoided in children

A

Reye syndrome: acute non-inflammatory hepatic encephalopathy resulting in fatty liver as a result of viral infection treated with aspirin

nausea and sudden-onset vomiting
diarrhea
lethargy
irritability
restlessness
delirium
seizures
coma

increased LFTs, ammonia,
CT with cerebral edema

703
Q

Teenager with 3cm firm mass subareolar, cervical LAD, next step?

A

Observation and reassurance

Pubertal gynecomastia

  • normal to have a < 4 cm firm, mass, subareolar can be bilateral or unilateral
  • No pathologic signs: galactorrhea, axillary LAD, systemic illness
704
Q

prognosis of Pubertal gynecomastia

A

resolves in 1 year

705
Q

Iodine induced thyrotoxicosis presentation

A

patient who had nodulat thyroid disease, in the setting of dietary iodine deficiency , develop areas of autonomous functioning thyroid tissue.

When exposed to radiocontrast (i.e., cardiac cath), amiodarone, topical antiseptics this triggers thyrotoxicosis due to increase iodine available

706
Q

treatment of Iodine induced thyrotoxicosis

A

b blockers initially

but consider thionamides for persistent hyperthyroidism ( 4-6 weeks), severe ss, or older pts with underlying cardiac condition

707
Q

treatment of toxic megacolon by C. diff

A

IV metronidazole and high dose oral vanco

708
Q

Patient with acute prostatitis on Cipro who develops C.diff infection. Next step?

A

Stop cipro, initiate vanco andTMP-SMX

709
Q

High risk antibiotics - associated with C. diff

A

clindamycin, fluoroquinolones, 3-4th generation cephalosporin, carbapenems, monobactams

710
Q

Low risk antibiotics - associated with C. diff

A
MATT
Macrolides
aminoglyceosides
tetracyclines
TMP/SMX
711
Q

Treatment of C.diff recurrence

A

oral vancomycin 2-8 weeks OR

10 days of fidaxomicin

712
Q

tto of C.diff in patients wi have ileus

A

rectal vanco + IV metronidazole

713
Q

How long do pts with infectious mononucleosis have to avoid sports?

A

avoid sports for >=3 weeks (>=4 weeks contact sports)

714
Q

rash from EBV often erupts after inappropriate administration of amoxi or ampi

A

likely immune mediated to derivatives of penicillin

THIS IS NOT CONSIDERED A TRUE ANTIBIOTIC REACTION

715
Q

tto of Kawasaki

A

IVIG

716
Q

prognosis of mononucleosis infecciosa

A

ss will improve but fatigue can last even for >6 months

- pts with preexistent mood disorders are at higher risk of chronic fatigue

717
Q

Classification of C.diff infection

A

non severe CDI
severe CDI (Leukos >=15,000, and or serum creat >=1.5)
Fulminant (hypotensin, ileus, megacolon)

718
Q

Complications of untreateated chlamydia or gonorrhea

A
PID
Ectopic pregnancy 
pharyngitis
Infertility
Disseminated gonococcemia
719
Q

Complications of untreated chlamydia in pregnant women

A

preterm premature rupture of membranes
preterm labor
postpartum endometritis

720
Q

Fetal Complications of untreated chlamydia

A

neonatal conjunctivitis

neonatal pneumonia

721
Q

RF for abruptio de placenta

A

HTN , cocaine use

722
Q

RF for pyelonephritis in pregnancy

A

untreated bacterirua, DM, smoker

723
Q

tto of cardiovascular manifestations (i.e Afib, atrial flutter) in hyperthyroidism

A

b blokers, block sympathetic activity

724
Q

Treatment of pediatric pneumonia

A

preschool age or focal findings (can be even air bronchograms) –likely S. pneumonia –> high dose amoxi

older age, diffuse finding– azythromycin

725
Q

Organisms causing OMA

A

S.pneumonaie
NON TYPABLE Hemophilus influenza
Moraxella catarrhalis

726
Q

Treatment of Acute otitis media

A

1st Line: Amoxi
2nd line Amoxi-Calvulanate

If allergy to penicillin:azithromycin or clinda

727
Q

Complications of Acute otitis media

A

TM rupture
hearing loss
Mastoiditis
MENINGITIS

728
Q

Otitis media + purulent conjunctivitis (otitis-conjunctivitis syndrome), which organism

A

non-typeable HiB

729
Q

Dx of OMA

A

Bulging TM

Effusion ( limited motility to insufflation) + TM inflammation

730
Q

When is myringotomy and tympanostomy tubes placement indicated in OMA

A

persistent effusion for more than 3 months
OR >=3 episodes in 6 months
OR >=4 episodes in 1 year

731
Q

timeframe and characteristics of postpartum thyroiditis

A

up to 1 year after pregnancy
hyperthyroid ss + thyroid peroxidase antibody, low RAIU
High thyroglobulin
have a hypothyroid state prior to returning to euthyroid state

732
Q

Management of influenza

A

healthy patients >48 hrs of ss onset:sympttomatic care with acetaminophen

Patients with< 48 hrs should be treated with Oseltamivir, as well as ptswith high risk of complications regardless of duration:
Age >65
Woman who are pregnant and women up to 2w postpartum
Underlying medical condition
Immunosuppression
morbid obesity
Nursing home and chronic care facility residents

733
Q

Oseltamivir MOA

A

ihibiting the activity of the viral neuraminidase enzyme found on the surface of the virus, which prevents budding from the host cell, viral replication, and infectivity.

734
Q

Who should receive Oseltamivir for influenza?and why?

A

reduce duration of illness, and complications ( pneumonia)

Patients with< 48 hrs should be treated with Oseltamivir,

as well as pts with high risk of complications regardless of duration:
Age >65
Woman who are pregnant and women up to 2w postpartum
Underlying medical condition
Immunosuppression
morbid obesity
Nursing home and chronic care facility residents

735
Q

HIV associated lypodystrophy is associated with 3 things, and how does it presents

A

insulin resistance,dyslipidemia, cardiovascular complications

  1. Lipoatrophy: loss of subcutaneous fat - skeleton appearance
  2. Fat accumulation: dorsocervical fat “buffalo hump” and visceral abdominal fat - increase abdominal girth (Despite loss of subcut fat)

can have either one or both.

736
Q

Treatment of antiretroviral therapy associated displipidemia, hepatoesteatosis

A

statins - rosuvastatin, atorvastatin, pravastatin

737
Q

pregnant women with HIV, indications to do vaginal vs. cesarea delivery

A

Avoid artificial ROM, fetal scalp electrodes, operative vaginal delivery

If Viral load <= 1,000:ART +vaginal delivery
If viral load >1,000: ART +Zidovudine +cesarean delivery

738
Q

postpartum management of both mom and infant HIV

A

mom: ART
infant: if maternall viral load =<1,000: Zidovudine for >=6 weeks
If maternal load > 1,000: ART

739
Q

Can mom with HIV breastfeed baby? even if both receiving treatment?

A

NO, give formula

740
Q

CI of breastfeeding (7)

A
active untreated TB
HIV infection
Varicella
Herpetic lesions
Chemo/radiation
substance use
Galactosemia
741
Q

Pre exposure prophylaxis of rabies

A

vaccine at 0,7,&21 or 28 days

742
Q

Postexposure prophylaxis for rabies in unvaccinated

A

rabies vaccine 0,3,7,and 14 days
Rabies Ig on day 0

If vaccinated: vaccine on days 0& 3

743
Q

Postexposure prophylaxis for rabies in vaccinated

A

vaccine on days 0& 3

if unvaccinated :rabies vaccine 0,3,7,and 14 days
Rabies Ig on day 0

744
Q

Benefits of hormone replacement therapy

A

remember estrogen/progesterone for those with uterus
estrogen alone for hysterectomy

Benefits: decrease menopausal ss, decrease all cause mortality (< 60 years), decrease risk of colon cancer, DM2, bone mass/fractures

NO EFFECT ON ALL CAUSE MORTALITY >=60

745
Q

Detrimental effects of hormone replacement therapy

A
increased risk of 
DVT
breast cancer
coronary heart disease
ischemic STROKE
Gall bladder
746
Q

Most common organism causing Erysipelas

A

Group A Strep (S.pyogenes)

747
Q

Eryipelas presentation

A

superficial, red, edema, well demarcated
abrupt onset
systemic ss (fever)
often involves lower extremities but 5-20% can be in the face

748
Q

Indications of parathyroidectomy

A

Age < 50
Systemic hypercalcemia
Complications: osteoporosis, nephrolithiasis/calcinosis, CKD (GFR<60)
Elevated risk for complications: elevated Ca > 1 above normal, urine Ca 400mg/day

749
Q

CLABSI stands for

A

Central line associated blood stream infection

  • usually associated to skin organisms: coagulase negative staph, s.aureus, candida, gram -.
750
Q

Duration of ___ with a central line increases the risk of CLABSI

A

6 days

751
Q

Organism that causes Herpangina

A

Coxsackie A

752
Q

Presentation of Herpangina

A

summer
3-10 yo kids

fever, malaise,drooling, sore throat, decreased appetite
vesicles in palate

753
Q

tto of herpangina

A

saline gargles
antipyretics
analgesics

cold popsicles
* ss resolve in a week

754
Q

prevention of herpangina transmission

A

hand washing

755
Q

how to differentiate herpangina from herpes

A

herpangina has vesicles mostly in back of the palate and tonsills, while herpes is most anterior mucosa, gingiva, and perioral skin. They look sicker.

756
Q

triad of mono

A

fever, diffuse bilateral cervical LAD, exudative pharyngitis

757
Q

although less common in acute HIV, patients with HIV experience seborrheic dermatitis

A

TRUE! may complain of dandruff and scaly rash

758
Q

Pregnancy complications of subclinical hypothyroidism

A
recurrent miscarriages
severe pre-eclampsia
pre-term birth
low birth weight
placental abruption
759
Q

Chest Xray findings in TB

A

apical cavitation 70%, bilateral hiliar LAD, pleural effusion

760
Q

Patient with respiratory ss and X ray concerning for TB, next step for dx?

A

sputum sampling and culture

3 sputum samples in a 8-24 hr period, one of them early morning. And send sputums for acid fast bacillus smear, mycobacterial culture and NAAT

ALTHOUGH tuberculin and IFgamma are also for screen these do not differentiate for latent vs. active.

761
Q

3 sputum tests for acid fast bacilli are negative but tuberculin test is positive, how to interpret?

A

patient may have active TB still, await for the rest of the results. – from mycobacterium culture and NAAT

If those are negative then latent infection.

