3CK PART I Flashcards

1
Q

<p>What are absolute contraindications to solid organ/ heart transplant?</p>

A

<p>1. Systemic illness with life expectancy of < 2 years despite heart transplant

2. Irreversible pulmonary hypertension
3. Clinically severe cerebrovascular disease
4. Active substance abuse ( drugs or alcohol) ( tobacco,alcohol, drugs is a relative contraindication-- if within 6 months)
5. inadequate social support or cognitive behaviorall disabilitiy-> inhability to comply to medical therapy
6. multisystemic disease with severe extracardiac dysfunction ( ie. amyloidosis) </p>

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2
Q

<p>Transfusion related acute lung injury ( TRALI)</p>

A

<p>Respiratory distress and signs of non-cardiogenic edema

WITHIN 6 hours of transfusion

caused by donor anti-leukocyte antibodies.
</p>

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3
Q

diagnosis of type 2 HIT

A

HIT antibody testing, -Serotonin release assay

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4
Q

Absence of breathing for more than ___ time is abnormal in children

A

> =20 is apnea

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5
Q

When do you screen for HTN

A

> 18 years
2 year interval in healthy patient
1 year interval in pts with pre-hypertension

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6
Q

first-line treatment for cystitis in nonpregnant women

A

TMP/SMX

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7
Q

Viral illness + bleeding mucosa+ petequia+thrombocytopenia

A

Immune thrombocytopenia

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8
Q

If a patient develops Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, what are the recommendations for subsequent anticoagulation?

A

patients who develop type 2 HIT are advised to avoid all forms of heparin for life to limit the risk of new antibody formation (and recurrence).

Unfractionated heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin, heparin flushes for arterial lines, and heparin-coated catheters all require avoidance, and a “heparin allergy” should be listed in the medical record

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9
Q

Causes /precipitating factors of hepatorenal syndrome

A

Decreased glomerular pressure: NSAIDs use

Reduced renal perfusion: GI bleeding, SBO , Vomiting , sepsis, excessive diuretic use

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10
Q

labs in sarcoidosis

A

hypercalcemia/hypercalciuria ( may lead to nephrolitiasis)

high ACE levels

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11
Q

Osteoma>

A

Bone growth from another bone - usually skull

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12
Q

Presentation of mycotic aneurysms and what can they cause

A

Is a complication of infective endocarditis.

Systemic or intracerebral

Occur due to septic embolization and vessel wall destruction.

In brain– can grow progressively and due to compression lead to focal deficits

If ruptured may lead to subarachnoid hemorraghe – headache, lethargy, neck stiffness

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13
Q

Explain non inferiority and superiority trials

A

GRAPH

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14
Q

Medications that can cause SJS

A

sulfonamides, quinolones, aminopenicillin, cephalosportin

ASM: lamotrigine, CBZ, Phenytoin

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15
Q

Treatment of impetigo

A

Mupirocin and retapamulin are first-line treatments

Mupirocin is applied three times daily and retapamulin is applied twice daily. The recommended length of treatment is five days

antibiotics (eg, cephalexin) are warranted for extensive infection.

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16
Q

Criteria for endocarditis?

A

Modified Duke Criteria

Definite Dx: 2 major OR 1 major and 3 minor OR 5 minor

Major:
2 positive cultures
Echo showing valvular vegetation or de novo lesion

minor:
Fever> 38
Immunologic phenomena ( GM, Osler nodes, Roth sportS)
Vascular/emboli phenomena
Hx of IV drug use/ predisposing cardiac disease
1+ culture

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17
Q

Colloid what are they , examples

A

Colloids contain larger insoluble molecules, such as gelatin; blood itself is a colloid.

albumin and fresh frozen plasma.

There is no evidence that colloids are better than crystalloids in those who have had trauma, burns or surgery and as they are more expensive their use is not recommended.[1]

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18
Q

<p>Congenital pulmonary valve stenosis associated to which syndrome?</p>

A

<p>Noonan syndrome</p>

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19
Q

should breast-feeding be avoided with silicone implants?

A

NO, All women, even those with breast implants, should be encouraged to breast feed their babies. There is no risk in breast-feeding with a silicone breast implant.

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20
Q

Pathology in HCM

A

sarcomere mutation

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21
Q

<p>Stages of CPRS ( Complex pain regional syndrome) </p>

A

<p>Stages:

1. Burning pain, edema and vasomotor changes
2. Edema, skin thickening and muscle wasting
3. Most severe and includes limited range of motion and bone demineralization on xray

</p>

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22
Q

Meniere’s disease presentation and pathogenesis

A

At any age, MC 20-40s

TRIAD:
hearing loss- sensorineural, usually fluctuating and often affects the lower frequencies. - hearing loss progresses over time and may result in permanent hearing loss at all frequencies.

Tinnitus- low pitch (like listening to a seashell or machinery) and may be associated with auditory distortion.

PERIODIC VERTIGO ( (a true spinning sensation that has an onset and an offset))- rotatory spinning or a rocking sensation may persist from 20min to 24 hours duration

Pathogenesis: endolymph hydrops

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23
Q

Tto ankylosing spondilitis

A

Conservative
patient education and exercise: mainstay of treatment

Medical
nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) : pain and stiffness
tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitors (adalimumab,
etanercept) typically used in patients who do not respond to conservative and NSAID treatment

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24
Q

Lesions in sporotrichosis

A

Lesions:
Painless papule—>ulcerates—> drains a non purulent, odorless fluids.
Over days similar lesions usually develop over the lymphatic chain

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25
Q

Type 2 of HIT

A

Thrombocytopenia - platelets typically decline >30%-50%

Timing - onset 5-10 days after heparin initiation or ≤1 day with prior, recent heparin exposure

Thrombosis - new thrombosis, progressive thrombosis, or skin necrosis

Alternate causes - no other sources for thrombocytopenia are present or likely

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26
Q

Difference between trichloroacetic acid and podophyllin as tto of genital warts

A

unlike Trichloroacetic acid, podophyllin is not indicated for internal use in patients with condyloma acuminata and should not be used during pregnancy.

Podophyllin arrests mitosis in metaphase.

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27
Q

Transillumination test is positive in which pathology

A

Hydrocele

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28
Q

<p>how is defined longed term opiod use?</p>

A

<p>>3 months</p>

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29
Q

Which of the HEP VIRUSES is the unique with DNA?

A

Hep B

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30
Q

Pathogens causing bronchiolitis

A

RSV is the MCC
Metapneumovirus
parainfluenza

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31
Q

Anterior cruciate ligament lesion test

A

lachman test - displace the proximal tibia anteriorly when knee flexed 30 degrees

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32
Q

<p>Dx glucagonoma</p>

A

<p>ptes in th 5th decade
Glucagon > 500
Weight loss ( catabolic effects of glucagon)
Diabetes mellitus ( can be recently diagnosed)
Necrolytic migratory erythema ( low aa, hyponutrition)
Venous thrombosis 30%</p>

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33
Q

Drugs that prolong the QT

A

Anti ABCDE + HIV protease inhibitors, methadone, oxycodone

Anti Arrhythmics- Class IA and III
Antibioticos: macrolides, anti malarials, fluoroquinolone
Anti Cychotics: haloperidol, risperidone
AntiDepressants: TCAs, SSRIs
AntiEmetics: ondansetron
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34
Q

All about coccidiomycosis

A

Southwestern US and California
Pneumonia, meningitis, erythema nodosum arthalgia
Earthquake
Spherule filled with endospores

If local: itraconazole/fluconazole
If systemic: amphotericin b

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35
Q

Labs in pertussis infection

A

Leuckocytosis with lymphocyte predominance ( > 20,000 with > 50% lymph)

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36
Q

RF for osteoporotic fracture risk

A
Advanced age
Previous osteoporotic fracture
Lon-term corticosteroid therapy
Cigarette
Low body weight ( 58 kg)
Fx hx of  hip fracture
Excess alcohol intake
Rheumatoid arthritis
Secondary osteoporosis
prolonged heparin use
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37
Q

Ginkgo Biloba- Mechanism of action & SE

A

“memory booster” suggested mechanism is increased cerebral flow

SE:
MOST IMPORTANT:Risk of bleeding and potentiation of anticoagulant effects - inhibits platelet derived factor.
Seizures, headache, restlessness, irritability

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38
Q

When do you give corticosteroids in pregnancy? and why

A

patients at risk for preterm delivery at <37 weeks gestation (or <34 weeks gestation in patients with diabetes mellitus).

decrease the neonatal morbidity and mortality associated with preterm birth (eg, respiratory distress syndrome).

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39
Q

MS course in pregnancy

A

pregnant women with MS usually have lower disease activity during pregnancy and higher disease activity in the postpartum period.

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40
Q

X-ray and lab findings of Transient tachypnea of the newborn

A
Dx: clinical 
Xray can show: flat diaphragm
Mild cardiomegaly
Prominent vascular markings in a sunburst pattern at hilium.
Fluid in the interlobar fissures
Pleural effusion may be present
Alveolar edema—> fluffy densities

ABG: Hypoxemia and hypercapnia

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41
Q

Treatment for MS-related spasticity

A

baclofen or tizanidine

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42
Q

Pathophysiology of BPPV

A

Crystalline deposits (canaliths) in semi-circular canals->disrupt normal flow of fluid in vestibular system->contradictory signalling from corresponding canals on each side->interpreted as spinning/vertigo sensation

Vertigo with positional changes, NO HEARING LOSS

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43
Q

Presentation and treatment of brinchiolitis

A

Two phases:
First upper respiratory ss: rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, cough
Lower Resp ss: wheezing, crackles, respiratory distress, hypoxemia,
fever

Supportive care: hydration, saline nasal drops , nasal bulb congestion

Patients should be advised to avoid other triggers of airway reactivity, particularly cigarette smoke.

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44
Q

Alcohol tto

A

AA
Naltrexone
Acamprosate
Disulfiram - short term use, not for heart disease pts

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45
Q

Causes and labs for intrinsic AKI

A
  1. ATN- most common;y due to toxins or ischemia
  2. AIN
  3. Rhabdomyolisis/Hb
  4. Crystal deposition ( Ca, uric acid, oxal)
    5.Bence Jones prot
  5. Strept
    Aminoglucosides, cisplatin, amphot, NSAIDS
Labs:
BUN/Creat < 20:1
Osm< 300
Increased FeNa, UNa
EXCEPT
Contrast agens ( decreased FeNa and UNa)
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46
Q

Management of DVT /PE

A

First line is >=3 months Factor X inhibitors -( orally, no need of heparin bridge or lab monitoring)
In patients WITHOUT CA is the first line.

In patients with Ca –LMWH.

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47
Q

Should women with breast implants be screened with MRI every 2-3 years?

A

Yes, to screen for asymptomatic implant rupture, which could lead to scarring within the breast

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48
Q

apnea of prematurity- what is it?

A

true apnea and pauses in breathing lasting ≥20 seconds; it typically resolves by a corrected gestational age of 37 weeks (ie, at 1 week of life for a 36-week gestation infant).

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49
Q

Contraceptive method in antiphospholipid treatment

A

Estrogen containing are CONTRAINDICATED

Progestin-releasing IUD ( decreases blood loss, so preferred in patients with cramps and dysmenorrhea)
Copper treatment ( increases blood loss)
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50
Q

Amaurosis fugax is a sign of

A

carotid atherosclerosis disease– carotid bruit.

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51
Q

Guillain Barre pathophysiology

A

Demyelination of peripheral nerve axons

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52
Q

If an upper esophageal mass is found in the upper esophagus of a patient, which is the most likely histopathologic type of tumor?

A

Upper 2/3rds is squamous cellular- often associated to alcohol, tobacco

Lower third- Adenocarcinoma- associated to Barret esophagus or GERD.

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53
Q

Uterine sarcoma (eg, leiomyosarcoma) is associated with

A

pelvic radiation and tamoxifen

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54
Q

Meds to avoid in Wolff Parkinson white

A

digoxin
b blockers
ca channel blockers
adenosine

These favor conduction through accesory pathway

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55
Q

Levothyroxine treatment for hypothyroidism in patients with uncorrected adrenal insufficiency can cause

A

adrenal crisis by increasing metabolic demand and clearance of glucocorticoids.

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56
Q

Duplex ultrasound in DVT

A

noncompressibility

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57
Q

Alteration of platelets in renal dysfunction

A

There is inhibition of their activity, leading to bleeding , prolonged BT but NORMAL NUMBER.

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58
Q

epigastric pain that worsens with meals

A

gastric ulcer

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59
Q

<p>What is complex regional pain syndrome and pathogenesis</p>

A
<p>Complex regional pain syndrome
o	Usually occurs after injury
o	Pain is out of proportion
o	Temperature change and skin color
o	Edema

Pathogenesis: injury causing increased sensitivity to sympathetic nerves
Abnormal response to and sensation of pain
Increased neuropeptide release- allodynia.

</p>

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60
Q

Treatment with ACEI and ARBs is associated with decreased risk of new onset diabetes in patients with HTN

A

True

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61
Q

Which complex forms the Achilles tendon?

A

Gastrocnemius- soleus complex

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62
Q

<p>Dx and treatment of CPRS ( Complex pain regional syndrome) </p>

A

<p>Dx: autonomic testing that measures increased resting sweat output or MRI

Tto: regional sympathetic nerve block or IV regional anesthesia.
Local nerve block
</p>

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63
Q

7 localized manifestations of giant cell arteritis

A
Temporal headaches
Jaw claudication
Polymyalgia rheumatica
Arm claudication ( diminished pulses, and bruits in subclavia or axilla)
CNS: TIA/stroke, vertigo
Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
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64
Q

Two types of Anomalous Aortic origin of coronary artery and mechanism

A

left main coronary artery originating from the right aortic sinus and

the right coronary artery originating from the left aortic sinus.

These defects create sharp curvature of the anomalous coronary artery, making it less amenable to high-volume flow. In addition, the anomalous artery passes between the aorta and the pulmonary artery, making it susceptible to external compression during exercise.

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65
Q

<p>Treatment of Guillain Barre</p>

A

<p>plasmapheresis </p>

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66
Q

When is penicillin prophylaxis indicated in pregnancy

A

Group B Streptococcus (GBS) prophylaxis in patients at <37 weeks with an unknown GBS status to prevent neonatal sepsis.

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67
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism

A

Elevated TSH and normal T4
non-specific ss of hypothyroidism

Before treatment always have a good hx and order Anti-TPO antibodies to exclude Hashimoto

If patient has any of the following treat with thyroxine:

  • goiter
  • hypercholesterolemia
  • Ss of hypothyroidism
  • TSH >=20
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68
Q

Smoking cessation medications

A

Varenicline- partial agonist at the alpha4-beta5 subunit of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.
Nicotine patchees, gum , lozenge,

Bupropion (EA: dry mouth, insomnia, headaches)

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69
Q

What is the classification of HF?

A

A. Risk of HF, no structural abnormality
B. Structural abnormality, no ss of HF
C. Structural abnormality, ss of HF
D. HF with ss at rest or night.

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70
Q

how many veins/arteries has the umbilical cord

A
2 arteries
1 vein ( most oxygenated- PaO2 30, SatO2 80%)
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71
Q

Biopsy in sarcoidosis

A

noncaseating granulomas that stain negative for fungi and acid fast bacilli

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72
Q

<p>Treatment of classic adrenal hyperplasia</p>

A

<p>Classic is 21 alpha hydroxylase def

Tto:

- Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids ( hidrocortisone)
- high salt diet
- reconstructive surgery for genitalia
- psychosocial support</p>

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73
Q

Definition of dyspepsia

A

> = 1symptom: postprandial fullness, epigastric pain or burning, early satiety

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74
Q

Management of IUGR

A

Weekly biophysical profiles
Serial umbilical artery Doppler sonography weekly
Serial growth ultrasounds 3-4 weeks

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75
Q

Labs in dermatomyositis

A

CK,LDH,Aldolase

ANA ( 80%), anti-Ro, anti-La, anti-Sm, anti-ribonucleoprotein (RNP), and anti-Jo-1 antibodies.

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76
Q

colchicine interaction with azathioprine

A

leukopenia

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77
Q

Optimal duration of oral penicillin in strept pharyngitis

A

10 days both to ensure full eradication of bacterial carriage and to prevent rheumatic fever.

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78
Q

How long should hep b patients been monitored?

A

Regurarly with aminotransferases, HBV DNA levels, and HBsAg.

Aminotransferases usually normalize within 2-8 weeks
Patients who havent cleared the HBsAG after 6 months of initial ss, are dx with chronic infection

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79
Q

S1 and S2 correspond to

A

S1: Mitral and tricuspid valve closure, loudest at mitral area

S2: Aortic and pulmonary valve closure.

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80
Q

Which is the most significant predictor of the likelihood of returning to work in this patient?

A

patients recovery expectation

Education to improve patients’ understanding of natural history and prognosis may improve the likelihood of returning to work.

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81
Q

Which Antihypertensives are contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Thiazides
ACEIs, ARBS
Calcium channel blockers

B blockers and hydralazine are safe

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82
Q

brain death algorithm

A

see ipad

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83
Q

When do you assess for PE in DVT?

A

If patient is symptomatic (eg, chest pain, shortness of breath, hemoptysis).
Do A CT
Management same as DVT- RIVAROXABAN OR WARFARIN

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84
Q

5 components of root cause analysis

A
Collect data
Identify possible causal factors
Identify root cause
Make recommendations and implement changes
measure the success of changes
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85
Q

Complications of pyelonephritis during pregnancy

A

Preterm labor
Low birth weight
Acute respiratory distress syndrome

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86
Q

What is Podophyllin and moa

A

is used as a medication to treat genital warts and plantar warts, including in people with HIV/AIDS.

Podophyllin arrests mitosis in metaphase.

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87
Q

Treatment of stable angina

A

ABN

Aspirin 325 mg
B blocker
Nitroglycerin

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88
Q

Alternatives of tto of strep if not able to tolerate oral penicillin or penicillin allergy?

A

a single dose of intramuscular penicillin is bactericidal for up to a month and can be given to patients who cannot tolerate oral antibiotics.

Azithromycin x 5 days if allergy

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89
Q

Pulse pressure calculation

A

systolic -diastolic pressure

Pulse pressure is proportional to SV, inverse to arterial compliance

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90
Q

TTO for keratosis pilaris (KP). KP (“chicken skin”)

A

retained keratin plugs in the hair follicles.

emollients and topical keratolytics (eg, salicylic acid, urea)

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91
Q

presentation of patellar tendon rupture

A

swelling and tenderness in the anterior knee, often with superior displacement of the patella.

With a complete tendon rupture, patients cannot actively extend the knee and cannot raise the leg against gravity.

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92
Q

Defect in Kartagener syndrome? presentation

A

Defect in dynein arm

Infertility ( immotile sperm, cilia in fallopian tubes dont move)
Situs inversus ( e.g. dextrocardia)
Chronic sinusitis
Bronchiectasis

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93
Q

Management of pyelonephritis during pregnancy

A

IV ceftriaxone, cefepime

Once afebrile for 48 hours, patients are placed on oral antibiotics for 10-14 days. After treatment completion, daily suppressive therapy (eg, low-dose nitrofurantoin or cephalexin) is initiated and is maintained until 6 weeks postpartum to prevent recurrence.

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94
Q

A combination of hydralazine plus nitrate therapy has been shown to provide additional symptomatic and mortality benefit in African American patients with persistent New York Heart Association class III or IV symptoms due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction (left ventricular ejection fraction <40%) not responding to optimal medical therapy.

A

true

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95
Q

Conditions that decrease the pulse pressure

A

everything that decreases flow: aortic stenosis, cardiogenic shock, cardiac tamponade, advanced heart failure

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96
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

Paroxysmal elevated blood pressure with tachycardia
Pounding headaches, palpitations, diaphoresis
Hypertension with an adrenal incidentaloma

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97
Q

Subacute infective endocarditis- pathogen and presentation

A

Viridians streptococci
Smaller vegetations on previously damaged valves or congenital valves.
Gradual onset

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98
Q

Screen for osteoporosis

A

All women 65 or older
Postmenopausal women < 65 with on or more risk factors for fracture
Men with risk of fracture

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99
Q

Structure lesioned in the following scenario:

Patient landed on the right knee, currently with severe pain and swelling. Patient not able to actively extend the knee or cannot raise the leg against gravity

A

Patellar tendon tear/rupture

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100
Q

Neonatal polycythemia definition

A

Hcto >= 65 or Hb > 22

Is most commonly observed at 2-3 hours of life

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101
Q

<p> 17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency</p>

A

<p> increased aldosterone, decreased cortisol ( hypoglycemia) and sex hormones.

Patients with HTN ( salt and fluid retention) +hypoK
Ambiguous genitalia, no secondary characteristics developed. </p>

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102
Q

Standardized mortality ratio

A

SMR = observed number of deaths/expected number of deaths
quantifies mortality in a specific group as compared to the general population

An SMR of 1.75 indicates that the observed number of deaths among the miners in this study was 1.75 times (or 75%) higher than would be expected if these miners had the same death rate as the standard population.

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103
Q

<p>Classification of enuresis and causes </p>

A

<p>Monosymptomatic ( only enuresis)

| Non-monosymtomatic ( enuresis + lower UT ss)</p>

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104
Q

If hemochromatosis is not treated the pt is at risk of?

A

hepatocellular Carcinoma

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105
Q

Prehn sign

A

Elevating the testicle leads to relief of pain- this occurs in epididymitis

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106
Q

TImeframe of when HPA axis suppression is more likely with glucocorticosteroids.

A

HPA axis suppression is more likely with prolonged (>3 weeks) GC usage, especially at higher doses or with evening administration. In these cases, a gradual taper of GCs is indicated.

A lengthy taper of >1 month may be required for patients with very prolonged GC therapy (eg, >1 year).

If given < 3 weeks abrupt stop of GCs can be done and would not affect the HPA axis

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107
Q

Patellar stress fracture presentation

A

chronic pain that worsens with activity

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108
Q

Brugada Syndrome

A

AD, Asian

pseudo right bundle branch block and ST elevations in V1-V3

HIGH risk for arrythmias and SCD

Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator

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109
Q

Why ciprofloxacin is CI in pregnancy

A

toxic to fetal cartilage development.

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110
Q

Treatment of scoliosis

A

always do first an Xray before tto to see Cobb angle

  • low/medium risk curve:observation or the use of a back brace
  • severe scoliosis (Cobb angle ≥40 degrees) requires surgical evaluation for possible spinal fusion given the high risk for progression and future complications (eg, chronic back pain, pulmonary compromise
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111
Q

Presetnation and treatment of MVP

A

Ehler Danlos, Marfan
Woman with atypical pain, palpitations, panic attack

Is better when ventricle filled with blood

Tto: avoid dehydration and give b blocker

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112
Q

How is the peak bone mass in men vs women, and how this affects the age on presentation

A

Bone mineral density depends on the peak bone mass and the rate of bone mass loss. The peak bone mass is higher in men, so men present with osteoporotic lesions 10 years later than women

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113
Q

Treatment for opioid withdrawal

A

Opioid agonist: methadone (preferred) or buprenorphine(potential worsening of withdrawal)

Nonopioid: clonidine (alpha2 adrenergic agonist) or adjunctive medications (antiemetics, antidiarrheals, benzodiazepines)

The choice depends on scenario:
opioid requires being in supervised or outpatient

Clonidine can be done

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114
Q

What does U wave indicates?

A

repolarization interventricular septium, prominent in hypoK
bradycardia
hypercalcemia
hyperthyroid

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115
Q

Raloxifene effect on hot flashes and DVT

A

increase the risk of hot flashes and VTE

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116
Q

obturator nerve lesion

A

sensory loss over the medial thigh

weakness in leg adduction.

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117
Q

<p>INitial treatment DM</p>

A

<p>
Conscious and able to drink and swallow safely:
Administer 0.3 g/kg (10 to 20 g) of a rapidly-absorbed carbohydrate. 15 g is supplied by 3 glucose tablets, a tube of gel with 15 g, 4 oz (120 mL) sweetened fruit juice, 6 oz non-diet soda, or a tablespoon (15 mL) of honey or table sugar. May repeat in 10 to 15 minutes.

Altered mental status, unable to swallow, or does not respond to oral glucose administration within 15 minutes:
Give an initial IV bolus of glucose of 0.25 g/kg of dextrose (maximum single dose 25 g).Δ The volume and concentration of glucose bolus is infused slowly at 2 to 3 mL per minute and based upon age:
2.5 mL/kg of 10% dextrose solution (D10W) in infants and children up to 12 years of age (10% dextrose is 100 mg/mL)
1 mL/kg of 25% dextrose (D25W) or 0.5 mL/kg of 50% dextrose (D50W) in adolescents (25% dextrose is 250 mg/mL; 50% dextrose is 500 mg/mL)

Unable to receive oral glucose and unable to obtain IV access:
Give glucagon 0.03 mg/kg IM or SQ (maximum dose 1 mg):◊
Perform blood glucose monitoring every 10 to 15 minutes as the effects of glucagon may be transient
Establish vascular access as soon as possible</p>

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118
Q

How do you evaluate rupture of Achilles tendon?

A

Thompson test- squeeze the gastrocnemius should cause plant to flex. Patient should be laying prone or knee in a chair.
In Achilles rupture there is no plantar flexion

DO NOT ASK ACTIVE PLANTAR FLEXION- Pt may use accessory muscles ( ie. fibularis) and falsely reassure they can

MRI should be asked if thompson positive.

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119
Q

Anal abscesses pathophysiology

A

one or more of the several glands that encircle the anus become blocked and the bacteria within grow unchecked

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120
Q

Treatment of dyspepsia

A

If the patient exhibit ss mostly due to GERD- heartburn, regurgitation or cough is indicated a trial with PPIS

In patients taking COX inhibitors- suspend and give a trial of PPIs during 8 weeks
In patients when this is not common assessment depends on
1. Age > 55 years
2. Alarm ss: weight loss, hematemesis, iron deficiency anemia
3. Helicobacter pylori status- if negative, treat with 4-6 weeks PPIs
If positive - treat ABCs

Patients with age> 55 or alarm signs should undergo an endoscopy

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121
Q

Meaning of Absent or reversed umbilical artery end-diastolic flow

A

placental insufficiency and impending fetal hypoxia, particularly with concomitant oligohydramnios, and is an indication for delivery

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122
Q

SE ACE inhibitors

A

Acute renal failure, hyperK, dry cough, angioedema, skin rash,altered sense of taste

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123
Q

<p>Prognosis of primary monosymptomatic enuresis</p>

A

<p>t resolves spontaneously at a rate of approximately 15 percent per year [9,10]. The longer the enuresis persists, the lower the probability that it will spontaneously resolve [7,9].</p>

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124
Q

MCC of thrombocytopenia in adults and children?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia

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125
Q

Labs ordered in initial prenatal visit

A
Rh(D) type, antibody screen
Hemoglobin/hematocrit, MCV
HIV, VDRL/RPR, HBsAg
Rubella &amp; varicella immunity
Pap test (if screening indicated)
Chlamydia PCR
Urine culture
Dipstick for urine protein
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126
Q

Cardiac output formula and variation with exercises ( early, late stage)

A
CO= SV x HR 
CO= (MAP-RAP)/TPR

In early exercise, the CO is maintained by both increased SV and HR
In late exercise is maintained by increase in HR

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127
Q

Bullous impetigo in an adult, suspect of?