762
Q

3 related thyroid syndromes related to amiodarone

A
  1. Decreased peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. Patients are clinically euthyroid—- no tto needed
  2. Increased iodine from amiodarone inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis leading to primary hypothyroidism –> levothyroxine
  3. Amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT):
    AIT 1: increased thyroid hormone synthesis
    AIT2: destructive thyroiditis –steroids
    In both TSH is low.
763
Q

Aspirin in high doses (>2g/day) displace displaces thyroid hormone from TIBG leading to hyperthyroid ss

A

true

764
Q

propanolol decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A

true

765
Q

MCC of Traveler’s diarrhea

A

E.coli

766
Q

Diarrhea +prominent abdominal pain+ pseudoappendicitis +bloody diarrhea. ORGANISM?

A

Campylobacter

767
Q

Organisms to think about > 2 weeks diarrhea

A

Cryptosporidium/Isospora/Microsporidia
Cyclospora
Giardia

768
Q

Patient in whom you suspect herpes zoster, next step?

A

Dx can be just clinical

Oral VALACYCLOVIR - reduce the risk of transmission, formation of new lesions, and postherpetic neuralgia

769
Q

Precautions for localized and disseminated herpes zoster infection

A

localized: standard precautions and lesion cover
disseminated: contact and airborne precautions

only healthcare providers immunized should be allowed to come in.

770
Q

Cause of acromegaly

A

Overproduction of GH- Leading to soft tissue overgrowth

MCC Pituitary adenoma

771
Q

Presentation of acromegaly

A
increased hat, ring, show
Carpal tunnel syndrome, OSA
Body odor ( sweat gland hypertrophy)
Coarsening facial features, teeth widening from jaw growth
Deepening, voice
Colonic polyps and skin tags

HTN
CARDIOMEGALY, HTN, DIASTOLIC DYSFUNCTION
ERECTYle dysfunction due to increased prolactin cosecreted from pituitary
INSULIN RESISTANCE

772
Q

Best initial test for acromegaly

A

IGF1

Most accurate: glucose suppression test ( glucose should suppress GH normally)

773
Q

tto of acromegaly

A
  1. Transphenoidal resection of pituitary
  2. Cabergolin: (dopamine inhibit GH release)
    Octeotride (somatostatin inhibit GH release)
    Pegvisomant (GH antagonist)
  3. Radiotherapy
774
Q

If patient with acromegaly is not treated is at risk of dying from?

A

cardiovascular disease!!

They also have increased risk of colon cancer

775
Q

Pediatric sepsis tto if =< 28 days and > 28 days.

MC organisms and tto

A

=< 28 days: E.coli and Group B strep(agalactiae)
Ampicillin + Gentamicin or Cefotaxime ( Cefotaxime preferred due to high risks of gent resistance and better CNS penetration)

> 28 days: S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis
Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime
+/- Vancomycin(when meningeal involvement is suspected)

776
Q

workup for neonatal fever

A
CBC
Blood culture
Urinalysis
urine culture
CSF cell count
CSF culture
777
Q

Abcs that should be avoided in neonates due to risk of hyperbilirubinemia

A

Cefriaxone and sulfas

778
Q

Patient with HIV and TB who was initiated on appropriate management, and comes back after 6 weeks with worsening of TB ss. What is happening

A

Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)

779
Q

Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) in HIV , how does it happen

A

Patients with HIV who start ART experience a potent immune recovery, CD4 improve and viral load undetectable. This renewed activity to fight to infection then causes a rebundant reaction if there is an ongoing infection–> paradoxical worsening and often occurs after weeks of initiating antiviral.

IRIS is transient, and no need for further changes in therapy or management is needed. –just symptomatic

780
Q

Patient with recent onset of amiodarone, now complaining of fatigue and weight gain think of?

A

hypothyroidism, in patients with chronic amiodarone therapy check TSH every 3-4 months.

781
Q

Dx of pheochromocytoma

A

24 hour urine fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines

or plasma free metanephrine

** sometimes can be falsely elevated if TCA or decongestants, so stop 2 weeks prior to test

782
Q

patient in whom suspect pheochromocytoma, positive 24 hour urine metanephrines and catecholamines, next step?

A

CT abdomen

If positive: surgical eval, genetic testing, alpha (phenoxybenzamine) and b blocker for BP control before surgery (usually 10-14 days) and if tumor > 5 cm and suspicion of extraadrenal disease do MIBG (METAIODOBENZYLGUANIDINE)

IF negative: MIBG, octeotride scan, whole body MRI or PET

783
Q

Patient with pheochromocytome undergoinf tumor resection, than becomes hypotensive. Next step?

A

IV fluid bolus, followed by infusion

Pressors if unresponsive

784
Q

Mechanism and tto of hypotension during pheocromocytoma removal

A

decrease in catecholamines after tumor removal

and persistent alpha blockage (phenoxybenzamine) prior to surgery

tto IV fluids and pressors if unresponsive

785
Q

Mechanism and tto of hypertensive crisis during pheocromocytoma removal

A

increase of catecholamine release due to endotracheal intubation and manipulation of the adrenal gland.

increase of NE with large tumors (> 4 cm)

tto: IV nitroprusside, phentolamine, nicardipine

786
Q

Mechanism and tto of hypoglycemia during pheocromocytoma removal

A

increase insulin following removal of tumor (catecholamines suppress insulin secretion)

IV dextrose infusion

787
Q

Mechanism and tto of cardiac arrhythmias during pheocromocytoma removal

A

increase cathecholamines due to adrenal handling

IV lidocaine or esmolol

788
Q

Patient complaining of erectile dysfunction, low testicular volume, bronze skin, high AST/ALT, , dX?

A

Hereditary Hemochromatosis AR

789
Q

tto Hereditary Hemochromatosis

A

therapeutic phlebotomoy— 1 united of blood every week (removes 250 mg iron) until iron levels normalize

790
Q

tto Wilson disease

A

penicillamine

791
Q

fever, drooling, tripod positioning, respiratory distress, stridor Dx and tto

A

Epiglotittis— bag valveask ventilation while preparing for INTUBATION
and then antibiotics: CEFTRIAXONE OR CEFOTAXIME PLUS VANCOMYCIN

792
Q

TTO of epiglottitis

A

INTUBATION

and then antibiotics: CEFTRIAXONE OR CEFOTAXIME PLUS VANCOMYCIN

793
Q

tto croup

A

racemic epi and corticosteroids

794
Q

Patient with HIV, not yet on ART with thrombocytopenia. Cause?

A

HIV associated thrombocytopenia- can occur at any time of disease
due to immune dysfunction or viral destruction of megakaryocytes.

rarely associated with bleeding

Just start ART as this may help. No need of corticosteroids unless bleeding.

795
Q

Virologic failure in HIV definition

A

failure to achieve < 200 copies/mL in 6 months of ART ( due to resistance or nonadherence)

796
Q

Goals of viral load with ART

A

<5,000 by a month of ART
<500 by 2-4 months of ART
< 50 BY 4-6 months of ART

797
Q

Patients with hemochromatosis are susceptible of which infections

A

listeria
vibrio vulnificus
yersinia enterocolitis

798
Q

RF for rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis

A

DM
Hematologic malignancy
Solid organ transplant

799
Q

tto rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis

A

surgical debridement and amphotericin B . once treated for a couple of weeks with amphotericin B it can be step down to other antifungal e.g.,posaconazole.

800
Q

Dx rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis

A

sinus endoscopy with biopsy and culture

801
Q

tto of actinomycosis

A

high dose penicillin

802
Q

tto aspergillosis

A

voriconazole

803
Q

tto nocardia

A

TMP-SMX – pulmonary or CNS (abscess) disease

804
Q

MCC of meningoencephalitis

A

enterovirus (coxsackie)
herpes
arbovirus ( West Nile)

805
Q

MCC of cellulitis vs. abscess

A

cellulitis: S.pyogenes ( poorly demarcated, flat and tender to palpation)
Abscess: S. aureus

806
Q

cellulitis presentation

A

poorly demarcated, flat and tender to palpation

+/- fever

807
Q

Exercise induced amenorrhea effect on bone, TRG

A

Osteopenia, osteoporosis
mild hyperTRG
infertility
breast and vaginal atrophy

808
Q

Patient with recent nasal septum surgery with nasal packs, that developed fever, hypotension, rash in palms and soles, vomiting, diarrhea. What does he have, and underlying mechanism

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

bacterial exotoxin production!

809
Q

tto for toxic shock syndrome

A

Extensive fluid replacement ( can be 20L day) + Clindamycin (prevent toxin synthesis)+ Vanco(erradicate organism)

NOT CORTICOSTEROIDS

810
Q

Presentation of POP atelectasis

A

2-5 days after surgery ( likely thoracoabdominal)
increased WOB and hypoxemia
Chest X ray with LINEAR OPACIFICATIONS

811
Q

Management of POP atelectasis

A

if no significant secretions : CPAP

if significant secretions: pulmonary hygiene, chest physiotherapy and frequent suctioning.

812
Q

Treatment of active TB

A

RIPE (Rifampin, Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol) x 2 months
RI x 4 months

813
Q

Treatment for latent TB (4 options)

A
  1. Isoniazid +Rifapentine weekly for 3 months under strict supervision ( not recommended in hIV)
  2. Isoniazid x 6-9 months
  3. Rifampin x 4 months
  4. Rifampin + isoniazid x 4 months
814
Q

patient with clinically high suspicion of bacterial meningitis and Gram stain negative, how to interpret?

A

check if the patient has been treated with antibiotics before
also pretreatment causes higher CSF glucose levels and less protein

815
Q

Vomiting predominant food born disease causes

A

S.aureus, B.cereus, Norovirus

816
Q

Patients with impaired fastign glucose levels are at risk of

A

coronary artery disease (even with normal lipid profile) and progression to overt DM

817
Q

impaired fasting glucose leves

A

100-126

Dx of DM: ABOVE 126

818
Q

When do you normally give Varicella vaccine

A

2 doses
12-15 months
4-6 years

819
Q

Absolute contraindications for varicella vaccine

A
anaphylaxis to neomycin
anaphylaxis to gelatin 
pregnancy 
immunossupressed state:
   congenital immunodeficiency
   long term immunosuppressive therapy
   hematologic or solid tumors
    severe HIV infection
820
Q

is it ok to vaccinate kid if there is a pregnant women or immunosuppressed family member at home?