A

HIV

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128
Q

Difference between MM & Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance . & Waldenstron Macroglobulinemia

A

Monoclonal gammopathy:
Asymptomatic, may lead to MM
NO CRAB findings
Develop MM at a rate of 1-2% year

Waldenstron:
M spike=IgM
Hyperviscosity ( diplopia, tinnitus, headache)
Neuropathy
Bleeding
Hepatosplenomegaly 
LAD
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129
Q

Treatment for MS-related neuropathic pain

A

Gabapentin, duloxetine

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130
Q

<p>Colon cancer screen in high risk patients </p>

A

<p>Colonoscopy at 40 or 10 years before his relative and repeat 3-5 years
</p>

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131
Q

RF for lead toxicity

A

RF for lead toxicity:

  • PICA
  • Houses built < 1978
  • Decoration/ toys painted < 1978
  • Foreign born children
  • Low SES
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132
Q

What is exostosis

A

Surfer’s ear - irritation due to cold and water leads to bnormal bone growth within the ear canal. - narrowing the canal

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133
Q

<p>Pellagra signs and symptoms, which vitamin?</p>

A

<p>Niacin ( B3)

~~~
4Ds
Dementia
Diarrhea
Dermatitis
Death
~~~

\+ red tongue, vomiting, diarrhea
insomnia, anxiety, disorientation , delusion.</p>

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134
Q

<p>11 b hydroxylase</p>

A

<p>HTN - fluid and salt retention
virilization
decreased aldosterone
renin decreased( has some glucocorticoid activity) </p>

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135
Q

Small bowel obstruction vs. ileum

A

Small bowel obstruction

  • Recent surgery ( weeks to years
  • Increased bowel sounds , abdomen distended
  • There is no gas in the colon
Ileus: 
      Recent surgery ( hours), metabolic abnormalities ( HYPOKALEMIA), MEDS
      Decreased bowel sounds , abdomen distended
     There is gas throughout the small and large intestine.
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136
Q

ECG findings in massive PE

A

MC:Sinus tachycardia

Other consistent ECG findings that occur due to right ventricular (RV) strain include new right bundle branch block, atrial arrhythmias, and Q-waves or ST-segment changes in the inferior leads.

pulmonary hypertension caused by massive PE often leads to dilation of the tricuspid valve annulus and functional tricuspid valve regurgitation seen on echocardiogram.

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137
Q

<p>HARTNUP disease </p>

A

<p>AR
Defect in transport of NEUTRAL AA by the intestine and renal tubules
Def of tryptophan and other aa

~~~
Usually asymptomatic BUT:
Failure to thrive
Photosensitivity
Ataxia
nystagmus
-pellagra like ss
~~~

DX: aminoaciduria

Tto: high protein diet
nicotinic acid.

</p>

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138
Q

Types of hepatorenal syndrome

A

Type I : rapidly progressive , most patients die within 10 weeks without treatment
Type II: progress more slowly with an average survival of 3-6 months.

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139
Q

Total serum IgE in Allergic bronchopulommonary aspergillosis

A

> 417 ng/ml

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140
Q

In what situation there is an increase of type I errors?

A

When we test multiple times at a set p value

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141
Q

Urge urinary incontinence dx, tto

A

Urge ( detrusor hyperactivity)

urodynamic testing

  • lifestyle modifications ( time voids and bladder training- establish a baseline interval and gradually increase the time between voids- eventually 3-4 hrs
  • antimuscarinic medication such as tolterodine, solifenacin, or oxybutynin.
  • IF PERSISTS DESPITE ABOVE considered for botulinum toxin injections or percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation.
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142
Q

<p>Patient who develop fever + chills after blood transfusion, nothing else. </p>

A

<p>Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction

reaction to cytokines released from WBCs in a product that has not been leukoreduced

acetaminophen</p>

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143
Q

Presentation of herpes simplex encephalitis

A
acute onset < 1 week
fever
seizures
altered mental status
focal neurological ss - such as hemiparesis, or CN deficits
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144
Q

AAOCA

A

exertional angina,
lightheadedness, or syncope;

however, some patients experience SCD without any premonitory symptoms.

Resting ECG is typically unremarkable.

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145
Q

Heart murmur that radiates to carotids

A

aortic stenosis

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146
Q

MC cancers in dermatomyositis

A
adenocarcinoma of the cervix
ovaries,
lung
pancreas
bladder
 stomach.
non hodgkin lymphoma
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147
Q

SE of CCBs

A

Dihydropyridines( amlodipine): peripheral edema

Non-dihydropyridine( verapamil, diltiazem): heart block

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148
Q

<p>Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction </p>

A

<p>intravascular hemolysis ( ABO incompatibility) or extravascular hemolysis( host antibody agains antigen on RBC)

Direct coombs +
plasma hemoglobin >25
hemoglobinuria</p>

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149
Q

presence of orbital fat tissue in the wound indicates

A

a high probability of septum injury and a possible levator palpebrae injury.

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150
Q

pseudogout

A

intra-articular steroids, NSAIDs, colchicine

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151
Q

Which muscles cause eversion of the foot?

A
The fibullaris ( aka peroneos)
- longus, brevis, tertius
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152
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

subjects’ participation in research, the subsequent awareness of being observed, and the possible impact on behavior.

may overestimate the effect of the intervention, and the internal validity of the study

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153
Q

Stalled puberty

A

it was started but doesn’t complete within 4 years

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154
Q

When do you screen for hyperlipidemia

A

Measure nonfasting total cholesterol and HDL
All men <=35
Women>=45

Also men 20-35 if RF
Women 20-45 IF RF

If total cholesterol 240 and RF get a complete lipoprotein profile(LDL, TRG)

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155
Q

Child victim of abusive head trauma with lethargy, what do you order next?

A

CT head– subdural hematoma - mainly in patients with altered mental status.

It usually presents as a mixed density pattern ( some regions darker which is more chronic, some regions lighter which are more acute)

Once this has been done, skeletal Xray survey first.

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156
Q

<p>Treatment of glucagonoma</p>

A

<p>Octeotride

| Surgical resection </p>

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157
Q

discoid lupus erythematosus of the scalp

A

hair loss, scaling, inflammation, scarring, and hypopigmentation of the skin.
There may be associated lesions present over the face or extremities.

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158
Q

MOA and SE of metoclopramide

A

prokinetic agent that acts as a central and peripheral D2-receptor blocker.

akathisia, dystonia, and parkinsonian-like symptoms

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159
Q

Constitutional delay of growth and puberty

  • pathophysiology and clinical presentation
A

Is the most common cause of delayed puberty.

Transient defect in GnRH production from hypothalamus

Family history , AD , “ late bloomers” in the history

Length at birth is normal
Length 3-6m downward shift in growth rate but always parallel.
3-4 years grow in a low-normal rate below but parallel to the 3RD PERCENTILE
Hallmark is the delayed bone growth.

NORMAL GROWTH VELOCITY

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160
Q

<p>Medications such as b blockers completely resolve essential tremor T/F</p>

A

<p>F</p>

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161
Q

Pregnant woman with Lyme, risk of congenital abnormalities for fetus?

A

NO increased risk to the fetus when the mother receives adequate treatment for Lyme disease with

14-21 days of amoxicillin or cefuroxime.

Non-pregnant woman :doxycycline

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162
Q

PCP MOA

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

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163
Q

Risk factors for gestational diabetes mellitus

A
family history of diabetes mellitus, 
a history of GDM in a previous pregnancy, 
obesity, 
multiple gestation, 
and maternal age >25.
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164
Q

S2 splitting in. inspiration mOA

A

AP

with inspiration higher blood to the left meaning that pulmonary valve closes after aorta

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165
Q

Mechanism of bone loss with glucocorticosteroids

A

Glucocorticoids cause bone loss through different mechanisms:

  • Decrease Ca absorption in the gut
  • Cause renal calcium wasting
  • Direct anti-anabolic effect in the bone
  • Suppress the release of GnRH—> hypogonadism —> aggravates bone loss
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166
Q

Which nerve innervate the fibullaris longus and brevis?

A

superficial fibular nerve

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167
Q

ECG findings for Brugada syndrome

A

(right bundle branch block and ST-segment elevation in leads V1-V3)
or long QT syndrome (QTc >450 msec in men or >470 msec in women) makes these diagnoses less likely.

AD disorder

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168
Q

When do you give Mg in pregnancy? and why

A

patients at <32 weeks gestation

provides fetal neuroprotection and decreases the incidence of cerebral palsy.

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169
Q

<p>Strategies to avoid opioid misuse</p>

A

<p>check state prescription drug monitoring program > random urine checks > schedule frequent follow-ups</p>

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170
Q

Acute retinal vein thrombosis vs. retinal artery

A

retinal artery: amaurosis fugax

retinal vein thrombosis : retinal hemorrhage

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171
Q

<p>Coarctation of aorta associated to which syndrome?</p>

A

<p>Turner</p>

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172
Q

Endometriosis can present with immobile uterus and cervical motion tenderness T/F

A

T

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173
Q

Immune thrombocytopenia treatment

A
  1. steroids: children response well, adults late and may relapse
  2. IVIG: can raise platelet count in significant bleeding.( macrophages eat the given IgG instead of the one bound to platelets)
  3. splenectomy in refractory cases

children-if skin manifestations only- observe. If bleeding IVIG, steroids.

adults: >=30,000 without bleeding observe. IF <30,000 OR bleeding treat.

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174
Q

<p>Description of the lesions of atopic dermatitis and locations</p>

A

<p>Chronic pruritic rash with escoriation and lichnification

infants: red crustered lesions in extensor surfaces
adults: flexural eczema and liquenification </p>

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175
Q

Management of neonatal polycythemia

A

IV fluids
Glucose
Partial exchange transfusion

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176
Q

Labs ordered at 34-37 weeks of pregnancy

A

Group B Streptococcus culture

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177
Q

Nerve involved in Meralgia paresthetica,

A

Lateral femoral cutaenous nerve entrapment

PURELY SENSORY
decreased sensation over the anterolateral thigh without any muscle weakness or deep tendon reflex abnormalities.

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178
Q

treatment of joint pain in juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Intraarticular corticosteroid injections

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179
Q

Atypical lymphocytosis are seen in which diseases

A
EBV
Toxoplasmosis
Rubella
Roseola
Viral hepatitis
CMV
acute HIV infection
MUmps
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180
Q

What is the MCC of HF in the use?

A

Ischemic cardiomyopathy - most have known CAD, however is not uncommon that they dont know . 7%

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181
Q

HTN, bilateral flank pain/fullness and a family history of end-stage renal disease

A

ADPKD

patients are often asymptomatic

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182
Q

holosystolic, high pitched “ blowing murmur”

A

mitral/tricuspid regurgitation

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183
Q

<p>To whom do you give leukoreduced RBC transfusion</p>

A

<p>1. Chronically transfused patients

2. CMV seronegative at risk patients( AIDS,HIV)
3. Previous febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction </p>

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184
Q

Management of PCP intox

A

If patient is violent– give BZD ( if BZD doesnt work, restrains may be needed or even haloperidol)

If ss are mild- patient is calmed but detached or in withdrawal- low stimulating environment ( with or without BZD)

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185
Q

findings in of aortic stenosis

A

crescendo decresendo
radiates to carotids
single soft murmur
pulsus parvus et tardus ( weak and delayed)
lead to SAD: Syncope, angina, dyspnea on exertion
CHF

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186
Q

If dysphagia for

both liquids and solids , what do you suspect and what do you order?

A

— Neuromuscular disease - motility disorder— Barium swallow with barium

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187
Q

Infants born to women with MS have risk of MS?

A

increased risk of developing MS (eg, 3%-23% of MS cases are familial)
and can be born with lower birth weights.

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188
Q

AV node delay

A

100 msec

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189
Q

Conditions that increase pulse pressure

A

everything that increases flow: hyperthyroidism, aortic regurgitation, aortic stiffening, OSA ( increased sympathetic tone), Exercise ( transient)

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190
Q

Treatmnt of scabies

A

permethrin

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191
Q

When monitoring a patient with angina that may develop MI how do you do it?

A

Troponin I ( at least 2 troponins 3 hours apart) and serial ECG (30 minutes) .

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192
Q

<p>What are the blood transfusions associated with hypotension?</p>

A

<p>-anaphylaxis

- transfusion related acute lung injury TRALI
- primary hypotension reaction
- bacterial sepsis</p>

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193
Q

After treating a patient for H.pylori, what is the best method to confirm erradication ?

A

Fecal antigen testing 4 weeks after completing treatment

  • bismuth and oral antibiotics can lead to false negative results
  • urea breath testing 4 weeks after completing treatment is also an option but is not as available as fecal antigen
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194
Q

Confounding bias

A

when the study design or analysis does not control for the potential effect these confounders may have on the association under study.

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195
Q

<p>Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with what condition and how does it presents</p>

A

<p>celiac disease

pruritic papules and vesicles on extensor surface of the elbows and knees, but also on buttocks and back </p>

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196
Q

Prognosis of pregnancy related melasma

A

Pregnancy-related melasma typically regresses spontaneously within the first year after delivery, although some areas do not completely resolve.

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197
Q

Treatment for raynaud phenomena

A

1st line Nifedipino and amlodipine.

diltiazem a little

not verapamil

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198
Q

Is liver biopsy done for confirming hemochromatosis ?

A

NO

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199
Q

Bedside screen for sepsis

A

qSOFA ( Sequential organ failure assessment)

1 point to: 
*     Respiratory Rare >=22
* Altered mental status
* SBP<100
A score >= 2 is likely to be sepsis
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200
Q

MS exacerbation treatment

long term treatment?

A

steroids

Disease-modifying drugs (eg, beta-interferon, glatiramer acetate) decrease the frequency of relapses and reduce the development of brain lesions

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201
Q

Basilar artery occlussion presentation

A
motor weakness, ataxia, or incoordination
altered level of consciousness
fascial weakness
dysphagia
dysarhtria
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202
Q

Fick’s principle, what is it and how is it calculated

A

An indirect method to measure CO

rate of O2 consumption/ ( arterial O2-venous O2)

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203
Q

Management of perianal and small ischiorectal abscesses

A

Can be drained in the office, no need of surgery unless they are too large

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204
Q

T-scores for osteopenia, osteoporosis, severe osteoporosis

A

Normal >= -1
Osteopenia -1 to -2.5
Osteoporosis =<2.5
Severe: =<2.5 + fragility fracture

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205
Q

Cause and ppt of immune thrombocytopenia

A

ACUTE ( children) viral illness or after immunization
IgG against GpIIb/GpIIIa , generated by plasma cell in spleen. macrophage eats the complex.

BM with high megakaryocytes, low platelets ( usually < 50)

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206
Q

patient with parkinson and recurrent pneumonia? dx?management?