A

YES, but careful watch for rash
if that happens isolate until the lesions have crusted over

  • if it happens immunosuppressed family member should receive Ig. ( within 10 days of initial exposure)
821
Q

reproductive effects of anabolic steroid use

A

decreased testosterone, LH, FSH
Testicular atrophy
decreased spermatogenesis
normal libido and erectile function (during use)
decrease libido and erectile dysfunction (during withdrawal)
gynecomastia/acne

822
Q

Heme and endocrine effects of anabolic steroid use

A

increased LDL, decreased HDL

Erythrocytosis

823
Q

acute cystitis can cause hematuria

A

true

824
Q

patient with recurrent UTIs, sexually active and has used spermicides

A

treat with antibiotics, and start postcoital antibiotic prophylaxis - TMP-SMX, nitro,cephalexin.

If these do not work may consider doing a renal US, but it is not the first choice.

825
Q

healthcare worker that was exposed to urinein his eyes of patient with HIV, next step?

A

follow-up counceling.

urine, feces, tears, and vomitus are considered NONINFECTIOUS IF there is no visible blood in it.

826
Q

high risk and possible risk fluids in HIV patients for transmission

A

high risk: blood, semen, vaginal secretions

possible risk:cerebrospinal synovial, pericardial, amniotic fluid

827
Q

duration of Postexposure prophylaxis for HIV

A

generally 4 weeks

828
Q

Patient with CNS infection and hyperglycemia, why is it caused?

A

stress hyperglycemia – seen in severe illnessess, due to increased release of catecholamines cortisol)

829
Q

RF for stress hyperglycemia

A
severe illness
temperature > 39C
sepsis
meningitis
admission to the ICU
830
Q

Stress hyperglycemia is associated with

A

increased morbidity

there is no relationship with subsequent development of DM,or altered glucose metabolism

831
Q

treatment of stress hyperglycemia

A

in adults avoid dextrose containing fluids, and insulin can be given to maintain glucose levels betwen 140-180.

In children there is no data

832
Q

Dx of DM

A

Random >=200
OR fasting >=120
OR hBa1c >=6.5
OR 2hr glucose >=200 tolerance test

833
Q

Treatment of TSH pituitary adenoma

A

Somatostatin analgo
Transphenoidal sx

** these tumors secrete biologically inactive alpha subunit and other pituitary hormones

834
Q

kid with cat bite in hand, clean. next step

A

prophylaxis with amoxi clavulanate, do not close, irrigate , and tentanus prophylaxis as appropriate

835
Q

wounds/bites with high risk of infection

A
crush injurie
cat and human bites
bites on hands and feet
 wounds on bodys > 12 hrs, or on face > 24 hrs
bite wounds in immunocompromised
836
Q

cat bite organism

A

pastereulla

837
Q

Should you treat asymptomatic bacteriuria? >100,000cfu/ml with a single organism

A

NO, usually resolves within 2 weeks. no need of additional testing either.

Only treat in pregnant women, undergoing urologic procedures, or within 3 months of kidney transplant.

NOT EVEN IN ELDERLY!

838
Q

diagnostic test for EBV

A

heterophile antibody test aka monospot test– which screens for IgM antibodie

839
Q

Patient with mono who hasdifficulty breathing, tonsills are huge almost to midline. Next step

A

admit and steroids

840
Q

steroid indications in EBV infection

A

airway obstruction
overwhelming infection
aplastic anemia
thrombocytopenia

841
Q

modification of short acting insulin during exercise

A

decrease the dose of short acting insulin within 1-3 hours prior to exercise, with the reduction proportionate to the intensity of the workout

If the exercise is prolonged > 60 minutes and will occur in the morning, the dose of basal (long acting) should be decresed too.

intake of additional carbs is recommended.

842
Q

Med of choice for hyperTSH in 1st trimester of pregnancy

A

PTU, metimazole should be used in the second and third trimester due to the risk of liver failure with PTU

843
Q

METhIMAZOLE teratogen effects in 1st trim

A

aplasia cutis, tracheoesophageal fistula, choanal atresia.

844
Q

egg allergy is nOT a contraindication for influenza!

A

true

845
Q

side effects of isoniazid

A

liver damage, can range from hepatitis to liver failure within the first 2 months.

  • should be discontinued with LFTs > 5 x UNL or > 3UNL with ss

if alcoholic is taking is very likely to have

846
Q

tto of TB in pregnancy

A

3 DRUG – RIE x2 , RI x7 months

give pyridoxine
monitor closely, these meds cross placenta but have not been assocaited with teratogen effects.

847
Q

Patient with HIV, CD4 count < 200, presenting with fever, peluritic chest pain, dry cough. At exam with murmur and chest X ray with nodular opacities. Dx?

A

Septic emboli secondary to infectious endocarditis

848
Q

Septic emboli secondary to infectious endocarditis, can look as nodular opacities in chest X ray

A

TRUE

849
Q

PCP in chest x ray

A

interstitial infilitrates/ground glass opacities

850
Q

urinary ss, terminal hematuria, peripheral eosinophilia. Dx?

A

urinary schistosomiasis (parasito) - SubSaharan Africa

851
Q

Dx of urinary schistosomiasis

A

urine sediment microscopy

852
Q

tto of urinary schistosomiasis

A

praziquantel

853
Q

effects of syphilis during pregnancy

A

IUGR, fetal demise, congenital syphilis

854
Q

transmission of malaria

A

bite from Anopheles mosquito

855
Q

prevention of malaria

A

there are antimalarial regimens prior to travel– depend on the typ eof malaria and resistance- atovoquone/proguanil, mefloquine, doxy

856
Q

presentation of malaria

A

periodic fever, headache, chills myalgia, THROMBOCYTOPENIA

857
Q

Dx of malaria

A

peripheral smear

858
Q

Differential dx of fever for returning traveler

A

incubation < 10 days: typhoid, dengue, chikunguya, influenza, legionella

incubation 1-3 weeks: malaria, typhoid, leptospirosis, schistosomiasis, rickettsial disease

> 3 weeks:TB, leishmania, parasites

859
Q

typhoid fever presentation

A

stepwise fever, non bloody diarrhea, relative bradycardia, rose spots

860
Q

tto typhoid fever

A

ciprofloxacin

861
Q

when do you receive tetanus vaccines

A

2,4,6m and 4 yo

862
Q

hookworm (Ancylostoma, necantor) presentation

A

abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, poor growth, weight loss
microcytic anemia
eosinophilia

863
Q

hookworm (Ancylostoma, necantor) tto

A

albendazole, nitazoxanide

864
Q

Complications of hyperthyroidism

A

arrythmia, cardiomyopathy

osteoporosis (T4 stimulate Ca and phosphorus release from bone)

865
Q

treatment pneumocystis jiroveci

A

TMP-SMX

866
Q

TTO Rickettsia

A

Doxy, including for children and pregnant

867
Q

presentation rocky mountain fever

A

north carolina
triad: fever, headache, rash
malaise, fever, lethargy
macular and petequial rash on wrists and ankles (around days 3-5 )- can spread to the trunk

labs: hyponatremia, thrombocytopenia, high ALT/AST

868
Q

complications of rocky mountain fever

A

encephalitis, pulmonary edema, bleeding shock

869
Q

Dx of Rickettsia

A

Ricktessia serology

Skin biopsy

870
Q

mode of transmission for rickettsia

A

tick

871
Q

treatment of chronic bacterial prostatitis

A

6 weeks of ciprofloxacin or TMP-SMX

872
Q

chronic bacterial prostatitis presentation

A

> 3 months with urinary ss, pain with ejaculation, genital discomfort.
exam can have mil hypertrophy, tenderness or edema

Dx with urinalysis before and after prostatic massage, ( or examination of expressed prostatic fluid)

873
Q

First line for Benign prostetic hyperplasia

A

Tamsulosin- alpha 1 agonist that relaxes the smooth muscle of the bladder neck.

874
Q

tto of Lyme for pregnant women

A

14-21 days of amoxi or cefuroxime

no risk for fetus!

875
Q

in which patients with DM do you start statin?

A

> =40 yo with DM type I or type 2

876
Q

Treatment cat scratch disease

A

Azithromycin

When it is not very clear can cover with clindamycin for Staph, and strep

877
Q

cat scratch disease can also cause meningoencephalitis in rare cases, tto?

A

doxi + rifampin

878
Q

who should be screened for osteoporosis with DEXA?

A

> =65

and postmenopausal < 65 with risk factors: low body weight, smoker, steroids, family hx of hip fracture

879
Q

When are biphosphonates indicated (3)

A
  1. osteoporosis
  2. osteopenia (-1 to -2.5) + history of fragility fx
  3. osteopenia (-1 to -2.5) + 10 year risk of osteoporotic fracture >=20% or hip fracture>=3% based on Frax
880
Q

Excessive drinking (3x/day) is associated with increased fracture risk

A

true

881
Q

estrogen and hepatitis increased TBG, need increase of levothyroxine dose

A

true

882
Q

Things that decrease the Thyroid binding protein

A

anabolic steroids
chronic hepatitis
hypoproteinemia (nephrotic sx)
glucocorticoids

883
Q

In type DM1 strict glycemic control can decrease the incidence of new neuropathyand slow the progression of already existing one! but this is NOT TRUE FOR DM 2!

A

In DM2 strict glycemic control will only help nephropathy and retinopathy.

884
Q

why do you whan HCV RNA PCR instead of antibodies

A
  1. Antibodies cannot say if it was past or active infection.
  2. Usually antibodies develop too late! 2-6 months after exposure, while RNA PCR within days up to 8 weeks.
885
Q

Hepatitis C presentation

A

Usually asymptomatic
nausea, jaundice, right upper quadrant pain
transaminases 10 to 20 times higher, high ALP, high bilirubin

886
Q

Resolved Hep C infection markers

A

Hep C antibodies positive, Hep C RNA PCR negative

887
Q

Treatment Giardia

A

Tinidazole, MTZ

888
Q

Who should be treated with Giardia

A

SYmptomatic and positive stool cultures. They should attain from water venues for 2 weeks.

No need to treat asymptomatic patients with positive stools.

889
Q

painless red macules that rapidly evolve to pustules/bullae, then quickly evolve to necrosis ulcer. +fever in immunosuppressed. Dx?

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum- pseudomonas

890
Q

how to differentiate Ecthyma gangrenosum vs clostridium myonecrosis

A

clostridium myonecrosis is painful, severe muscle pain, purple colored bullae

891
Q

tto ecthyma gangrenosum

A

piptazo+ gentamicin

892
Q

neurosyphilis can occur at any time, even during secondary syphilis.