A

Parkinson may be complicated by dysphagia and drooling

Leading to aspiration pneumonia

Do a videofluoroscopy swallow barium

Give thickened liquids and modified swallowing techniques

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207
Q

Types of volume expanders

A

Crystalloids and colloids

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208
Q

Acute treatment for gout in normal vs. CKD/renal transplant?

A

NSAIDs( Indomethacin),colchicine, steroids

Intraarticular glucocorticoids OR if already on systemic steroids increase the dose

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209
Q

Stress ulcer prophylaxis indication

A

Any 1 factor

Coagulopathy: platelets <50,000/mm3, INR >1.5, PTT >2x normal control
Mechanical ventilation >48 hours
GI bleeding or ulceration in last 12 months
Head trauma, spinal cord injury, major burn

> 2 factors

Glucocorticoid therapy
>1 week ICU stay
Occult GI bleeding >6 days
Sepsis

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210
Q

Achalasia cause and dx

A

Abscence myenteric plexus in LES-> loss of inhibition so permanent contraction

Manometry: Incomplete relaxation in LES and apersitaltic esophagus

Dx: barium swallow
EGD to rule out malignancy, otherwise normal mucosa
Manometry.

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211
Q

<p>Colon cancer screen in average risk patients</p>

A
<p>Colonoscopy every 10 years
gFOBT or FIT each year 
FIT-DNA each 1-3 year 
CT colonography every 5 years 
Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years

gFOBT:guiac-based fecal occult blood test
FIT: fecal immunochemical test
FIT-DNA: multitarget stool test</p>

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212
Q

Dx of lead poisoning

A

Dx: > 5
It can be assessed through finger stick trst- “ capillary”, but if positive always confirm with a venous sampling.
In kids - abdominal X ray to evaluate for lead containing objects or flecks given the exposure

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213
Q

How to determine statistical significance with confidence interval

A
  1. In a study comparing treatment A and B against placebo, and they present OR with CI. The confidence intervals did not include 0 which means that the treatments were significantly different from placebo. But now compared A and B we have to se if there is or not overlap
    1. If there IS NO OVERLAP— there is a significant difference between the groups
    2. If there is OVERLAP, there may or not be statistically difference between the groups.
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214
Q

Labs in polymyalgia rheumatica

A

ESR> 40, SOMETIMES >100
High CRP
Normocytic anemia
20% can have normal studie

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215
Q

How do you manage PAD with ABI:
=< 0.9 OR > 1.3 ?

between 0.9 and 1.3?

A
=< 0.9 OR > 1.3
   Consult a vascular specialist
   duplex imaging
   CT angiography
   MR angio
   angiography

between 0.9 and 1.3
Exercise test

Is abnormal if ABI post-test is decreased by >= 20%

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216
Q

Management of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Stop the transfusion aggressively hydrating the patient with normal saline (not Ringer’s or dextrose) to treat the hypotension and prevent renal failure.

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217
Q

normal QRS

A

<120 msec

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218
Q

Suicide assessment

A

Evaluate ideation
Wish to die, not wake up (passive)
Thoughts of killing self (active)
Frequency, duration, intensity, controllability

Evaluate intent
Strength of intent to attempt suicide; ability to control impulsivity
Determine how close patient has come to acting on a plan (rehearsal, aborted attempts)

Evaluate plan
Specific details: Method, time, place, access to means (eg, weapons, pills), preparations (eg, gathering pills, changing will)
Lethality of method
Likelihood of rescue

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219
Q

Patient with dysphagia in whom you suspect a structural lesion in the upper esophagus, what do you order

A

Nasopharyngeal laryngoscopy

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220
Q

Medications that can cause urinary retention

A
anticholinergics
antihistamines
baclofen 
TCAs
decongestants
CBZ
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221
Q

clinically significant scoliosis definition and what is the next step

A

Spinal rotation ≥7 degrees (or ≥5 degrees in overweight children)–>X ray

If < 7 –> reassurance

differnt to Cobb angle in X ray: ≥10 degrees have scoliosis

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222
Q

Score of minimental for dementia

A

<24

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223
Q

<p>Psychosocial risk factors that may be assessed for organ transplant candidates</p>

A

<p>poor medical adherence
substance abuse ( drugs/alcohol)
poor social support
cognitive dysfunction

Psychosocial factors are as important as medical and surgical to evaluate for organ transplant candidate. </p>

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224
Q

Treatment of seborrheic dermatitis

A

topical antifungals ( selenium sulfide, ketoconazole)
topical glucocorticoids
topical calcineurin inhibitors ( pimecrolimus)

Because is chronic , relapsing disease patients require intermittent re-treatment . eg. topical ketoconazole every 1-2 weeks

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225
Q

Cushing syndrome

A

Central obesity, facial plethora
Proximal muscle weakness, abdominal striae
Ecchymosis, amenorrhea/erectile dysfunction
Hypertension with adrenal incidentaloma

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226
Q

Management of PAD?

A

PAD =< 0.9

First line - Exercise, ASPIRIN, STATIN, HTN & DM modifications

second line- if above dont work Cilostazol (selective inhibitor of PDE3)

Last: percutaneous revascularization

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227
Q

Mechanism of action of B blockers for HTN

A

decrease HR, decrease CO, decrease renin release

- is good in CHF, CAD, Afib

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228
Q

What is cholesteatoma?

A

skin growth that occurs in an abnormal location, the middle ear behind the eardrum.

It is usually caused by repeated infection that causes an ingrowth of the skin of the eardrum

. Cholesteatomas often take the form of a cyst or pouch that sheds layers of old skin that builds up inside the ear.

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229
Q

kyphosis classification and causes

A

non structural: slouching ( sitting lazy), no need of treatment easily corrected with position

structural: always rule out: spinal infection, fracture, tumor, degeneration
special exercises to strengthen and straighten the back; using a back brace or having surgical correction is considered only for chronic pain or significant spinal convexity (>60 degrees)

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230
Q

What do you order in a patient in whom you suspect ADPKD?

A

renal US

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231
Q

Diffuse esophageal spams

A

uncoordinated simulatenous contractions, intermittent chest pain and dysphagia.

Manometry : intermittent persistasis , multiple simultaneous contractions.

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232
Q

Clinical signs of strep A pharyngitis - S. pyogenes

A

abrupt onset of fever
sore throat
malaise
absence of upper respiratory symptoms (eg, cough, rhinorrhea, congestion).

PE: tonsillar exudates, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and palatal petechiae.

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233
Q

Patient treated with nifedipine for Raynaud that comes back to clinic mentioning that has not improved and now has myalgias, arthralgias. Next step?

A

Raynaud syndrome,

ANA, RF, CBC, blood chemistry, urinalysis and measurement of complement levels.

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234
Q

Outcome in multiple linear regression vs logistic regression

A

linear: continuous outcome
logistic: categorical outcome

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235
Q

How is the breast Ca screening in patients with breast implants?

A

SAME AS NORMAL PERSON

starting at age 40-50 years (earlier if there are risk factors) per the guidelines.

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236
Q

pathogens of septic arthritis in kids >=3 months

A

S. aureus

Group A Strep( pyogenes)

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237
Q

Pathogenesis of hepatorenal syndrome

A

Liver cirrhosis-> portal hypertension—> NO release from splanchnic vasculature—> systemic vasodilation —> decreased of peripheral resistance and BP—> renal hypo perfusion—> activate RAS, sympathetic system and ADH. — worsen volume overload

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238
Q

If suspected massive PE, next step?

A

Echocardiogram

acute right ventricular dysfunction, tricuspid annulus dilation, and functional tricuspid valve regurgitation.

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239
Q

What is the underlying mechanism of the following disorders:

  1. Transposition of great vessels
  2. Tetralogy of fallot
  3. Persistent truncus arteriosus
A

Conotruncal abnormalities result from failure of neural crest to migrate

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240
Q

Maternal complications of adolescent pregnancy

A
hydatiform mole
pre-eclampsia
anemia
operational vaginal delivery 
postpartum depression

D2 Inadequate nutrition and physiologic immaturity

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241
Q

Contraindications to neuraxial analgesia in thrombocytopenic patients

A

severe thrombocytopenia (platelets <70,000/mm3) or rapidly dropping platelet count (often associated with preeclampsia with severe features). –> risk of spinal epidural hematoma.

in this cases intravenous analgesia is an option

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242
Q

<p>patient hiked in washington state and now has gait ataxia, ascending paralysis, what do you suspect and what do you do next?</p>

A

<p>tick paralysis

meticulous revision of the skin</p>

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243
Q

<p>Klienefelter dx</p>

A

<p>47 XXY,
karyotype
gynecomastia and small testes </p>

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244
Q

SE B blockers

A
Bradycardia
Bronchospasm
Insomnia
Fatigue
may increase TG and decrease HDL
Depression
sedation 
may MASK HYPOGLYCEMIC SS IN DM ON INSULIN
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245
Q

When does the heart starts beating?

A

4 weeks

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246
Q

patient with dysphagia with lower esophagus ss, what do you order

A

Esophagoduodenoscopy

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247
Q

<p>4 scenarios of Niacin (B3) deficiency?</p>

A

<p>1. Deficiency:

a. In developing worlds: corn that has not been processed
b. in developed countries: alcoholics

2. Carcinoid Syndrome: tryptophan is used to produce 5-OH tryptophan and serotonin rather than Niacin
3. Prolonged consumption of isoniazid: isoniazid decreases pyridoxal phosphate which triggers production of tryptophan. There is no conversion to niacin
4. Hartnup disease: AR , decreased abosrption of tryptophan by intestinal and renal cells. Dx with neutral aa in urine. </p>

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248
Q

Ejection fraction calculation

A

SV/EDV

normal >=55%

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249
Q

What should be done in MM to assess the risk of fracture?

A

skeletal survey

punched-out lytic lesions,
diffuse osteopenia, or
fractures in nearly 80% of patients.

Common sites for lytic lesions include vertebral bodies, skull, thoracic cage, pelvis, and proximal humerus and femur.

Other imaging modalities are usually reserved for patients with bone pain and negative initial x-ray skeletal surveys.

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250
Q

Causes of dyspepsia

A

Most of the cases is primary- idiopathic
Dyspepsia secondary to organic disease — Although there are several organic causes for dyspepsia, the main causes are peptic ulcer disease, gastroesophageal reflux, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced dyspepsia, and gastric malignancy (table 1).

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251
Q

labs Alcoholic liver disease and hepatic steatosis

A

elevations in transaminases > elevation in alkaline phosphatase

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252
Q

What to consider when a pt wants to be discharged against medical advice?

A

Discuss specific benefits/risks of proposed treatment & alternatives
Discuss specific risks of refusing treatment
Assess decision-making capacity - any physician can assess it, not necessarily a psychiatrist
Understands proposed treatment
Understands risks of refusing treatment

Demonstrates a reasoned basis for leaving against medical advice–The physician should ask the patient to explain the reason for refusing treatment and address any modifiable external influences

Discuss follow-up care & option to return to emergency department
Notify primary physician, family
Document in medical record

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253
Q

Presentation and RF of angiodysplasia

A

GI bleeding, painless

RF:aortic stenosis, von Willebrand disease, CKD.

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254
Q

Pathophysiology of Spinal muscular atrophy

A

Degeneration of anterior horn cells and motor nuclei of lower brainstem
AR

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255
Q

strongest predictor of future suicide attempts

A

previous suicide attempt

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256
Q

Define Type I error

A

Type I error ( alpha)

rejection of the null hypothesis ( false +) — falsely inferring the existence or reality of something that is in fact not real or doesn’t even exist

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257
Q

Heart Failure classification

A

A: High risk for HF, no structural heart abnormality or ss of HF ( Patients with DM, HTN, cardiotoxic drugs)

B. Structural abnormality but no ss ( MI,or valvular disease with Left ventricular enlargement or low EF)

C. Structural abnormality with prior or current + SS

D. At rest HF or end stage cardiac disease

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258
Q

Pathophysiology of HTN effects on heart

A

Increased afterload–>concentric LVH–> decreased LV function. As a result the chamber dilates–> ss and signs of CHF.

HTN accelerates atherosclerosis , so high incidence of CAD and PAD

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259
Q

Dx of gout

A

Clinical presentation highly suggestive
Arthrocentesis with monosodium urate crystals confirms diagnosis
Negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals under polarizing light

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260
Q

Differential dx of primary hypogonadism and secondary?

A
Primary: Klinefelter
Secondary:
Constitutional delay, malnutrition, chronic illness
Hypothyroidism
HyperProlactinemia
Kallman Sx
Craniopharyngioma
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261
Q

Management to prevent osteopenia/osteopososis in pt requiring life-long use of corticosteroids.

A

Give Ca and Vit D supplementation, if just prevention

Biphosphonates such as alendronate, are only approved once osteoporosis has established. And treatment would be indicated if DEXA shows T score< 1.5 that continues to rapidly deteriorate.

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262
Q

Complication of impetigo

A

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

Rheumatic fever

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263
Q

Critically ill patinet ( ie. head trauma ) that had hypotension at some point and develops melena, cause?

A

GI stress ulcer ( is not ischemic colitis because it should be hematochezia)

ill patients –> uremix toxins, reflux of bile salts into stomach–> alter mucsal layer and risk of ulcer formation.

head trauma: increased gastrin secretion–> acid–> risk of ulcer

shock: mucosal ischemia leading to ulcerations.

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264
Q

AAOCA DX

A

Transthoracic echocardiogram can sometimes make the diagnosis, but it can also miss or inaccurately characterize AAOCA.

CT coronary angiography or coronary magnetic resonance angiography provide the best visualization of coronary anatomy, and are the diagnostic tests of choice in patients with suspected AAOCA.

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265
Q

Allocation vs selection bias

A

Allocation bias: result from the way subjects are assigned to the treatment and control groups. It may occur when subjects are nonrandomly assigned to the treatment groups of a clinical trial (eg, physicians may preferentially enroll sicker patients into the treatment group).

selection bias: study population does not represent the general population

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266
Q

contraceptive-induced cholestatic liver d

A

high bilirubin

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267
Q

Causes Neonatal polycythemia

A

increased erythropoiesis due to intrauterine hypoxia: Maternal HTN, Smoking, DM; or IUGR
Eryhtrocyte transfusion: delayed cord clamp, twin-twin transfusion
Genetic or metabolic abnormalities: hypo/hyperthyroidism, genetic trisomies.

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268
Q

TTO Diffuse esophageal spams

A

Ca channel blockers,

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269
Q

<p>What is triamcinolone?</p>

A

<p>topical corticosteroid</p>

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270
Q

Exams to consider in erectile dysfunction

A
rectal exam
neuro exam
CBC
chemestry panel 
Fasting glucose
Lipid profile
If hypogonadism or loss of libido -Testosterone, prolactin level, TSH
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271
Q

When does withdrawal from methadone occurs?

A

24-48 hrs

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272
Q

Immune thrombocytopenia during pregnancy effects

A

IgG crosses placenta, Antibodies can be transmitted to the baby

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273
Q

Non polar aa

A
Tryptophan
Phenylalanine
Methionine
Proline 
Glycine
Isoleucine
Alanine
Valine
Leucine
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274
Q

Afib that needs antiarrhythmic in the context of LVH

A

Dronedarone

Amiodarone

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275
Q

<p>What are the most common congenital defects that can present for first time in adulthood?</p>

A

<p>MC: Bicuspid aorta

| 2nd MC: ASD</p>

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276
Q

RF and presentation of uterine sarcoma

A

radiation
tamoxifen use

postmenopausal bleeding, uterine growth and irregular

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277
Q

Definition of adolescent pregnancy

A

=< 19 years

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278
Q

Extrarenal manifestations of ADPKD

A
Cerebral aneurysms
Hepatic &amp; pancreatic cysts
Cardiac valve disorders (mitral valve prolapse, aortic regurgitation)
Colonic diverticulosis
Ventral &amp; inguinal hernias
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279
Q

The effect of Valsalva, amylnitrate, standing on heart murmurs?

A

VAS-> decrease venous return so increases HCM and MVP

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280
Q

<p>BZD withdrawal </p>

A

<p>confusion, restlessness, tremors, psychosis and AUTONOMIC INSTABILITY ( elevated heart rate, BP and temperature)

withdrawal from long or intermediate . peak within days

Withdrawal from short ( ATOM- alprazolam, triazolam, oxazepam, mdz) occurs within 24 hrs </p>

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281
Q

What type of antihypertensive is commonly the first line drug despite knowing that there is no significant difference with others?

A

Thiazides

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282
Q

What is the next step in a patient in whom you suspect HTN due to renovascular disease?

A

Renal doppler US or CT or MRI angiography . BUT RENAL US is preferred in patients with renal insufficiency- due to contrast induced nephropathy.

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283
Q

Patients with hematochezia and hemodynamic instability (eg, orthostatic hypotension) should generally be assumed to have an upper GI source of bleeding.

A

TRUE

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284
Q

” blowing murmur”

A

is regurgitation, can be mitral, tricuspid, aortic

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285
Q

Severe pain with hypertensive emergency

A

aortic dissection

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286
Q

What happens if a patient scheduled for a very important surgery is diagnosed with hypothyroidism? SHould you continue with the surgery? treat the patient?

A

Hypothyroidism (in the absence of myxedema coma or other severe symptoms) usually only mildly increases the perioperative risk.

In life threatening conditions heart disease is better to assume these risks and continue with the surgery as planned

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287
Q

ACE and ARBs should not be used in combination T/F

A

T

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288
Q

Do you do exercise ECG stress test in Pulmonary arterial hypertension?

A

Exercise ECG stress testing is used to evaluate for suspected coronary artery disease; it does not have a role in the evaluation of patients with suspected PH.

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289
Q

characteristics HIV myopathy

A

Proximal
LE>UE
+ myalgias and muscle tenderness

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290
Q

Overflow urinary incontinence dx

A

Postresidual void > 50 men, > 150 women ml
urodynamic testing

cholinergic agents ( bethanechol), intermittent catheterization

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291
Q

characteristics myopathy in dermatomyositis

A

Proximal, UE>LE

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292
Q

<p>How to differentiate an ascending paralysis from tick with a spinal lesion?</p>

A

<p>spinal lesion can cause paralysis, absent reflexes
but SENSATION is likely to be abnormal too.

Most common etiologies ( tumor, infection) - progress slowly over days or weeks</p>

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293
Q

<p>Insulin crosses the placenta T/F</p>

A

<p>F. In infants of diabetic mother, the infant compensates producing insulin. </p>

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294
Q

What is the most important risk factor for osteoporosis in both men and women?

A

Age

others less important are alcohol, smoking and family hx

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295
Q

Cobb angle

A

measures spine curvature on x-ray and is the gold standard for determining diagnosis and treatment of scoliosis.

Cobb angle ≥10 degrees have scoliosis.

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296
Q

What tests to order in a new patient with CHF

A

Chest X ray( pulmonary edema, cardiomegaly, rule out COPD)
ECG
Cardiac enzymes to rule out MI
Echocardiogram( estimate EF, rule out pericarditis)

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297
Q

Serology for immunization of Hep B

A

AntiHbs

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298
Q

How to differentiate septic arthritis vs transient synovitis

A
Kocher criteria for septic arthritis:  “WENT"
 WBCs>12
ESR >40
 Non weight bearing
T > 38.5

ACUTE PAIN IN SEPTIC ARTHRITIS!

Pediatric patients with ≥3 criteria have a high likelihood of septic arthritis (>93%), and immediate joint aspiration is performed to both establish the diagnosis and decompress the joint. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, empiric parenteral antibiotics as well as surgical drainage and debridement of the joint are required.

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299
Q

What are the causes of HF with preserved LV function?

A
  1. Diastolic Heart failure: HTN leading to left ventricle hypertrophy, restrictive/infiltrative cardiomyopathy, occult CAD
  2. Valve disease : Mitral S or R, Aortic S. or R
  3. Pericardial disease: constrictive pericarditis, cardiac tamponade
  4. High output conditions: Anemia, thyrotoxicosis, beri beri , sepsis, AV fistula
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300
Q

prognosis of GERD in newborns/infants

A

more frequent during the first few months of life
peak at 4 months;
it is expected to self-resolve by age 12-18 months.

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301
Q

Factors that increase Stroke volume

A

Increased contractility, increased preload ( exercise, overtransfusion, pregnancy, overhydration)

Decreased afterload

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302
Q

Clinical presentation of mitral stenosis

A

Besides SOB and CHF associated to all forms of valvular disease:

  • dysphagia
  • hoarseness
  • Afib
  • Hemoptysis
  • Opening snap
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303
Q

Normal GFR

A

90 to 120 mL/min/1.73 m2

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304
Q

If a patient with high risk of HIV refuses to testing what do you do?

A

First try to understand the reasons why he doesnt want to be tested

DONT say that if he doesnt this may cause risk to him and partners– this is judgemental.

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305
Q

<p>Which patients present with hypoplastic left ventricle?</p>

A

<p>Occurs in 1st trimester in kids of moms with pregestational diabetes or chromosomal diseases

Presents with cyanosis
Often recognized in the second trimester US.</p>

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306
Q

What leads to closure of Foramen ovale at birth?

A

Increased O2 -leads to decreased pulmonary resistance, and decrease in PGs ( due to placental separation)

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307
Q

What exam do you consider in a patient presenting with dyspnea- new onset HF with dilated left ventricle and EF 38%

A

Exclude CAD, with cardiac testing. – stress test

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308
Q

Urticarial/allergic blood transfusion reaction

A

Urticaria, flushing, angioedema
Within 2-3 hrs of transfusion

Caused by recipient IgE antibodies activation

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309
Q

<p>First exam that should be asked in enuresis </p>

A

<p>urianalysis ( specific gravidity)</p>

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310
Q

Virus family in Hep A, B,C,D,E

A

Please Help Edna, Friends Dont Hurt

Picornavius
Hepadnavirus
Flavivirus
Deltavirus Hepevirus

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311
Q

Preeclampsia can occur postpartum?

A

Yes, up to 12 weeks after delivery

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312
Q

needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals.

A

gout

acute inflammatory arthritis affecting the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint or knee.

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313
Q

Scoliosis and genetic testing?

A

scoliosis may have a hereditary component, genetic testing is expensive and unnecessary as x-ray determines diagnosis and management.

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314
Q

Older adults with new-onset cognitive impairment should be assessed for

A

depression.

They can exhibit pseudodementia which is reversible. Before doing a minimental assess for depressive ss.

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315
Q

Endothelin , what is it and role in PAH

A

Endothelin is a potent vasoconstricting hormone that is produced by endothelial cells, and endothelin receptors are abundant in the pulmonary arteries of patients with idiopathic PAH.

Endothelin receptor antagonists (eg, bosentan, ambrisentan) –> delayed progression of disease in symptomatic patients with idiopathic PAH.

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316
Q

MCC of 2ary HTN in young women

A

OCPs

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317
Q

Dx of HTN

A

at least 2 BP readings over a span of 4 or more weeks

EXCEPT if the patient presents with moderate-to-severe HTN, inthese patients start treatment

 To assess end organ damage: 
Urianalysis
K,BUN,Creat
Fasting glucose
Lipid level
ECG
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318
Q

Dos rectal prolapse presents with pain?

A

NO, discomfort (not significant pain) in the anal area

IF significant pain may suggest a different disorder

Patients usually develop difficulty with defecation, diarrhea/fecal incontinence, rectal bleeding, and a protruding rectal mass. Symptoms may occur intermittently.

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319
Q

What is the mechanism of action of desmopressin?

A

increases the release of factor VIII: von Willebrand factor multimers from endothelium

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320
Q

Cause Diffuse esophageal spams

A

associated with emotional factors and functional GI disorders.

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321
Q

Patient with hormone replacement therapy who develop DVT, management?

A

Stop hormone replacement therapy, substitute for SSRIs( escitalopram) SNRIs
and initiate Rivaroxaban

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322
Q

Type II HIT

A

Type II- >=50% platelet count drop from baseline 5-14 days after heparin onset
clinically significant due to antibodies against PF4heparin complex to heparin “HIT abs or PF4/Heparin antibodies”
Causes THROMBOSIS AND THROMBOCYTOPENIA

Necrotic skin lesions at the sites of heparin injection
Acute systematic reaction to heparin (anaphylactoid)

4Ts:
Thrombosis 
Thrombocytopenia
Timing of the platelet count drop
Absence of other causes of thrombocytopenia
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323
Q

Gestational thrombocytopenia treatment

A

none
resolves by its own, repeat eval postpartum to ensure resolution

BUT BECAREFUL BECAUSE THERE ARE CI TO EPIDURAL ANALGESIA IF < 70,000 OR pre-eclampsia

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324
Q

Barrett’s esophagus causes dysphagia T/F

A

False

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325
Q

What is the class of medication of tolterodine, solifenacin, and oxybutynin?

A

antimuscarinic

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326
Q

<p>When to order a renal or bladder US in enuresis?</p>

A

<p> when there is non-monosymptomatic enuresis; the patient also refers daytime ss

daytime ss= bladder</p>

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327
Q

Which joints does the arthropathy of hereditary hemochromatosis affect?

A

second and third metacarpophalangeal joints, knees, ankles, and shoulders.

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328
Q

What is the next step after finding an incidental adrenal mass in an asymptomatic patient?

A

Study it.

Order: 
electrolytes
dexamethasone suppression test 
24h urine catecholamines
metanephrines 
MVA

Surgery if:
size >4 cm
functional
malignant

Conservative if none of the above with serial imaging

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329
Q

Why avoid antibiotics in infantile botulism

A

Antibiotics (especially aminoglycosides) are avoided as they can cause colonic C botulinum to lyse, increasing toxin absorption.

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330
Q

In a patient in whom you suspect septic arthritis, what do you order next?

A

aspirate of the joint - to establish dx and decompress the leg

MRI may be used to evaluate the extent of infection prior to surgical debridement. However, ordering an MRI prior to joint aspiration delays treatment as antibiotics are not administered until synovial fluid is obtained.

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331
Q

Characteristics of Fibroadenoma

A

< 30 years

single, rubbery, mobile, well-circumscribed mass in the upper outer breast quadrant.
Due to hormonal fluctuation, many patients may experience tenderness a few days prior to menstruation. Tenderness as well as size may improve after menses.

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332
Q

Risk factors for breech presentation

A

placenta previa,
multiple gestation, polyhydramnios,
and advanced maternal age (eg, >35).

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333
Q

What is Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy

A

Occurs in immunosuppressed, usually AIDS
Reactivation of polyoma JC virus
Neurological deficits including hemiparesis, gait ataxia, visual ss
altered mental status

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334
Q

Why we do the Glucose challenge test in pregnancy at 24-28w?

A

rise in human placental lactogen, a hormone secreted by the placenta that increases fetal glucose supply by inducing maternal insulin resistance.

Women with a positive 50-g 1-hour glucose challenge test undergo a subsequent confirmatory 100-g 3-hour glucose tolerance test prior to the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus.

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335
Q

pathogenesis of mitral regurgitation

A

infarction or infection

also anything that leads to dilation

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336
Q

Treatment of Pulmonary hypertension

A

I: Idiopathic PAH : endothelin receptor antagonist (Bosentan), PDE5 inh( Sildenafil), prostanoids ( Epoprostenol)
II Due to left heart disease: loop diuretics +ACE/ARB, often b blockers and sometimes aldosterone antagonist
III Due to chronic lung disease: O2 and bronchodilators
IV Due to thromboembolic occlusion: long term anticoag
V: Hematologic processes, metabolic ( glycogen storage), Systemic sarcoidosis

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337
Q

Causes of smoking related mortality

A

lung cancer, COPD, ASCVD

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338
Q

Fetal complications of adolescent pregnancy

A
PRETERM BIRTH
Gastroschisis
Omphalocele
low birth weight
perinatal death

D2 Inadequate nutrition and physiologic immaturity

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339
Q

Gestational thrombocytopenia:
definition
when does it occur
why?

A

70,000-150,000
2-3rd trimester
hemodilution and o accelerated destruction of platelets

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340
Q

What is the treatment of Hep B

A

Treatment is often just supportive, meaning that can be done in the OUTPATIENT CLINIC

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341
Q

Sudden onset headache, 10/10, HTN. Next step?

A

CT head without contrast

If CT negative or equivocal, do an LP

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342
Q

Why warfarin has to be bridged with heparin

A

warfarin therapy transiently causes a hypercoagulable state due to rapid declines in protein C levels.