A

it presents with meninigitis , posterior uveitis ( floaters), otosyphilis (hearing loss), can have Facial nerve compromis

eye: can have posterior uveitis, retinitis, optic neuritis

893
Q

SE of thyazoladinediones(pioglitazone)

A
HEART FAILURE, PULMONARY EDEMA - in patients with underlying cardiac condition
weight gain
myalgia
hepatitis
osteoporosis
high risk of bladder Ca

PPAR gamma receptors in kidney increase sodium reabsorption. These drugs are PPAR gamma agonists

894
Q

presentation Rubeola

A

cough, coriza, conjunctivitis, fever, koplik spots
cervical LAD
maculopapular rash cephalocaudal

895
Q

tto rubeola

A

supportive, vit A for those hospitalized

896
Q

presentation Roseola

A

high fever for 3 days, maculopapular rash develops once fever stops, nagayama spots ( erythematous papules found on the soft palate and uvula)

897
Q

Whipple’s triad

A

ss of hypoglycemia
documented hypoglycemia
resolution of hypoglycemia when glucose is given

898
Q

Hypoglycemia + Elevated insulin, C-peptide, proinsulin. next step?

A

serum assay for oral hypoglycemic agents

that setting can be either insulinoma or oral hypoglycemic agents (sulfonylureas)

if insulinoma the next step is Abdominal CT

899
Q

patient recently treated for Acute otitis media, now asymptomatic and at exam has retracted tympanic membrane with yellow fluid and decrease mobility. next step?

A

Watchful waiting.

He has serous otitis media or otitis media with effusion which can last up to 3 months.

If patient is asymptomatic no further tto
If symptomatic may consider antibiotic

900
Q

antihistamines and decongestants are not recommended in < 6 years due to SE.

A

true

901
Q

Definition of delayed puberty in males

A

lack of testicular enlargement (>=4ml) by 14 yo

902
Q

Causes of delayed puberty in males

A

due to inadequate secretion of testosterone

Primary hypogonadism: Klinefelter disease

Secondary hypogonadism
Constitutional growth delay 
Chronic illness
malnutrition
HypoTSH
Hyper PRL
Kallman syndrome 
Cranyopharyngioma
903
Q

Workup for delayed puberty

A

LH, FSH, testosterone, PRL, TSH,

904
Q

Dx of Klinefelter

A

Karyotype 47 XXY

905
Q

Adenovirus presentation

A

conjunctivitis, cervical LAD, pharyngitis, fever

ss last < 1 week

906
Q

children with 2 cervical LAD, painful. and conjunctivitis. All > 2 weeks, kittens at home

A

Oculoglandular Syndrome ( Parinaud Syndrome) can present in cat scratch fever

often when scratch occurs near the face. Unilateral LAD, conjunctivitis. Tends to be more chronic

907
Q

How to differentiate adenovirus presentation from oculoglandular syndrome from cat scratch fever.

A

Adenovirus: conjunctivitis, cervical LAD, pharyngitis, fever
ss last < 1 week

Oculoglandular sx:often when scratch occurs near the face. Unilateral LAD, conjunctivitis. Tends to be more chronic > 2 weeks.

908
Q

Complications of cat scratch fever

A

lymph node suppuration

909
Q

complication of adenovirus infection

A

keratitis

910
Q

complications of severe DKA

A

cerebral edema

911
Q

Dx of bacterial pharyngitis

A

throat culture or rapid strep test

if rapid strep test + : treat
if rapid strep test. -: then do throat culture

912
Q

tto of strep pharyngitis

A

penicillin or amoxicillin for 10 days

penicillin allergic: cephalosporin ( mild reaction) or azithro ( if anaphylaxis)

913
Q

when do you treat subclinical hyperthyroidism

A
TSH <0.1 OR
TSH between 0.1-0.5 PLUS: 
   Age >=65
   Cardiac disease
   Osteoporosis 
   Nodular disease
914
Q

patient with minor trauma in foot now with erythema and edema on the calf, fever, hypotension, pain out of proportion. Dx? Organism?

A

Necrotizing fascitis

S.pyogenes

915
Q

Types of necrotizing fascitis

A

I: in patients with DM or PAD (often polymycrobial)
II: in healthy people, precipitating factor: minor trauma, laceration ( S. pyogenes)

916
Q

tto of necrotizing fascitis

A

can be either polymicrobial (type I) or by GAS (Type 2)
so when not clear:

  • Pip tazo or carbapenem to cover S. pyogenes
  • Vancomycin S. aureus
  • Clinda - inhibit toxin formation from strep/staph
917
Q

After thyroid cancer resection how should you treat the patient?

A

levothyroxine.

Goal of TSH is normally low in normal range to avoid stimulation of resting Ca thyroid cells.

small risk tumor: Target TSH 0.1-0.5 for 6-12 months, then low normal range

intermediat: Target TSH 0.1-0.5

high risk tumor : target TSH <0.1

918
Q

PATIENT WITH DM who has elevated anion gap metabolic acidosis , think of ?

A

metformin related lactic acidosis

particularly in patients with renal disease, heart failure, liver disease and hypovolemia

919
Q

why do we give 10 days of amoxi or penicillin for strep pharyngitis

A

to prevent acute rheumatic fever
to prevent suppurative complications(peritonsillar abscess, cervical al lymphadenitis)
to decrease duration and severity
prevent spread to close contact

IT DOES NOT PREVENT GLOMERULONEPHRITIS

920
Q

Complications of strep pharyngitis

A

peritonsillar abscess
cervical lymphadenitis
acute glomerulonephritis
acute rheumatic fever

921
Q

When does post strep GMN develops

A

1-3 weeks after eithr cutaenous or pharyngitis

922
Q

mom infected with Hep B in third trimester. Management for baby

A

At birth: Vaccine and Ig
complete series of Hep B 0,2,6
At 9 months do serology HBsAg- if not detected not infected

There is no point of checkin transaminases before even if infected they remain asymptomatic and there is minimal elevation of enzymes.

923
Q

presentation of erysipelas

A

fever, nd acute rapdily progressive erythema well demarcated raised borders. S. pyogenes
can involve LAD– which. isdifferent from cellulitis and abscess

924
Q

tto of erysipelas

A

ampi, amoxi

925
Q

management of incidentalomas

A

adrenal incidentalomas: always study further even if patient asymptomatic:

24 hour urine catecholamines, metanephrines, VMA,

Surgical excision if: 1. functional, 2. malignant features 3. > 4 cm
rest can be observed

926
Q

Patient who needs CABG, and in workup found subclinical hypothyroidism.next step

A

best to do surgery right now (life threatening surgery)

if levothyroxine is started in MI can further worsen myocardial ischemia, or cause arrhythmia

Is ok to pursue surgery if there is. no myxedema or severe ss

927
Q

Definition of hypoglycemia

A

< 60

in newborns <45

928
Q

treatment of sporothricosis

A

3-6 months of oral itraconazole

929
Q

presentation of sporothricosis

A

papule-ulcer–odorless drain
proximal lesions along the lymphatic chain
LAD OR Systemic ss are rare

930
Q

difference in presentation between cat scratch fever and sporothricosis

A

cat scratch- prolonged fever, scratch, regional adenopathy ( can also have oculoglandular sx presenting with conjunctivitis )

sporotrichosis: starts with a papule that ulcerates, drain odorless. lesions are proximal to lymphatic chain. BUT IS RARE TO HAVE LAD OR SYSTEMIC SS

931
Q

When do you use reverse T3

A

low TSH to identify if it is central hypothyroidism (low t4 leads to low rt3) from euthyroid sick syndrome

932
Q

euthyroid sick syndrome why is it caused? tto?

A

aka low t3 syndrome

Peripheral conversion from T4 to T3 inhibited by increased cortisol, inflammatory cytokines, starvation, amiodarone, glucocorticoids.

No need to treat unless it persists when patient is back to his baseline.

933
Q

tratment of CAP

A

OUTPATIENT:
healthy: Macrolide or doxy
comorbidities Fluoroquinolone or B lactam +macrolide

FLOOR:
Levofloxacin
B lactam + macrolide

ICU
B lactam+ macrolide
B lactam + fluoroquinolone

934
Q

When do we use CURB 65 and what is it

A

to determine hospitalization and mortality in pts with pneumonia

Confusion
Uremia > 20
RR>=30
BP <90/<60
65 aGE >=65

1-2: LIKELY inpatient
3-4: urgen admission , icu

935
Q

Healthy male, with difficulty swallowing solid foods, sometimes chest pain below sternum, no weight loss. Dx?

A

Esophageal stricture–secondary to GERD that was untreated.
Presents with obstructive dysphagia difficulty swallowing solid food, prolonged and careful chewing, swallowing small proportion of foods.

936
Q

RF for rectal prolapse

A

prior pelvic surgery
women > 40 with multiple deliveries
increased intra abdominal pressure ( constipation, straining, BPH)
Stroke, dementia
pelvic floor dysfunction or anatomic defects

937
Q

Rectal prolapse presentation

different to hemorrhoids

A

mass extending through the anus with CONCENTRIC RINGS of mucosa.

  • difficulty defecation
  • pelvic discomfort BUT NOT PAIN
  • Diarrhea/fecal incontinence

Can be partial: only mucosa, or complete: full thickness

938
Q

tto of rectal prolapse

A

medical: if partial, sometimes able to reduce manually. recommend fluid intake fiber, pelvic floor exercises.
surgical: complete/full thickness, high risk. ofstrangulation!

939
Q

acute vs chronic radiation proctitis

A

acute: diarrhea, mucus discharge, tenesmus within 6 weeks of radiation. - treat symptomatic- antidiarrhea
chronic: similar ss + associated with stricture, fistula formation, rectal bleeding >9 weeks, – tto sucralfate corticosteroids

colonocospy in both can show pallor, friability, telangiectasis

940
Q

Carboxyhemoglobin effect on cardiac enzymes

A

can increase them and cause MI

It also causes lactic acidosis

941
Q

Complex regional pain syndrome cause and stages

A

injury causes increased sensitivity to sympathetic nerves, abnormal response to and sensation of pain (pain out of proportion), increased neuropeptide release causing allodynia

Stage 1. Burning pain, edema, vasomotor changes
Stage 2 worsening edema, skin thickening, muscle wasting
Stage 3. limited ROM and bone demineralization on X ray

942
Q

Dx of CRPS

A

autonomic testing to see high resting sweat output

or MRI

943
Q

tto of CRPS

A

sympathetic nerve block, regional anesthesia

944
Q

Complications of Sicca syndrome

A

dental caries, candidiasis, chronic esophagitis

945
Q

patient with dysphagia to solids and occasionally to fluids, weight loss, ear pain, next step

A

nasopharyngeal laryngoscopy

946
Q

2 main histopathologic types of esophageal cancer and location

A

Upper esophagus: squamous cell carcinoma ( alcohol, tobacco)

mid to lower esophagus: Adenocarcinoma (Esophago de Barret in GERD)

947
Q

Patient with oligoarthritis, uveitis, urethritis, recently with diarrhea. Dx?

A

Reactive arthritis - elevated WBCs with negative bacterial culture in synovial flui

948
Q

What is Reactive arthritis and why is it caused

A

spondyloarthropathy
Caused by genitourinary (Chlamydia) or GI (Salmonella, shigella, campylobacter, yersinia)

Causes peripheral asymmetric oligoarthritis +
uveitis, urethritis, achiles enthesitis, dactilitis, keratoderma blennorrhagica.

949
Q

tto reactive arthritis

A

NSAIDs, and antibiotic if urinary infection.

950
Q

complication of reactive arthritis

A

aortitis

951
Q

what percent of patients with rheumatoid arthritis have HLA-B27

A

30-50%

952
Q

Who are at risk of developing reactive arthritis

A

HLA-B27 and Chlamydia infection

953
Q

improvement of epigastric pain with meals

A

duodenal ulcer, they have worseing of ss at night because there is no meals.
Associated with H.pylori

954
Q

exacerbation of epigastric pain with meals

A

gastric ulcer

955
Q

H.pylori is associated with duodenal ulcers

A

true

956
Q

triple therapy for H. pylori

A

omeprazole, clarithro, amoxi

957
Q

How do you confirm eradication of H.pylori after tto

A

fecal antigen test or urea breath test 4 weeks after completion of therapy

H.pylori serology should not be used since is continues positive 1 year or more after eradication

958
Q

most sensitive examination finding for scoliosis

A

thoracic or lumbar prominence on forward bend test

scoliometer: if >=7 degrees (>=5 in obese): clinically significant scoliosis.

959
Q

if >=7 degrees (>=5 in obese): clinically significant scoliosis. , next step?

A

PA and lateral spine X rays.

960
Q

patient with suspicion of scoliosis, X ray shows Cobbs angle. What angle is diagnostic of scoliosis and how is subsequent management?

A

Scoliosis: >=10 degrees Cobbs angle

Mild: <20 - observation is ok
moderate 20-40: brace
severe >=40: surgery consult, probable spinal fussion

961
Q

complications of scoliosis

A

chronic back pain, pulmonary compromise

962
Q

management of sulfunylurea overdose

A

octeotride -somatostatin analogue that decreases insulin

963
Q

patient with DM on sulfunylurea with hypoglycemia event, not responsie to IV dextrose x. 3. next step?

A

octeotride

964
Q

Bone tumors associated with Paget Disease

A

osteosarcoma, giant cell tumor

965
Q

Presentation of Paget Disease

A

usually asymptomatic
Skull: deformity with enlargement, hearing loss, dizziness
Spine and pelvis: bone pain, spinal stenosis, nerve compression
Long Bones: BOWING deformities with an increase risk of fracture

CAN BE ASSOCIATED TO CHF

966
Q

suspect paget disease, next step

A

Ca and ALP
Phosphorus is normal
Radionuclide bone scan

967
Q

tto of Paget disease

A

biphosphonates

968
Q

prognosis of hearing loss in paget?

A

37% of patients have it

Calcitonin and biphosphonate may slow the progression but does not reverse the loss that has already occurred.

969
Q

2 conditions with high stool osmotic gap

A

lactose intolerance and celiac disease

970
Q

4 malabsorptive syndromes

A
  1. Lactose intolerance
  2. Chronic pancreatitis
  3. Celiac disease
  4. SIBO
971
Q

SIBO presentation

A

malabsorption
Macrocytic anemia
B12 def
+ lactuLOSE breath test

972
Q

Calculation of stool osmotic gap and interpretation

A

290mOsm - 2 (Na stool+ stool K)

< 50 secretory
>125 osmotic diarrhea

in between is indeterminate

973
Q

histologic findings celiac disease

A

villous atrophy, intraepithelial lymphocytic infiltrate and crypt hyprplasia

974
Q

treatment of dermatitis herpetiform in celiac

A

dapsone in addition to gluten-free diet

975
Q

patient diagnosed with celiac, what other things need to be done

A

check iron, folate, calcium, ABED
DXA at diagnosis ( repeat in one year if osteopenia)
Pneumococcal vaccine – due to associated hyposplenism

976
Q

patient being rescued from burning apartment , singeing of facial hair. What is she at risk?

A

supraglottic edema - inhalation injury

977
Q

Treatment of lead poisoning

A

mild ( 5-44) no medication and repeat labs 1 months
moderate (45-69) DSMA,succimer
severe (>=70) Dimercaprol PLUS EDTA

978
Q

Suspect Sjogren syndrome, next step

A

Anti Ro and Anti La antibodies

Schirmer test for tear production

979
Q

Patients with Sjogren syndrome are at risk of developing which type of tumor

A

B CELL LYMPHOMA - b cell activation in the setting of chronic inflammation

980
Q

Alternative for biphosphonates in Paget?

A

calcitonin

981
Q

76 yo man with pain and restriction of hip, X ray with thickening of outer cortex of his left proximal femur with mild bowing. Sclerotic lesions seen. Technetium with increased uptake from frontal bone, and other bones. Dx and tto

A

Paget, biphosphonates

982
Q

underlying mechanism of Paget disease

A

osteoclast abnormality leading to increased bone turnover and impaired bone remodeling.

983
Q

Initial and MAT for dx of acute cholecystitis

A

Initial test is Abdominal US

Most accurate test: HIDA scan (hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid scan)

984
Q

tto for biliary colic and cholecystitis

A

cholecystectomy

985
Q

tto for choledocolitiasis

A

ERCP +/- Cholecystectomy

986
Q

tto for cholangitis and gallstone pancreatitis

A

IV fluids, ERCP + CHOLECYSTECTOMY

For cholangitis antibiotics, and ERCP is to drain the bile needs to be done within 24-48 hrs.

987
Q

Dx and tto of cholangitis

A

ERCP

If contraindications for ERCP ( hemodynamic instability, altered mental status) drainage via percutanous cholecystectomy is acceptable

988
Q

Charcot triad for cholangitis and Reynold’s pentad

A

Fever, jaundice, RUQpain

+ hypotension and altered mental status (SHOCK!)

989
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatic presentation

A

Age > 50
bilateral pain and morning stiffness > 1 month, > 1 hr
involve neck, shoulders, proximal thighs
Can have constitutional ss

990
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica dx and tto

A

ESR > 40, elevated CRP, normocytic anemia
CK is normal

tto: low dosee prednisone- there is signficant improvement

991
Q

Complication of polymyalgia rheumatica and treatment for complication

A

Giant cell arteritis

biopsy first followed by high dose prednisone

992
Q

the primary treatment for all hernia types

A

surgical repair!

the risk of strangulation is higher with femoral hernias

993
Q

biliary colic can present as epigastric pain, radiating to the back, and to the right shoulder

A

true

994
Q

for biliary colic , next step

A

transabdominal US

995
Q

If gallstones on imaging, but no ss. next step?

A

No need of treatment

996
Q

If gallstones and ss, next step

A

cholecystectomy elective

If poor surgical candidate ursodexocolic acid UDCA

997
Q

If biliary colic ss but no gallstones on imaging

A

cholecytokinin stimulated cholescintigraphy

if there is low ejection bladder– cholecystectomy.

998
Q

abdominal pain, jaundice, and dilated duct but no fever. Dx?

A

choledocolithiasis

999
Q

exertional dyspnea, cough, hypercalcemia, elevated ESR DX?

A

Sarcoidosis

1000
Q

Pulmonary test in sarcoidosis

A

mix of restrictive( reduced diffusion capacity) and obstructive ( FEV< 80%, FEV/FVC 80%)

1001
Q

Tto sarcoidosis

A

corticosteroids

1002
Q

Lofgren syndrome

A

from sarcoidosis

triad: fever, erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar adenopathy

1003
Q

presentation of sarcoidosis

A
young, african american
constitutional ss
cough, dyspnea with exertion, chest pain
skin lesions 
anterior/posterior uveitis
lofgren syndrome (fever, erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar adenopathy)
HEPATIC SARCOIDOSIS- high ALP, GGT
1004
Q

alcoholic found in the street unresponsive, with large hematemesis likely due to mallory weiss tear. next step

A

endotracheal intubation, once stable upper endoscopy would be appropriate for diagnosis and tto

1005
Q

treatment of variceal hemorrhage

A

octeotride ( decreases pressure reducing splachnic blood flow)

1006
Q

when do you use fresh frozen plasma

A

It decreases the risk of bleeding due to coagulation factor deficiencies

INR>=2
Excess of warfarin
Vit K def
deficit coagulation factors (DIC, liver disease)

1007
Q

when do you use cryoprecipitate

A

to give fibrinogen
contains fibrinogen, fibronectin, vWF, VIII, XIII

use with: fibrinogen <80-100 in massive hemorrhage
or replacement of VIII or Vwf

1008
Q

Alcoholic patient who underwent band ligation and received octeotride, now going home. On which medication should he be going with

A

non selective b blocker- nadolol and propanolol.

reduce the pressure in the portal system

1009
Q

management of splenic rupture in the setting of EBV

A

Volume resuscitation until patient stable and then pursue CT scan with contrast–assess severity and if extravasation.

Ideally should be managed NON-OPERATIVELY (serial Hb check, embolization) to preserve splenic function

If pt persists unstable he may require surgery

1010
Q

faint erythematous RETICULAR rash + arthritis

A

Parvovirus

1011
Q

Difference in presentation of parvovirus in children vs. adolescents and adults

A

children: slapped cheek, rarely arhtralgias

adolescent/adult: acute onset symmentric joint pain, swelling, stiffness after flu like ss

1012
Q

prognosis of parvovirus infection/arthralgias

A

self resolving, no long term sequelae

1013
Q

organism in hand foot mouth disease

A

coxsackievirus

1014
Q

treatment and prognosis of hand foot mouth disease

A

supportive, hydration

lesions improve in a week

handwashing important because can be contagious even after weeks of rash disappearing.

1015
Q

what causes isolated gastric varices

A

splenic vein thrombosis

  • likely accompanied with GI bleeding and hx of pancreatitis or pancreatic cancer
  • splenic vein runs posterior to pancreas and if inflammation it can damage or be compressed causing thrombosis
1016
Q

left sided portal hypertension presentation and cause

A

cause: chronic splenic vein thrombosis

ascites, congestive splenomegaly, signs of hypersplenism ( anemia, thrombocytopenia)

1017
Q

Dx and tto of splenic vein thrombosis

A

Dx: multiple modalities: CT scan, MRI, doppler
tto: splenectomy

1018
Q

Budd chiari cause and presentation

A

thrombosis of hepatic veins or intra/suprahepatic inferior vena cava.