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343
Q

Management of ADPKD

A

first thing: rigorous blood pressure control with ACEIs. Follow blood pressure & renal function
Aggressive control of cardiovascular risk factors, including hypertension
End-stage renal disease: Dialysis, renal transplant

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344
Q

Acute infective endocarditis- pathogen and presentation

A

S.aureus ( high virulence)

large vegetations in previously normal valves

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345
Q

What are the 3 criteria for liver failure ?

A

Hepatic injury ( elevated transaminases)
encephalopathy
INR > 1.5

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346
Q

DX and Treatment of Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A

Serotonin release assay

HIT2: stop all heparin products
introduce thrombin inhibitors ( argatroban) or fondaparinux

Warfarin is usually started after treatment with a non-heparin anticoagulant and platelet count recovery to > 150,000/µL.

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347
Q

What does T wave indicates?

A

ventricular repolarization

T wave inversion may indicate recent MI

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348
Q

Mom who just discovered has ADPKD, how should be the screening for son?

A

Patients age >18
FIRST COUNSELING
THEN renal US

Genetic testing is not often done, more expensive and often inequivocal.

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349
Q

<p>What is the rationale for treating bacterial vaginosis in pregnancy?</p>

A

<p>Increased risk of preterm birth, PROM, preterm labor, chorioamnionitis and post-partum endometritis

THERE IS NO RISK OF INTRAUTERINE GROWTH RESTRICTION

However treatment has no impact on the incidence of this complications The goal is to relief ss!!
</p>

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350
Q

Enteric feedings in critically ill patients, when should they be started?

A

In critically ill patients, early initiation (eg, within 72 hours of ICU admission) is also associated with lower risk of infection.

Enteral feeding introduces higher pH tube feeds into the acidic environment of the stomach and may be protective from ulcer formation and bleeding.

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351
Q

HIT Type I

A

heparin ( unfractionate heparin, LMWH)

mild,
transient drop in platelet count that typically occurs within 2 days of heparin exposure.
The platelet nadir is 100,000.
Platelet count returns to normal without treatment and continued heparin exposure.
It is NOT clinically significant and is NOT associated with thrombosis

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352
Q

complications of ankylosing spondylitis

A

Low bone density due to inflammation and osteoporosis/osteopenia
can predispose the patient to vertebral fractures
Spine fracture leading to injury of the spinal cord
Restrictive lung disease

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353
Q

<p>tick paralysis-
which region?
which ticks?
</p>

A

<p>Australia and North West of America ( Washington state)

Dermatocentor Andersoni ( Rocky Mountain) and D. Variabilits( American dog tick)

Neurotoxins of the tick saliva are transmitted to the host within 4-7 days of being attached
</p>

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354
Q

What labs do you order in patients with medullary thyroid cancer?

A
Calcitonin
CEA ( carcinoembryonic antigen)
Neck US( eval regional metastasis)
RET mutation gene study
Assess for other tumors: parathryroid
pheochromocytoma ( plasma free metanephrines, catecholamines and abdominal imaging
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355
Q

Which is the most common organism causing Infective endocarditis in IV drug users? which is the most involved valve?

A

S.aureus

Tricuspid:

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356
Q

Management of platelet dysfunction in uremia

A

Desmopressin IV- increases release of von-Willebrand factors from endothelium

Cryoprecipitate is also an option, but has the risk of infections.

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357
Q

Chronic treatment of gout

A

1st LINE: Xanthine oxidase inhibitors ( febuxostat, allopurinol)
2nd line uricosuric agents ( probenecid)

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358
Q

A small subset of patients with Hep A tend to relapse within the first several months after the initial infection . T/F

A

True

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359
Q

Presentation of infectious mononucleosis

A

fever, extreme fatigue,
exudative pharyngitis or tonsillitis,
lymphadenopathy (including posterior cervical nodes)
hepatosplenomegaly.
Myalgias
anorexia (and resulting weight loss),
nausea, or vomiting, possibly due to hepatocellular inflammation.

Mild palatal petechiae can be present.

Atypical lymphocytosis on smear.
Positive monospot test

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360
Q

Management of HTN

A

Weight loss
Reduce salt intake (2-4 g sodium/day)

> =60 and BP<150/90:
Non-black: thiazide, ACEI/ARB, CCB, alone or in combination

Prehypertension only treat if CKD with or without DM – ACEI or ARB

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361
Q

Is there any interaction of antidepressant medication in heart disease?

A

antidepressants are safe and effective in treating major depression in patients with CVD

bidirectional link between major depression and coronary artery disease, with depression being an independent risk factor for increased morbidity and mortality in cardiovascular disease

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362
Q

Complications of cryptorchidism

A

Infertility
Testicular torsion
Inguinal hernia
Testicular Ca

Surgery before 1 year old optimized potential of fertility and testicular growth
Surgical procedure decreases risk of testicular torsion

Testicular Ca is decreased but not eliminated after an orchiopexy

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363
Q

What does aspirin toxicity causes in ear

A

tinnitus, and vestibular ss BUT NO HEARING LOSS

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364
Q

“abnormal” QTc

A

males is a QTc above 450 ms;

females, above 470 ms.

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365
Q

Treatment of erectile dysfunction

A

Address atherosclerotic RF
1st line: PDE inhibitors (Viagra)- increase cGMP levels –> increase Nitric oxide release–> penile smooth muscle relaxation. taken 30-60min before.

Intracavernosal injections of vasoactive agens
Vacuum constriction devices
testosterone in hypogonadism
psychological therapy-reduce anxiety

Implants if nothing works

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366
Q

<p>Cardiac complication of Marfan Sx</p>

A

<p>AORTIC ROOT DISEASE: AORTIC REGURGITATION, ANEURYSMAL DILATION OR AORTIC DISSECTION

SO ORDER ECHOCARDIOGRAM
</p>

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367
Q

Define scoliosis

kyphosis and lordosis

A

scoliosis: lateral S shape of the thoracic and lumbar spine
kyphosis: exaggeration of posterior thoracic curvature
lordosis: exaggeration of anterior lumbar curvature.

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368
Q

Most deaths in HTN are due to

A

MI, CHF

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369
Q

Pt with HIV just been told of his diagnosis and is very upset about the thought of disclosing his HIV-positive status to his fiancée. What to do next?

A

Physicians need to support and encourage the patient to tell the third parties.

Physicians are not universally required to disclose the HIV status of patients to involved third parties, but physicians are obliged to report the case to the Department of Public Health

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370
Q

Commonnly involved sites in colonic ischemia

A

splenic flexure and rectosigmoid area

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371
Q

Speed of conduction heart cells

A

Purkinje>atria> ventricles>AV node . “PATVAV””

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372
Q

<p>What is the major parameter to guide heart transplantation?</p>

A

<p> peak volume of oxygen consumption VO2

usually < 14 indicates limited survival and thus favors transplantation</p>

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373
Q

Treatment of Giant Cell arteritis

A

PMR only: low dose oral glucocort( prednisone 10-20mg daily)
GCA: intermediate to high dose ( prednisone 20-40 mg/daily)
GCA with vision loss: Pulse high dose IV glucocorticoid( methylpred 1000mg/day for 3 days followed by intermediate to high dose oral glucocorticoid).

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374
Q

<p>Adult presents with a mid-systolic murmur in the left upper sternum - echo show dilation of right atrium and ventricle. Dx?</p>

A

<p>- ASD secundum type - means that is open with left to right shunt
-Pulmonary stenosis</p>

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375
Q

Treatment for CO poisoning

A

high-flow oxygen through a nonrebreathing mask is generally curative,

but patients with severe toxicity may require hyperbaric oxygen.

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376
Q

Afib that needs antiarrhythmic in the context of CAD without HF

A

Sotalol

Dronedarone

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377
Q

Px and tto of tinea corporis

A

athletes who have skin to skin contact, humid environment

scaly erythematous pruritic path with centifungal spread and clearing. raised annular borders

Firstline/localized : topical clotrimazole, terbinafine

Second/extensive oral griseofulvin, terbinafine

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378
Q

Treatment of lithium-induced hypothyroidism in bipolar pt

A

continue lithium and add levothyroxine

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379
Q

Infective endocarditis culture - , think of?

A
Coxiella
Bartonella
HACEK
   Hemophilus
   Aggregatibacter
   cardiobacterium
   eikenella
   kingella
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380
Q

Which is the most common valve to be involved in Infective endocarditis?

A

Mitral valve disease, usually mitral valve prolapse with coexisting mitral regurgitation, is the most common valvular abnormality detected in patients with infective endocarditis.

  • The aortic valve is the second most common cardiac valve involved in IE
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381
Q

Patient who agrees with procedure but doesnt want to sign documentation due to cultural causes

A

Document discussion of consent in the records- even if just verbal.

-asking husband to sign is not an option as the discussion is for her health and she is autonomous.

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382
Q

Dx of postpartum depression

A

same diagnostic criteria used to diagnose a major depressive episode (>2 weeks of at least 5 of 9 symptoms that include depressed mood plus SIGECAPS:

Sleep disturbance
loss of Interest, Guilt, low Energy, impaired Concentration, change in Appetite, Psychomotor retardation or agitation, and Suicidal thoughts).

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383
Q

Management of ischemic colitis

A

Bowel rest, IV fluids
Empiric Abcs
Colonic resection if necrosis

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384
Q

Complications of bronchiolitis

A

Apnea( especially infants < 2 m)
Respiratory failure
recurrent wheezing throughout childhood

Older, full-term, healthy infants and young toddlers typically recover with no complications.

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385
Q

Pacemaker rates

A

SA>AV> bundle of his/purkinje/ventricles

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386
Q

Delayed hemolytic reaction

A

Mild fever & hemolytic anemia
Within 2-10 days after transfusion
Positive direct Coombs test, positive new antibody screen

Caused by anamnestic antibody response

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387
Q

sarcoidosis + liver enlargement, high ALP and GGT

A

liver sarcoidosis - occurs in 50-65% of pts

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388
Q

<p>Primary hypotension reaction after transfusion </p>

A

<p>In patients who have ACE inhibitors

within minutes

Due to bradykinin in blood products . ( normally degraded by ACE)</p>

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389
Q

Serology for recovery Hep B

A

AntiHbs
Anti Hbe
Anti Hbc IgG

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390
Q

Management of ALS? MOA?

A

Riluzole

glutamate inhibitor

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391
Q

Treatment of alopecia areata

A

Topical or intralesional corticosteroids : promotes hair growth. After a steroid injection, new hair growth is usually seen in the next four to six weeks.

Education:(1) the disease is usually benign, (2) they can have multiple relapses in spite of treatment, and (3) most patients have normal hair growth within the next one to two years even without treatment.

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392
Q

Serology for acute hep B

A

Hb surface antigen +
Hbe antigen +
Anti bodyHb core IgM

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393
Q

Dx Myeloma multiple

A

Dx: Bone marrow biopsy shows >=10% plasma cells

Then a skeletal survey should be done to assess the extent of bone involvement and risk fractures

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394
Q

waves and meaning in jugular venous pulse

A

a: atrial contraction against closed tricuspid
c: RV contraction, bulging a little into RA
x: atrial relaxation
v: atrial “villing”–filling
y: atrial emptYing

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395
Q

<p>When do you see Necrolytic migratory erythema, and describe how it starts and develops? also location</p>

A

<p>Glucagonoma

Starts as a erythematous papule or plaque involving face, perineum or extremities
Then over 7-14 days lesions enlarge and central clearing occur.
The center is bronzed colored induratied and the borders with blisters, scaly, and crusting.

Areas are painful and pruritic

Can also occur in mucous membranes- cheilitis, stomatitis, blepharitis. </p>

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396
Q

Main interventions when suspecting sepsis

A

Aggressive IV fluids- 30 mL/KG of crystalloids given over the first 3 hours of treatment in 500 mL bolus

Broad spectrum Abcs within 1 hour of arrival
ie. vanco +cefepime

ideally blood cultures should be done before abcs.

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397
Q

Cyanide toxicity risk factors:

A
Industrial exposure( mines)
Combustion of wool and silk
Nitroprussiate ( chronic renal failure, or prolonged or high dose infusions)
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398
Q

Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

A

Prior intracranial hemorrhage (ICH)
Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
Ischemic stroke within 3 months
Suspected aortic dissection
Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

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399
Q

Non bacterial endocarditis ( marantic, thrombotic)

A

LIBMAN- lupus ( both sides of the mitral valve)
hypercoagulable state
2ary to malignancy

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400
Q

Difference between Familial short stature and constitutional delay of growth and puberty

A

Familial short stature:—-(CD)

parents height is short
Birth lenght: low-normal to normal — CD:normal
Growth (0-2 years): normal—— delayed
Growth ( 2 years to puberty): normal —–delayed
Bone age: normal —–delayed
timing to puberty: normal—–delayed
pubertal growth: rate low-normal— delayed
Adult height: short—-normal

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401
Q

Anal abscess treatment

A

incision and drainage.

Abcs for patients with DM, immunosuppression, extensive cellulitis, or valvular heart disease.

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402
Q

<p>Lifestyle changes for monosymptomatic primary enuresis</p>

A

<p>minimize fluid intake before bedtime
restrict sugary/caffeine before sleep
Institute a reward system( ie. gold star chart)</p>

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403
Q

Malaria presentation

A

fever, fatigue, myalgias, and hepatosplenomegaly weeks after exposure to infection.
anemia and thrombocytopenia
classically causes cyclical fevers
ring forms on the blood smear.

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404
Q

Definition of pulmonary hypertension

A

pulmonary arterial pressure >=25 (Normal <20)

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405
Q

<p>How different is the hyperthyroidism in elderly from young people?</p>

A

<p>" apathetic hyperthyroidism" -- lethargy, apathy, weight loss, myopathy.
Thyrotoxicosis may already cause Afib, HF. but because the patient may be on medications signs as tachycardica may not be present.

Afib different from normal may present needing escalating doses
</p>

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406
Q

Which nerve innervates the fibullaris tertius?