RUQ, hepatomegaly, jaundice, rapidly developing ascitis

1019
Q

Angiodysplasias bleeding is common in the following conditions

A

End stage renal disease
Aortic stenosis
VonWillebrand Disease

1020
Q

tricuspid valve is assocaited with carcinoid sx

A

true

1021
Q

angiodisplasias present as flat, cherry red lesions in the right colon

A

true

1022
Q

organisms in pediatric septic arthritis

A

<3 months: S. aureus, GBS, gram negative bacilli

>=3 months: S.aureus, S. pyogenes

1023
Q

septic arthritis in neonates or infants can present without fever, and likely has poor feeding, pseudoparalysis of involved extremity in addition to inflammatory markers

A

true,

US shows effusion

1024
Q

US would not show effusion in developmental hip dysplasia.

A

ture

1025
Q

legg calve perthes presentation

A

3-12 years
acute onset, not wanting to bear weight
deformity in femoral head
inflammatory markers are normal

1026
Q

Kawasaki Criteria

A

CRASH

Fever > 5 days 
Conjunctivitis
Rash in perineum, inguinal folds, trunk- morbiliform with DESQUAMATION
Adenopathy >1.5 cm
Strawberry tongue
Hand and feet erythema and edema
1027
Q

partial kawasaki treatment

A

if patient has >=3 criteria, the next step is to order CRP, ESR and follow-up daily to assess for appearance of new symptoms

1028
Q

scarlet fever presentation

A

sand like paper rash- small papules
pharyngitis
strawberry tongue
circumoral pallor

1029
Q

scarlet fever tto

A

amoxi

1030
Q

kawasaki tto

A

IVIG ( reduces risk of sequelae- unknown mechanism) +aspirin

1031
Q

when do coronary artery aneurysm presents in kawasaki?

A

10th day of fever

obtain echo at diagnosis, then at 2 and 6 weeks after treatment

1032
Q

when do an echo should be obtained in Kawasaki

A

at diagnosis, then at 2 and 6 weeks after treatment

1033
Q

Kawasaki being discharged from hsopital after treatment, recommendations?

A

defer live vaccines for 11 months after IVIG

1034
Q

How do you diagnose spinal stenosis? X ray or MRI?

A

MRI

1035
Q

patient with acute onset of periumbilical pain, and Afib. Dx?

A

acute mesenteric ischemia

pain out of proportion, no peritoneal signs, nausea and emesis

1036
Q

causes of acute mesenteric ischemia

A
  1. Occlusive (MC): embolic phenomena (Afib), segmental intestinal strangulation and volvulus
  2. Non occlusive: hypoperfusion from splanchnic (low cardiac output)
1037
Q

dx acute mesenteric ischemia

A

CT angiogram

1038
Q

difference between acute mesenteric ischemia and acute colonic ischemia

A

acute mesenteric ischemia
embolic(Afib), splanchnic hypoperfusion
pain out of proportion, no peritoneal signs, nausea and emesis

acute colonic ischemia: hypoperfusion (hypotension)- splenic flexure, rectosigmoid areas. mild pain, BLOODY DIARRHEA

1039
Q

Management of Barret esophagus

A

No dysplasia on endoscopy: PPI + repeat endoscopy in 3-5 years

Low grade dysplasi: PPI + surveillance endoscopy 6-12 months , and can consider endoscopic eradication

high grade: endoscopic eradication

1040
Q

Salicylate toxicity aspirin

A
tachypnea
tachycardia
hepatitis
fever
N/V
pulmonary edema
arrhythmias
cerebral edema- seizures
1041
Q

Anticholinergic toxicity

A

fever, tachycardia, mydriasis, flushing, urinary retention

1042
Q

organosphosphates presetnation and tto

A

irreversibly inhibit ACHE

DUMBBELSS-diarrhea, urination,myosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation skeletal muscle, lacrimation, sweating, salivation

atropine ( competitive inhibition) +pralidoxime ( regenerates AcHE)

1043
Q

Atropine/antimuscarinic tox presentation and tto

A

fever, dry mouth, flushed skin, cyclopefia, disorientation

tto:physostigmine

1044
Q

salicilate toxicity treatment

A

alkalinization of urine and plasma with IV sodium bicarb

other ttos include glucose (add dextrose to bicarb fluids to avoid neuroglycopenia), activated charcoal if within 2 hours, dialysis.

1045
Q

tto of scaphoid fracture

A

wrist splint and repeated X ray in 7-14 days, or an immediate MRI

Non displaced fractures can be treated with short arm thumb pica cast, but displaced may require surgery eval

1046
Q

Complication of scaphoid fracture

A

non union if avascular necrosis occur if they are not treated appropriately

1047
Q

CREST is a subtype of scleroderma

A
Calcinosis/antiCentromere antibodies
Raynaud's
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactily
Telangiectasis

P- PULMONARY HYPERTENSION
ANTI CENTROMERE > ANTI SCL-70

1048
Q

Manifestations and treatment of scleroderma (ANA 95%. Antitopoisomerase Anti Scl 70 in 30%)

A

Lung: fibrosis and pulmonary HTN
Bosentan, epoprostennol, sildenafil
lung fibrosis: Cyclophosphamide
Heart: restrictive cardiomyopathy and premature coronary disease
GI: wide mouthed colonic diverticula, esophageal dysmotility (leading to gerd and Barret) , primary biliary cirrhosis - PPI
Renal: AKI, Renal crisis -malignant hypertension leading to papiledema, SAH. -ACEis.
Raynauds- CCBs
Skin thickening: methotrexate or mycophenolate

1049
Q

leading cause of death in scleroderma

A

pulmonary HTN

1050
Q

Interstitial lung disease in scleroderma tto

A

cyclophosphamide

1051
Q

Tto of scleroderma renal crisis + CNS involvement/papilledema

A

ACEis + IV nitroprusside

1052
Q

a patient treated for esophageal varices is admitted. He is at greater risk of developing ___ during hospitalization

A

Spontanous bacterial peritonitis

treat prophylactically with fluoroquinolone 7-10 days

1053
Q

management of adenocarcinoma polyps

A

generally they are resected.

however if: 
adenocarcinoma in the head of polyp
margins are uninvolved
lesion well differentiated
no lymphovascular invasion

just colonoscopy every 2-3 months

1054
Q

types of colon polyps and malignant characteristics

A

3 types:
1. Hyperplastic: benign, no treatment needed
2. Hamartomatous: benign, juvenile (often resected due to bleeding risk), Peutz Jeghers (benign)
3. ADENOMATOUS: Pre-malignant ( most resected!)
malignant features for adenomatous:
sessile, villous, > 2.5 cm

1055
Q

projectile vomiting immediately after feed in infant

A

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

1056
Q

RF for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A
3-6 weeks of age
first born
preterm
bottle fed
erythromycin or azythromycin
1057
Q

Dx of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

abdominal US

1058
Q

tto of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

correct electrolytic disturbances
hydrate
then pyloromyotomy

1059
Q

management of bordetella pertussis

A

azithromycin or erythromycin

also for prophylaxis

1060
Q

Dumping syndrome

A

complication of gastrectomy
caused by the destruction or bypass of the pyloric sphincter.

rapid emptying of hyperosmolar chyme (particularly carbohydrates) into the small bowel [8].
The osmotic gradient is believed to draw fluid into the intestine, and this may release one or more vasoactive hormones, such as serotonin and vasoactive intestinal polypeptide.

1061
Q

tto for dumping syndrome

A

high protein food, high fiber , low carbs
frequent meals

Octeotride in severe cases

1062
Q

SAAG >=1.1

A

Portal HTN

  1. CHF
  2. Cirrhosis
  3. Alcoholic hepatitis
  4. SBP
  5. Budd Chiaria
1063
Q

SAAG <1

A

Abscence of portal HTN

TB
Peritoneal carcinomatosis (ovarian cancer)
Nephrotic Syndrome
Pancreatic ascitis
Serositis
1064
Q

Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis presentation and labs

A

Fever, abdominal pain/tenderness, AMS ( abnormal connect the number test)
Hypotension, hypothermia, paralytic ileus if severe

PMN> 250/MM3
ascitic culture + for gram - (E.coli, klebsiella)
Protein < 1
SAAG >=1.1

1065
Q

Complication of SBP

A

renal failure ( IV albumin has demonstrated to decrease renal failure and mortality in this patients)

1066
Q

tto for SBP

A

Ceftriaxone + IV albumin (prevent renal failure and decrease mortality)

Prophylaxis: Ciprofloxacin

1067
Q

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)indication

A

refractory ascitis and uncontrolled variceal bleeding

1068
Q

most useful indicator of 90 day mortality in SBP?

A

SBP– ScIBS

serum creatinine
INR
bilirubin
Sodium

1069
Q

tto for hypothermia patients

A

warmed 42Ccrystalloid for hypotension
Endotracheal intubation in comatose patients

**no need to give atropine for bradycardia in moderate hypothermia- it will improve with rewarming

1070
Q

risk with hypothermia

A

vfib

cardiac arrhythmias may be triggered by central line placement. So these patients need to be handled carefully

1071
Q

patient with hypothermia already placed on IV warm fluids,intubated. Labs with hyperK, azotemia, respiratory alkalosis, hyperglycemia, coagulopathy. Next step?

A

Continue with IV warm fluids.

There will be increase in T by 1-2 degrees each hour

As the T improve that will correct

1072
Q

Woman with PE and DVT treated with enoxa and warfarin, had complication of stomach bleedin due to undiagnosedulcers. next step

A

stop anticoagulants and place IVC filter.

1073
Q

treatment of salmonellosis ( N/V, diarrhea, abdominal pain)

A

nothing, supportive in immunocompetent and >1 year old

1074
Q

regular exercise can prevent back pain

A

true

1075
Q

biliary atresia presentation

A

conjugated hyperbili (direct > 20% total)

1076
Q

tto and prognosis. ofbreast milk jaundice

A

nothing, continue breastfeeding

spontaneous resolution by 3 months

1077
Q

Patient with fatigue, xanthelasma, and inflammatory arthritis found to have elevated ALP, mildly LFTs. Dx?

A

Primary biliary cholangitis (same as cirrhosis)

Anti mitochondrial antibodies

1078
Q

tto Primary biliary cholangitis (same as cirrhosis)

A

ursodexocholic acid - slows the progression of disease
*Ca and Vit D
if cirrhosis liver transplant.

**corticosteroids or immunosuppresionis not useful.

1079
Q

patients with primary biliary cholangitis are at high risk of

A

osteopenia and osteoporosis - cause is unknown

warrant a dexa

1080
Q

what improves and worsen pain in carpal tunnel syndrome

A

worsen at night

improves with shaking hands (Flick sing) and with running warm water.

1081
Q

patient with carpa tunnel syndrome that comes after 6 months (had wrist spint) and no improvement. Next step

A

nerve conduction studies /EMG to diagnose and assess severity

they are used in preparation for surgery

1082
Q

mechanism of infantile botulism

A

neurotoxin inhibits presynaptic ACHE release

1083
Q

tto of infantile botulism

A

botulism immune globulin IV

as early as possible to reduce severity and duration of ss

1084
Q

dx infantile botulism

A

stool sample C. botulinum spores or toxin

1085
Q

management of ingested button battery

A

if in esophagus- endoscopy removal

past esophagus- monitor closely.

1086
Q

management of suspected foreign body ingestion -algorithm

A

say it

1087
Q

Stool freqency in babies

A

< 1 month- stool with every feed
>1 month : 1 every 1-2 days or less, with some having 1-2 bowel mov per week

**adding water to breastmilk or formula not recommended due to risk of hyponatremia or electrolyte imbalance

1088
Q

newborn bilious emesis, abdominal distension, not eating well, hypoactive abdominal sound, x ray with dilated bowel loops, ground glass mass. dx

A

meconium ileus

1089
Q

neonate with cataracts , 2 potential diseases

A

rubella

galactosemia- galactose 1 phosphate uridyltransferase (

1090
Q

presentation galactosemia

A

galactose 1 phosphate uridyltransferase

Accumulation of G1P in the liver, kidney, brain

upon being fed milk, will develop
jaundice
vomiting
lethargy
irritability
convulsions

Continued feeding of milk products to the infant leads to
cataract formation
hepatosplenomegaly
mental retardation

1091
Q

maternal use of macrolides is a risk factor for pyloric stenosis

A

true

1092
Q

Indications for stress ulcer prophylaxis

A

any 1 factor:

  • Coagulopathy: platelets < 50,000, INR>1.5, PTT> 2x normal
  • mechanical ventilation > 48 hours
  • GI bleeding or ulceration in the last 12 hours
  • Head trauma, spinal cord injury, major burn

any 2 factors:

  • corticosteroid therapy
  • > 1 week ICU stay
  • Occult bleeding > 6 days
  • Sepsis
1093
Q

extraesophageal manifestations of GERD

A

cough, wheezing, hoarseness, chest pain

1094
Q

complications of GERD (esophageal and extraesophageal)

A

esophageal: erosive esophagitis, Barret, stricture
extraesophageal: asthma, laryngitis

1095
Q

patient with DM with poor control with insulin, already with retinopathy, nephropathy. Complaining of early satiety, bloating, weight loss, sweating during meals. Dx and test to confirm it?

A

Gastroparesis

nuclear gastric emptying study

** always rule out a mechanical obstruction

1096
Q

treatment of gastroparesis in DM

A

Diet modification: small, high fiber meals, low fat
If doesnt work, promotility agents: erythromycin, and metoclopramide
If persist: Gastric stimulation or jejunum tube feeding

1097
Q

Causes of gastroparesis

A
DM
Meds (opioids, anticholinergic)
Trauma/postsurgical (Vagal nerve stimulation)
nEURO (MS, spinal cord injury)
Idiopathic- post viral
1098
Q

Pattern of inheritance hemophilia

A

X linked recessive

1099
Q

dysphagia for both solids and liquids, manometry with intermittent peristalsis and multiple simultaneous contractions

A

diffuse esophageal spasm

1100
Q

tto of diffuse esophageal spasm

A

CCBs (Diltiazem)

Alternative: nitrates or tricyclics.

1101
Q

presentation of eosinophilic esophagitis

A

men> women
20-30s
associated to atopic dermatitis, seasonal allergies, asthma

dysphagia to solids
retrosternal pain
N/V
Weight loss

1102
Q

tto eosinophilic esophagitis

A

dietary modifications - 6 month diet with serial endoscopy
PPIs
Steroids

1103
Q

patient with headache that is remodeling old house, dx and tto

A

carbon monoxide posioning- seen with smoke inhalation, defective heating systems, gas motor with poor ventilated areas.

carboxyhemoglobin

high flow 100% oxygen

1104
Q

patient with polyps concerning for malignant features in flexible sigmoidoscopy, next step?

A

colonoscopy now.

flexible sigmoidoscopy does not visualize all the colon, so he needs that

1105
Q

Effects of brain death

A

hypotension
Endocrinpathies (Central DI, adrenal insuff, hypothyroidism)
Volume depletion
Systemic infections

1106
Q

things to do to preserve organ function in brain death patients

A
give fluids and vasopressors as needed
keep in mechanic ventilation 
for endocrinopathies (Central DI-desmopressin, Adrenal insuf-steroids, hypothyroidism- levothyroxin)
1107
Q

What does DEXA stands for

A

dual energy x ray absorptimetrt

1108
Q

Clinical characteristics and Management of GERD in babies

A

immature low esophageal sphincter

spit up
normal weight check
no back arching

upright position during feeds
burping
frequent small volume feeds

1109
Q

prognosis of GERD IN BABIES

A

peaks by 4 months, resolve by 12-18 months

1110
Q

When is H2 RECEPTOR THERAPY (rANITIDINE)indicated for GERD in babies

A

if poor weight,

marked irritability despite lifestyle modifications and a trial. of a cow’s milk free diet.

1111
Q

patient with fatigue, night sweats, arthralgias, chest pain, pleural effusion, and has a history of cardiac disease on multiple drugs. next step in management?

A

if patient has hydralazine think of hydralazine induced lupus!
5-10% develops

anti-histone antibodies and ANA

1112
Q

drugs that cause lupus

A

hydralazine
procainamide
minocycline

TNFFA inhibitors: etanercept, infliximab

**removal of agent improves lupus

1113
Q

suspect ankylosing spondylitis, next step

A

X ray of sacroiliac joint–sacroilitis and erosions of the ischial tuberosity and iliac crest

1114
Q

Criteria for diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis

A
  1. morning back pain, improves with exercise for more than 3 months
  2. reduced range of flexion of lumbar spine on Schober test
  3. Limited chest expansion relative to normal values
1115
Q

how do you monitor the disease activity in ankylosing spondylitis

A

3 X rays:

  1. AP and lateral of lumbar spine
  2. Lateral of cervical spine
  3. Pelvic radiograph including the sacroiliac joints and hips
  • ESR can also be ordered
    Every 3 months
1116
Q

complication of ankylosing spondylitis

A

restrictive lung disease - limited costovertebral joint movement and apical fibrosis
*recommend smoking cessation

1117
Q

extraarticular manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis

A
restrictive lung disease
IgA nephropathy
anterior uveitis
aortic regurgitation
apical pulmonary fibrosis
1118
Q

life expectancy in ankylosing spondylitis

A

not reduced. normal, most do well.

1119
Q

until when is ok that babies are still not walking

A

walking is normally acquired by 12, but the range is between 9 -16 months.

1120
Q

Patient with Raynauds managed with nifedipine, now complaining of arthritis. Next step

A

ANA , RF, complement, CBC, BMP, urinalysis

1121
Q

Most sensitive modality for dx of avascular necrosis

A

MRI

1122
Q

conditions associated with osteonecrosis or avascular necrosis

A

+ Glucocorticoid therapy, alcohol.

SLE
Sickle cell disease
Antiphospholipid sx
CKD
trauma
Gaucher
Caisson's disease (Decompression sickness)
1123
Q

management of avascular necrosis

A

conservative
core decompression(grade1-2: xray without femoral head collapse)
osteotomy
joint replacement ( for grade 4 )

1124
Q

Management of dyspepsia (epigastric pain, fullness, heartburn)

A

> =60: endoscopy
<60:
Test and treat H.pylori
upper endoscopy in high risk patients(GI bleeding, more red flag ss)

If H.pylori negative: then PPI trial

1125
Q

patient with fat malabsorption , chronic abdominal pain, alcoholic.

A

think of chronic pancreatitis- pancreatic insufficiency
best test: is MRCP preferred over CT
iT WOULD SHOW CALCIFICATIONS AND DUCTAL DILATION

1126
Q

What is fecal elastase

A

a marker of pancreatic function

1127
Q

lower extremity alignment in children

A

6 months: genu varum
2 years: straight legs
4 years :genu valgum
>7 years: straight

1128
Q

shin splints- medial tibial stress syndrome can evolve to

A

stress fractures, initial X rays are negative. low sensitivity.

Only appear after 4 weeks

1129
Q

management of stress fractures in lower legs

A

pneumatic splint
and reduced weightbearing activities

crutches fro the first 1-2 weeks to reduce weight bearing
followed by rehab program

1130
Q

patients with HCV tto

A

antivirals
vaccine agains hep A and B
* no need of barrier protection for sex, this is usually treansmitted via parenteral
*safe to use acetaminophen < 2 g/day

1131
Q

Child with viral gastroenteritis drinking apple juice. next step

A

Recommend stopping juice– high fructose or sorbitol increases the osmotic load and leads to fructose malabsorption worsening diarrhea

recommend hypoosmolar oral hydration

1132
Q

management of sharp body ingestion- fish chicken bones, toothpicks, pin

A

urgent FLEXIBLE endoscopy for removal.

1133
Q

how to assess Achilles tendon ruputure

A

Thompson test- squeeze calf would normally cause plantar flexion

is negative in these patients

1134
Q

elbow pain after falling in outstretched hand

X ray with posterior fat pad Dx and management

A

supracondylar fracture

if nondisplaced:long arm splint and sling
if displaced: surgical reduction and pinning

1135
Q

Dx of pancreatitis

A

Biochemical exam is enough, no need for imaging if pain is classic

1136
Q

patient with pancreatitis, not alcoholic, and no evidence of gallstones in the US. Next step?

A

lipid panel, hypertryglicerides

1137
Q

patient with acute pancreatitis that was improveing but at the third day develops pain again, fever, leukocytosis. Next step? What do you think is happening?

A

CT abdomen

Early complications of pancreatitis: pancreatic necrosis, acute peripjancreatic fluid collection, nectrotic infection.