A

deep fibular nerve

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407
Q

Treatment of peri-infarct pericarditis

A

Usually self-limited.
If patient with symptoms give HIGH DOSE ASPIRIN ( 650 mg TID)
-these dont interfere with myocardial healing

If persistent: Colchicine, oxycodone

Avoid NSAIDS and glucocorticoids because these interfere with myocardial healing and increase risk of free wall rupture or ventricular rupture.

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408
Q

Types of esophageal Ca and study

A

Upper 2/3rds is squamous cellular- often associated to alcohol, tobacco

Lower third- Adenocarcinoma- associated to Barret esophagus or GERD. , obesity

Endoscopy with biopsy

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409
Q

PX and Treatment of tinea capitis

A

scaly patch on scalp
hair loss with residual black dot
predominant in African Americans

Manage:
KOH exam to document spores
TTO: Oral griseofulvin

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410
Q

Tinea barbae

A

Although this contagious disease can be spread via shared razors, examination reveals a scattered folliculitis with erythematous papules and pustules,

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411
Q

Px and tto of infant botulism

A

Presents with constipation, drooling, CN - oculobulbar ss more often ( ptosis bilateral), descending flaccid paralysis
Treatment Botulism immunoglobulin.

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412
Q

If patient with ADHD If patient persist with ss despite maximal dose or have any adverse event?

A

is better to change to another stimulant. No taper or washout period is needed. The patient can initiate ASAP

– ADJUVANT behavioral therapy is not helpful

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413
Q

Management of DVT or PE in patients with cancer

A

low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is considered more efficacious than factor Xa inhibitors.

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414
Q

Management of meralgia paresthetica

A

reassurance ( is not a serious condition)

 weight loss (in obese patients)
 avoidance of tight-fitting garments to reduce the pressure on the nerve entrapment area.
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415
Q

<p>Treatment of tick paralysis </p>

A

<p>removal of tick and supportive care </p>

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416
Q

<p>Infant son of a diabetic mom, presenting with respiratory distress, tachycardia,hypoxia and heart murmur. Cause?</p>

A

<p>Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy</p>

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417
Q

prominent x and y in JVP

A

constrictive pericarditis

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418
Q

Options for treatment menopause

A

Hormone replacement therapy
SSRIs ( escitalopram)
SNRIs ( venlafaxine)

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419
Q

<p>murmurs in large ASD and why?</p>

A

<p>mid-systolic ejection murmur in R upper sternum- flow passing through the pulmonic valve

mid-diastolic rumble- flow passing through tricuspid valve</p>

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420
Q

Presentation of Achalasia

A

Chronic ppx, usually > 5 years, weight loss

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421
Q

cause of alopecia areata

A

Unknown

Possibly autoimmune: T-cell infiltration around the hair follicles and the association of other autoimmune conditions

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422
Q

Which hep virus are naked and why is it important

A

A & E, means they dont have envelope

Not destroyed in the gut

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423
Q

ECG in Wolff Parkinson white

A

delta wave
shorter PR
widened QRS

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424
Q

Woman in childbearing age should be advised of the risks of kidney donation

A
  • Immediate risks include DVT, and hospital-acquired infections
  • Long term risks :fetal loss, pre-eclampsia, gestational diabetes, gestionational HTN.

Survival and End stage renal disease rates are similar to those non-donors.

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425
Q

Acute hemolytic reaction

A

Fever, flank pain, hemoglobinuria & DIC

Within 1 hour of transfusion
Positive direct coombs test , pink plasma

Caused by ABO incompatibility

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426
Q

harsh holosystolic murmur in the 4th left intercostal space and a palpable thrill

A

VSD

Can be heard in adult patients.

Small restrictive VSDs are associated with a louder murmur, but large nonrestrictive VSDs have a softer and early systolic murmur.

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427
Q

Treatment of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A
Systemic glucocorticoids (prednisone)
PLUS antifungal ( Itraconazole/Voriconazole)
   *fluconazole has limited activity against Aspergillus --not used

In some cases Omalizumab ( monoclonal Ab against IgE- may be helpful)

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428
Q

Diagnosis of infantile botulism

A

Clinical

Confirmation of Stool C. botulism

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429
Q

<p>Guillain Barre </p>

A

<p> ascending paralysis and absent reflexes
develops over DAYS OR WEEKS
Follows a GI or UR infection</p>

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430
Q

<p>cardiac defect in Noonan Syndrome</p>

A

<p>Pulmonary valve stenosis</p>

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431
Q

Px of ADPKD

A

Most patients are asymptomatic
Hematuria
Flank pain (nephrolithiasis, infection, cyst rupture, hemorrhage)
Clinical signs

Hypertension
Palpable abdominal masses (usually bilateral)
Proteinuria
Chronic kidney disease

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432
Q

prominent a in JVP

A

RV hypertrophy

tricuspid stenosis

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433
Q

Delirium tremens presentation

A

Extreme manisfestation of alcohol withdrawal

  • develops within 1 week of last alcohol~2-4 days
  • tactile hallucinations, visual hallucinations, confusion, sweating , increased tachycardia, elevated BP
  • tto bzd
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434
Q

The effect of leg raise, squatting, handgrip, phenylephrine on heart murmurs?

A

LSH–> increase venous return

In inspiration all right sided are increased
In expiration all left sided except the HCM and MVP

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435
Q

<p>What are absolute indications for heart transplant? ( big 4)</p>

A

<p>1. Cardiogenic shock requiring CONTINUOUS inotropic support or use of devices/pumps to maintain perfusion adequate

2. IV Heart failure with ss intractable to medical and surgical ( including devices) therapy
3. Intractable or severe angina ss in pts with coronary artery disease not ameanable to percutaneous tto or surgery
4. Intractable life-threatening arrhythmias</p>

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436
Q

Classification and treatment of lead poisoning

A

Treatment:
MILD ( 5-44):No treatment, but followup with venous sampling in one month
MODERATE ( 45-69): DMSA, SUCCIMER
SEVERE>=70: Dimercaprol PLUS EDTA

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437
Q

Staging osteonecrosis

A

Steinberg Classification
Stage
Radiographs
MRI
Images
0 normal normal MRI and bone scan
I normal abnormal MRI and/or bone scan
II cystic or sclerosis changes abnormal MRI and/or bone scan
III crescent sign (subchondral collapse) abnormal MRI and/or bone scan
IV flattening of femoral head abnormal MRI and/or bone scan
V narrowing of joint abnormal MRI and/or bone scan
VI advanced degenerative changes abnormal MRI and/or bone scan

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438
Q

Hypogonadism definition and types

A

impairment of any or all functions of the gonads including production of testostore and sperm in men, prog and estradiol

Primary: high LH& FSH
Secondary hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

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439
Q

Complications of strep A pharyngitis

A

Peritonsillar abscess
Cervical lymphadenitis
Rheumatic Fever
Poststrep glomerulonephritis

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440
Q

treatment of Meniere disease

A

There is no definitive treatment

Acute episode:

Vestibular suppressants include:
benzodiazepines, which have the advantage of anxiolytic properties for short-term use
antihistamines (meclizine and dimenhydrinate)
anticholinergics (scopolamine).

Promethazine and prochlorperazine if vomiting/nausea associated

Long-term:
Diuretics ( HCTZ, triamterene)
Betahistine ( vasodilator reported to improve microvascular circulation).

Interventional:
intratympanic gentamicin injection,
surgical labyrinthectomy,
and vestibular nerve section.

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441
Q

Management of a patient with previous DVT who was placed on warfarin and now presents for extension of DVT, the INR is subtherapeutic.

A

Start heparin IV until therapeutic INR is reached with warfarin.

This case cant be considered anticoagulation failure and therefore the IVC filter is not first option

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442
Q

Complications of Infectious mononucleosis

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia ( cross-reactivity of EBV induced antibodies against RBCs and platelets) -2-3 weeks after disease onset

Splenic rupture ( not infarction) as a result of trauma ( highest risk within 3 weeks

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443
Q

<p>treatment of transverse myelitis</p>

A

<p>high dose corticosteroids</p>

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444
Q

<p>Prognosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in neonate from Diabetic mom?</p>

A

<p>Spontaneous resolution independent of the clinical severity. as insulin levels normalize. </p>

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445
Q

Child victim of abusive head trauma stable and normal neurological exam , what do you order next?

A

a skeletal survey may be performed first.

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446
Q

<p>Treatment of dermatitis herpetiformis ?</p>

A

<p>if associated to celiac, gluten free diet. </p>

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447
Q

Labs in alcoholics

A
Anemia
Macrocytic( MC)- due to folate def
Microcytic -due to GI bleeding
LFTS-increased GGT, AST-ALT ratio>2:1
HyperTRG
HyperUricemia, hypocalcemia
Thiamine def
Decreased testosterone level
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448
Q

Explain the funnel plot for meta-analysis, what is the bias that is assessed?

A

Publication bias

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449
Q

How do you manage the dosing of stimulants for aDHD

A

Stimulant doses are typically titrated up on a weekly basis until there is no room for improvement, maximum dose limits are reached, or the patient experiences intolerable side effects.

Response to a stimulant can usually be determined within weeks

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450
Q

History of working in a textile industry

A

Asbestos

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451
Q

If endocarditis due to IV drug use, which organisms do you think of?

A

S.aureus, pseudomona, candida

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452
Q

Treatment of idiopathic pericarditis

A

Naproxen + Colchicine

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453
Q

First line therapy for DVT

Second line?

A

Rivaroxaban: oral, onset of action 2-4 hours, no need of bridge or monitoring. Should be given for >3 months (3-6 m) in patients with DVT or PE who do not have cancer.

Warfarin : 5-7 days for onset. Need to bridge with UFH or LMWH for 5 days. monitoring with INR ( goal is 2-3) and PT

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454
Q

Classification for pulmonary hypertension

A
I: Idiopathic PAH
II Due to left heart disease
III Due to chronic lung disease
IV Due to thromboembolic occlusion
V: Hematologic processes, metabolic ( glycogen storage), Systemic sarcoidosis
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455
Q

Hypertensive encephalopathy

A

Rapid and severe rise in BP –> increased cerebral perfusion pressure, –> cerebral edema and hypertensive encephalopathy.

insidious onset of headaches, nausea, and vomiting; this can progress to restlessness, confusion, agitation, seizures, and coma.

BP HAS TO BE HIGH AT THIS TIME.

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456
Q

Both PPIs and H2 antagonists may be associated with increased risk of

A

Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) and pneumonia.

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457
Q

Centor Criteria for Strep A pharyngitis

A

Fever
Tender anterior cervical LAD
Tonsillar exudates
Absenc of cough

0-1: no testing/treatment
2-3: Rapid strept test
4: empiric oral penicillin or amoxicillin

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458
Q

Use of raloxifene and SE

A

For breast Ca
Decreases osteoporosis in menopause

EA: hot flashes, increased

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459
Q

Lead-time bias

A

several disease interventions are compared and one of the interventions diagnoses the disease earlier than the others without an effect on the outcome (eg, survival).
This would make it appear that the intervention prolonged survival whereas in actuality it only diagnosed the disease sooner.

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460
Q

In which patients with HTN B blockers are not a good option

A

Obstructive lung disease, hear block, depression

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461
Q

Potential complications of pt with OSA during/after surgery

A

increased respiratory complications
respiratory acidosis
hypercapnia, hypoxemia
hypoventilation ( Xray with atelectasis)

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462
Q

Complication of anal abscess?

A

anal fistula- require surgical intervention

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463
Q

Is there any risk of silicone breast implants on fetus?

A

NO!

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464
Q

In which patients with ADPKD do you screen for berry aneurysms with MRI

A

family history of intracranial bleed

previous intracranial bleed

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465
Q

pathogens of septic arthritis in kids < 3 months

A

S.aureus
Group B strep ( S. agalactiae)
Gram negative bacilli

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466
Q

Prognosis of testicular torsion

A

Detorsion within 6 hours- viability

After 24 hrs rarely salvageable

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467
Q

Rectal prolapse management

A

Medical - can be reduce with digital pressure

  • no full thickness prolapse ( just mucosal prolapse)
  • adequate fiber and fluid intake
  • pelvic floor m. exercises
  • Possible biofeedback for fecal incontinence

Surgical
full thicjness prolapse or sensation of prolapse
fecal incontinence and or constipation

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468
Q

ALS has preservation of ..

A

Ocular motility, sensory, bowel, bladder, and cognitive functions are preserved,

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469
Q

<p>Complications of diabetic mom per trimester</p>

A
<p>1st trimester: 
congenital heart disease
neural tube defects
small left colon syndrome
abortion

2-3 trimester ( hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinism)
1. Increased metabolic demand–> fetal hypoxia–> polycythemia
2. Organomegaly
3. neonatal hypoglycemia
4 macrosomy-> shoulder dystocia -> clavicle fracture, vascular plexopathy, perinatal asphyxia
5. increased glycogen–> accumulates with fat in interventricular septum –> hypertrophic cardiomyopathy that can lead to heart failure. </p>

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470
Q

There is an increased prevalence of varicocele in patients with ankylosing spondylitis

A

True

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471
Q

Factors that increase contractility and therefore, SV in the heart

A
  • catecholamines
  • increased intracellular Ca
  • Decrease extracellular Na
  • Digitalis – block Na/K ATPase –> increase intracellular Na–> alter Na/Ca channel so no Ca is taken out of the cell)
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472
Q

rhomboid shape and positive birefringence under polarized light.

A

pseudogout

hemochromatosis

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473
Q

What is the approx normal value of CARDIAC OUTPUT/

A

5lts/min

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474
Q

epigastric pain that improves with meals

A

duodenal ulcer

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475
Q

Pt with HIV just been told of his diagnosis and is very upset about the thought of disclosing his HIV-positive status to his fiancée. What to do next?

A

Physicians need to support and encourage the patient to tell the third parties.

Physicians are obliged to report the case to the Department of Public Health

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476
Q

Prevention of post-strept glomerulonephritis

A

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis typically occurs 1-3 weeks after either a cutaneous or pharyngeal streptococcal infection.

Antibiotics are effective for primary prevention of rheumatic fever, but unclear for glomerulonephritis

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477
Q

Periodic breathing

A

PHYSIOLOGIC pattern in which apnea occurs for 5-10 seconds followed by rapid shallow breaths.
Without stimulation or intervention , a regular rhythm of breathing resumes after several cycles

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478
Q

What do you order in a patient with delayed puberty, in whom you are suspecting hypogonadism?