1138
Q

presentation and chest X ray findings of esophageal rupture

A

hx of vomiting, retching
back, chest, epigastric pain
shortness of breath, crepitus
odynophagia, FEVER, SEPSIS

Xray: pleural effusion, pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum

1139
Q

Dx of esophageal rupture

A

Esophagogram or CT scan with water soluble contrast

**endoscopy is not done as it can worsen pneumomediastinum

1140
Q

risk of gout increases in CKD and patients taking cyclosporine

A

cyclosporine decreases uric acid excretion

1141
Q

uric acid crystals vs calcium pyrophosphate

A

uric acid: negative, needle shape

calcium: positive, rhomboid

1142
Q

next step when pt presents with gout

A

synovial fluid analysis

1143
Q

acute vs chronic tto of uric acid gout

A

acute: indomethacine, colchicine, steroids
IN PATIENTS WITH RENAL FAILURE OR WHO HAD RENAL TRANSPLANT: INTRA-ARTICULAR STEROIDS OR INCREASE THE DOSE OF GLUCOCORTIOSTEROIDS

chronic:
1st line: Xanthine oxidase inhibitors- febustat, allopurinol
2nd line: uric acid agents: probenecid

1144
Q

Complication of untreated celiac disease

A

enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma in JEJUNUM

presents with abdominal pain, weight loss, fatigue, bloody stools
they are at risk of bowel obstruction and perforation

1145
Q

Gastrinoma

A

weight loss, abdominal pain, fatigue, bloody stools

1146
Q

Patient who underwent radioiodine therapy for graves, currently receiving levothyroxine but have persistent elevated TSH despite escalating doses of levothyroxine. What is happening?

A

levothyroxine malabsorption - check for celiac disease

autoimmune condition that can be present in these patients

1147
Q

which antibodies correlate with disease activity in lupus

A

Anti ds DNA antibodies

and are associated with development of lupus nephritis

1148
Q

management of lupus

A

prednisone and hydroxychloroquine

hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial that helps with arthtralgias, serositis and cutaneous symptoms. May also help in prevention of kidney damage andCNS

1149
Q

prior to start TNF inhibitors always test for

A

TB
-IFgamma assay
or skin test

1150
Q

next step if you suspect septic arthritis

A

arhtrocentesis

*not MRI

1151
Q

Ethylene glycol toxicity

A
rapid and deep  breathing (Kussmaul)
N/V
slurred speech
ataxia
nystagmus
lethargy

later ss: renal failure, coma

1152
Q

antidote for ethyleneglycol toxicity and moa

A

fomepizole- competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenasee ( which metabolizes the non toxic ethyleneglycol into toxic metabolites)

1153
Q

uses of fomepizole

A

ethyleneglycol and metanol toxicity

1154
Q

patient in whom you suspect thyroid cancer and has very high titers of anti peroxide antibodies. What type of Ca

A

Thyroid Lymphoma

1155
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Giant Cell arteritis (5)

A
  1. Age >=50 (greatest RF)
  2. New onset headache with fever and visual disturbances
  3. ESR >50
  4. Tenderness or decreased pulse in temporal area
  5. temporal artery biopsy show necrotizing arteritis with mainly mononuclear cells

3/5 very specific

1156
Q

Alcoholic patients with chronic pancreatitis can develop DM! insulin islets destroyed. tto?

A

mild hyperglycemia: metformin

severe hyperglycemia: INSULIN

1157
Q

patient with fecal incontinence in the setting of constipation and hard stools at rectal exam. next step

A

manual disimpactation followed by enema

high fiber and increase fluids is not an immediate treatment as it needs to be treated aggressively. But is the recommendation following enema.

1158
Q

diagnosis of dermatomyositis

A

high CPK, aldolase, LDH
ANA, Anti RNP, anti Jo1, anti Mi2

if still diagnostic uncertaintly : EMG or muscle biopsy.

1159
Q

management of dermatomyositis

A

high dose glucocorticosteroid PLUS glucocorticosteroid sparing agent (methotrexate, mycophenolate, azathioprine)
Look for underlying manlignancy

1160
Q

difference between aspiration pneumonia and aspiration pneumonitis

A

aspiration pneumonitis: inflammationof the lung parenchyma, in pts with decreased level of consciousness. 2-5 HOURS after generally witnessed event.Range from no symptoms to nonprodutive cough, respiratory distress. Chest X ray: infiltrates. Resolves without antibiotics

aspiration pneumonia: infection. 1-5 days after event, fever, cough, increased sputum, chest x ray infiltrate (generally right lower lobe)
requires antibiotic

1161
Q

tto for aspiration pneumonia

A

clindamycin

1162
Q

low back pain that increases at night, next step?

A

Xray first!

  • MRI is done if sensory/motor deficit, cauda equina, suspected epidural abscess or infection
1163
Q

which patients with osteopenia may benefit from biphosphonates

A

FRAX SCORE with hip fracure risk >=3% and combined osteoporotic risk fracture >=20%.

1164
Q

should a woman postmenopausal with osteopenia receive hormone replacement therapy?

A

No, it is only useful if vasomotor ss. Not for osteopenia

1165
Q

side effects of biphosphonates

A

pill esophagitis, jaw osteonecrosis

1166
Q

50 hour baby boy with bilious emesis, not able. totolerate feeds, has not passed meconium. Next steps?

A

NG tube for decompression
IV fluids
Abdominal X ray

1167
Q

Abdominal X ray concerning for Hirshprung’s , next step for diagnosis

A

rectal suction biopsy

1168
Q

Meds that cause orthostatic hypotension

A

alpha blockers
diuretics
nitrates

1169
Q

Where is the lesion in Colles fracture? Mechanism of injury

A

distal radius

FOOSH( Fall on an outstretched hand)

1170
Q

FOOSH( Fall on an outstretched hand) injuries

A
scaphoid fracture
wrist sprain
Colles fracture 
Ulnar styloid fracture
supracondylar fracture
radial head fracture
olecranon fracutre 
posterior glenohumeral dislocation 
ACUTE CARPAL TUNNEL SYNDROME
1171
Q

Colles and Smith fracture

A

Colles: outstretched hand
Smith: fall in hyperflexion of wrist

1172
Q

More common lesion in boxer punch

A

4th and 5th metacarpals

1173
Q

mitochondrial inheritance

A

only mom pass it to children

MELAS- Stroke and epilepsy

1174
Q

MELAS presentation

A

Mitochondrial Encephalopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke like episodes

  • Seizures
  • Stroke like ss
  • lactic acidosis due to mitochondrial dysfunction
  • muscle weakness
  • hearing loss
1175
Q

classic dashboard injury in motor vehicle crash

A

disruption of the posterior cruciate ligament

1176
Q

mechanism and presentation of ACL injury

A

hyperextension of the knee
popping sensation
knee effusion and instability
Lachman positive

1177
Q

patient with SLE on steroids should be on vit D and Ca

A

true

Based on the duration of therapy DEXA is indicated every year

1178
Q

Conditions associated with Restless leg syndrome

A
Iron deficiency anemia
uremia
DM
pregnancy 
parkinson, MS
Drugs (antidepressants, metoclopramide)
1179
Q

treatment of Restless leg syndrome

A

Mild/intermittent:
iron if ferritin =<75ug/L
measures like heating pads, exercise
avoid triggers: sleep deprivation and some meds

Moderate to severe:
1st line: pramipexole(dopamine agonist)
2nd line:gabapentin

1180
Q

Frozen shoulder mechanism and presentation

A

contracture of the joint capsule (Adhesive capsulitis)
Pain and stiffness
Decreased passive and active range of motion
X ray: osteoarthritis in glenohumeral junction

1181
Q

How to differentiate rotator cuff tendinopathy vs tear

A

tendinopathy: pain with abduction, and external rotation. normal ROM. POsitive impigement tests (Neer, Hawkins)
rupture: Weakness with abduction and external rotation. + all of the above.

1182
Q

treatment of frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis)

A

1st range of motion exercises
If no improvement after 2-3 months: intraarticular glucocorticosteroids

if not recovery after months or years: surgery

1183
Q

septic arthritis vs transient synovitis

A
Kosher criteria: 
non bearing weight
fever
leukocytosis 
 elevated CRP

3 criteria , > 93% likelihood of septic arthritis

1184
Q

Organisms in septic arthritis

A

< 3 months: S.aureus, GBS, gram negative bacilli

>=3 months: S.aureus, S.pyogenes

1185
Q

tto septic arthritis

A

< 3 months: S.aureus, GBS, gram negative bacilli
Vancomycin +Cefotaxime

> =3 months:S.aureus, S.pyogenes
Vancomycin

1186
Q

Definition of macrocephaly and when do you recommend imaging

A

macrocephaly is > 97th percentile

Imaging: Head US
Rapidly expanding: > 2cm/month in. < 6 months
Neuro abnormalities (Seizures)
Developmental delay

1187
Q

digit amputation technique to save part

A

wrap it in gauze
moisten with normal saline
place on sterile bag
bag should be placed in container with ICE MIXED WITH SALINE

1188
Q

hcg bind TSH receptors causing increased production of thyroid hormone

A

true

1189
Q

MVA- breathing fast and shallow, multiple bruises in chest. Dx

A

Flail chest

1190
Q

flail chest management

A

supplemental oxygen
PPV
Pain control
Surgical stabilization

1191
Q

capillary blood lead level needs confirmation with venous lead level

A

true

1192
Q

What would peripheral smear show in lead poisoning

A

basophilic stipping

Xray: increased opacities in the metaphyseal plates

1193
Q

complication of lead poisoning

A

cognitive impairment/behavioral (ADHD)

acute encephalopathy only occur if levels are > 100

1194
Q

standard caloric intake for enteral feeds

A

30kcal/kg/day

a 1g/kg of protein is adequate

1195
Q

b12 deficiency in addition to ataxia, dementia can present with delirum and hallucinations. There is pancytopenia too

A

folic acid does not give neuro ss

1196
Q

most predominant feature of chikunguya infection

A

high fever and polyarthralgias– they also tend to be chronic
bilateral and involve distal joints.

They can also have headache, myalgias, maculopapular rash, thrombocytopenia, lymphopenia, transmanitis

1197
Q

Dx Chikunguya

A

PCR

1198
Q

intussusseption cause bloody stools (currant jelly stools), dx and tto

A

abdominal US -target sign
however X rays are obtained to rule out perforation
air or saline enema

1199
Q

patient with intussuspetion underwent water/air enema. After some hours again severe pain, next step

A

plain X rays to assess for perforation

1200
Q

Patient with lupus who develops chest pain, enters in cardiac arrest due to Vfib and dies. Mechanism behind this?

A

premature coronary atherosclerosis is associated with SLE

Patients with SLE have 50x risk of CAD