A

FSH, LH, testosteron, Prolactin, TSH

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479
Q

Positive heterophile antibody ( Monospot test)

A
Infectious mononucleosis
(25% false-negative during the first week of illness)
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480
Q

<p>Blood transfusion reaction- Anaphylaxis</p>

A

<p>Is one of the transfusion reactions that cause hypotension

IgA deficient persons

Hypotension, dyspnea, bronchospasm, respiratory arrest shock

Epinephrine

future WASHED transfusion</p>

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481
Q

Why not order a videofluoroscopy in a patient in whom a structural lesions in the upper esophagus is suspected?

A

If a patient has a suspected structural lesion in the upper esophagus is better to ask for a nasopharyngeal laryngoscopy which is less invasive than the esophagoduodenoscopy.

Videofluoroscopy with barium swallow is more useful in NM studies, than structural lesions.

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482
Q

Ankle brachial index >= 1.3 what does it mean

A

calcified or uncompressible vessels

additional studies required.

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483
Q

Neonate with ruddy skin and heel stick shows hcto 70. Dx? Next step in management?

A

Neonatal polycythemia

Repeat the measurement but in peropheral venous blood which is more reliable, less susceptible to changes in T and blood flow

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484
Q

Normal ejection fraction

A

> =55

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485
Q

What are the fetal post-natal derivatives of :

Allantois
Ductus arteriosus
Ductus venosus
Foramen ovale
Notocord
A
MediaN umbilical lig
Ligamentum arteriosum
Lig venosum
fossa ovalis
Nucleus pulposus
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486
Q

Treatment for MS-related depression

A

SSRIs, SNRIs

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487
Q

Stress urinary incontinence dx, tto

A

Stress( cough, valsalva):
Q TIP test angle >=30 from the horizontal indicates hypermobility

positive bladder stress test (ie, leakage of urine with cough on examination).

  • lifestyle mod
  • pelvic floor exercises ( Kegel)
  • Pelvic floor surgery - sling
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488
Q

MRI findings in MS

A

hyperintense lesions in the brain and/or spinal cord on T2-weighted images.
Ovoid-shaped periventricular white matter lesions can be seen in 23%-75% of patients.

MRI is superior to CT in evaluating posterior fossa/cerebellar abnormalities and is more sensitive/specific in detecting MS lesions

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489
Q

Preferred tto for strep pharyngitis

A

Penicillin 10 days

Decreased symptom severity and duration
Prevention of spread to close contacts
Prevention of suppurative complications (eg, peritonsillar abscess, cervical lymphadenitis)
Prevention of acute rheumatic fever

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490
Q

All about blastomycosis

A

Systemic fungi
Eastern US and Central America
Pneumonia, verrucous lesions , bone
Broad base budding

If local: itraconazole/fluconazole
If systemic: amphotericin b

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491
Q

Diagnosis of ischemic colitis

A

CT scan: Colonic wall thickening, fat stranding

Endoscopy: Edematous & friable mucosa

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492
Q

Why TMP/SMX is CI in pregnancy

A

first trimester: neural tube defects due to the folate antagonist properties of trimethoprim.
third trimester: neonatal kernicterus.

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493
Q

What is the risk of liver failure in Hep B?

What is the risk of chronic hep B?

A

1%

< 5% - the risk of progression from acute to chronic decreases with age. Perinatal 90%, 1-5 years 10-20%, and adults < 5%

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494
Q

<p>What is the NNT and how is calculated</p>

A

<p>the number of patients that need to be treated in order to prevent or cure one disease or medical condition. Is also a measure of efficacy of a given therapy.

NNT= 1/Absolute attributable risk

ARR= difference of risk</p>

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495
Q

<p>To whom do you give washed RBCs</p>

A

<p>1. IgA deficiency

2. complement dependent autoimmune hemolytic anemia
3. continued allergic reactions </p>

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496
Q

considerations for pregnancy in MS patients

A

modest increase in cesarean section and assisted delivery (eg, vacuum, forceps) rates compared to those without MS.

Treatment:
OK to give corticosteroids in MS exacerbations during pregnancy
OK to give disease modifyin drugs in long term EXCEPT eriflunomide and mitoxantrone ( are teratogenic)

pregnant women with MS usually have lower disease activity during pregnancy and higher disease activity in the postpartum period.

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497
Q

<p>RF for bacterial vaginosis</p>

A

<p> decreased concentration of hydrogen peroxide lactobacillus leading to increased vaginal pH

- hormonal changes( i.e pregnancy)
- menses
- sexual activity
- abc use
- douching</p>

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498
Q

If If first solids evolving to liquids,what do you suspect and what do you order?

A

Mechanical obstruction

If RF for Ca: Barium swallow followed by possible Endoscopy

If no EF: Upper endoscopy

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499
Q

Causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

A
ABCCCD 
Alcohol
Wet Beri Beri
Coxsackie
Cocaine
Chagas
Doxorubicin

ISCHEMIC CARDIOMYOPATHY ( CAD)
hemochromatosis
pregnancy in third trimester
sarcoidosis

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500
Q

Newborn who develops respiratory distress shortly after birth and on Rx has cardiomegaly and bright fissure line in the lungs

A

Transient tachypnea of the newborn

Often presents at birth or within 2 hours post-delivery, and usually resolves within 24 hours. Severe cases may last up to 72 hours.

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501
Q

limited range of motion of his lumbosacral spine and markedly reduced chest expansion, next step?

A

Sacroiliac Xray, NOT HLA B27 TESTING

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502
Q

Treatment and prophylaxis of SBP

A

Treatment third generation cephalosporins ( cefotaxime)

Clinically should improve within 24-78 hrs, and so repeat by the 3rd day the paracentesis

Prophylaxis with fluoroquinolone

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503
Q

Mechanism of infertility in endometriosis

A

adhesions and inflammation

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504
Q

SV calculation

A

EDV-ESV

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505
Q

In which patients with acute Hep b would you consider giving medication, and which meds?

A

In the following patients we would consider treatment- pts with severe or protracted course:

  • Patients who develop coagulopathy- INR> 1.5
  • Persistent ss or marked jaundice ( bilirrubin > 10) for more than 4 weeks of initial ss
  • immunosuppression
  • concommitant hep C

Ttto:

  • Is often either TENOFOVIR OR ENTECAVIR as monotherapy- although there are options these are the preferred.
  • And treatment can be stopped once HBsAg is cleared - 2 tests with 4 weeks difference
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506
Q

Definite treatment for WPW?

A

Catheter ablation

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507
Q

Plantar sensation

A

Three main nerves: tibial ( heel, S1,S2), 4TH 5TH fingers toe with their corresponding planter region is the lateral plantar ( S1,S2), medial plantar (L4,L5)

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508
Q

Erysipelas px

A

superficial skin infection but presents with well-demarcated, bright red erythema, classically on the cheeks.

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509
Q

Example of splanchnic vasoconstrictors

A

midodrine, octeotride, NE

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510
Q

Treatment for MS-related fatigue

A

Amantadine
Sleep hygiene
Stimulants( methylphenidate, modafinil)

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511
Q

most common valvular abnormalities associated with ankylosing spondylitis

A

aortic regurgitation and mitral valve prolapse.

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512
Q

<p>Primary nocturnal enuresis definition</p>

A

<p> nocturnal urinary incontinence in ≥ 5 years

| Has never achieved drytime period</p>

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513
Q

Extramuscular and extradermatologic findings in dermatomyositis

A

Interstitial lung disease
Dysphagia
Myocarditis
Maligancy

514
Q

<p>When does HIV Thrombocytopenia occurs? How does it manifests?</p>

A

<p> May appear at any point of the disease ( even with normal CD4 count)

Presents with thrombocytopenia ( < 5% present with < 50,000) . and can have splenomegaly

USUALLY doesnt present with bleeding

tto: Antiretroviral therapy

If patient is bleeding possible treatments include steroids, immune therapy or splenectomy but all have a risk</p>

515
Q

chronic kidney patients, and those with immunosuppressants are at high risk of gout

A

True

decreased urea excretion

516
Q

what is the MC arrhythmia in WPW?

A

Paroxysmal supraventricular arrythmia

517
Q

Treatment for MS-related urge urinary incontinence

A

Timing voiding
Fluid restriction < 2 L/day
Anticholinergic ( oxybutinin, tolteridone)

518
Q

Which are the three important shunts in fetal circulation and why?

A
  1. Ductus venosus: shunt oxygenated blood from umbilical vein to IVC without passing through liver ( portal circulation)
  2. Foramen ovale: sends oxygenated blood coming from the IVC into aorta to supply head and body
  3. Ductus arteriosus: deoxygenated blood from SVC passes through the RA–>RV–> main pulmonary artery–> descending aorta. Shunt is due to high fetal pulmonary artery resistance ( due to low fetal O2)
519
Q

Management of ADHD in children based on age

A

In pre-school age (3-5) the preferred initial treatment is behavioral therapy
In >= 6 years the preferred treatment is medication

520
Q

Late-onset bipolar disorder

A

> 50years old

521
Q

Should close contacts to patient with HBV receive treatment?

A

Yes,
hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine should be administered to all household and sexual contacts who are not known to be immune.

522
Q

Complications MM

A

C- HyperCalcemia can be asymptomatic or symptomatic( anorexia, nausea, polyuria, constipation, weakness)
TTO: hydration, dexamethasone ( mild), biphosphonates( severe)

R- light chain cast nephropaty or deposition disease
May require plasmapheresis or dyalsis

Anemia- due to kidney damage
Bone lesions/fractures- biphosphonates for prevention

Hyperviscosity syndrome- nasal or oral bleeding, blurry vision, near ss ( confusion, headache) , heart failure
Plasmapheresis for symptomatic patients

Thrombosis - risk of arterial ( MI, STROKE) and venous thrombosis

523
Q

In which situations do you think of renovascular disease?

A

Resistant HTN ( uncontrolled despite treatment of 3 medications, including one diuretic at maximum dose)
Malignant HTN
Onset of severe HTN (> 180/120) after the age > 55
Severe HTN with diffuse atherosclerosis
Recurrent flash pulmonary edema

PE: Asymmetric renal size > 1.5 cm
Abdominal bruit

Unexplained rise in serum creatinine ( > 30%) after starting ACEi or ARBs

Imaging: unexplained atrophic kidney

524
Q

Dx and treatment of aortic stenosis

A

ECG (LVH)
TTE ( if unclear –> left heart catheterization)

Tto:
Diuretics
Valve replacement - ballon is not routinely done due to calcification

525
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice to study osteomyelitis?

A

MRI sensitivity 90%

Osteomyelitis-related bone changes are present on MRI <5 days after infection onset; therefore, patients with symptoms for >1 week and a negative MRI are considered “ruled out” for osteomyelitis.

CT scans are useful in the diagnosis of osteomyelitis in patients who have contraindications (eg, pacemaker) to MRI.

526
Q

Patient with left hip pain and on glucocorticoids, what do you suspect? what do you order?

A

osteonecrosis of femoral head

order MRI

527
Q

ST depression

A

unstable angina/ACS

528
Q

Dx of Strep pharyngitis

A

throat culture (preferred) or rapid antigen testing prior to initiation of antibiotics.

529
Q

Diseases associated with pseudogout

A

chronic hypercalcemia, hypothyroidism, hemochromatosis

530
Q

Patient with recent delivery that presents with shortness . of breath, pulmonary rales, orthopnea, peripheral edema. Differential dx

A

Pulmonary edema due to Pre-eclampsia, so look for other signs ( HTN, Clonus)

Peripartum cardiomyopathy ( S3, JVP)

531
Q

Mechanism of action of neurotoxin, in infant botulism

A

inhibit presynaptic release of ACH

532
Q

Who receives palivizumab in bronchiolitis

A

Preterm birth <29 weeks gestation
Chronic lung disease of prematurity
Hemodynamically significant congenital heart disease

533
Q

sentinel event

A

unexpected event causing or putting at risk of death or serious injury.

534
Q

<p>What do you want to rule out with urianalysis in enuresis?</p>

A

<p>DI, DM</p>

535
Q

Patient with MM who develop nasal or oral bleeding, blurry vision, near ss ( confusion, headache) , heart failure.
What is happening?
Treatment?

A

Hyperviscosity syndrome

Plasmapheresis

536
Q

Characteristics of aortic stenosis

A

A soft, single second heart sound (S2)
A delayed and diminished carotid pulse (“parvus et tardus”)
Loud and late-peaking systolic murmur

537
Q

Treatment of polymyositis/dermatomyositis

A

Systemic glucocorticoids followed immunosuppressant therapy: methotrexate, azathioprine

538
Q

Patient with amaurosis fugax, next step

A

carotid doppler

539
Q

SA and AV nodes are supplied by which artery

A

Right coronary artery

Infarcts may cause nodal dysfunction - arrythmias, bradycardia.

540
Q

Hypothyroidism and CAD

A

Patients with coronary artery disease are at risk of myocardial ischemia when levothyroxine is first started and the medication should be started very slowly in these patients.

541
Q

<p>Blood transfusion reaction- Allergic reaction </p>

A

<p>Type I hypersensitivity. Allergy to protein plasma components.

Urticaria, hives, wheezing, fever

Tx: anti-histamines</p>

542
Q

Anaphylactic blood transfusion reaction

A

Rapid onset of shock, angioedema, urticaria, respiratory distress

Within few seconds to minutes
Caused by recipient anti IgA antibodies

543
Q

Definition and mechanism of osteoporosis

A

Decreased bone mass/quality leading to bone fragility and fracture risk . < 2.5 SD

Mechanism: failure to attain optimal peak bone mass before age 30, or rate of bone resorption excees rate of bone formation after peak bone mass has been attained.

544
Q

Management of neuritis optica in MSS

A

IV corticosteroids as oral corticosteroids are associated with an increased risk of recurrent optic neuritis

Plasmapheresis should be considered in glucocorticoid-refractory patients

545
Q

Transient hepatitis occurs in infectious mononucleosis T/F

A

tRUE,

and hepatosplenomegaly

546
Q

Patients with late life depression (> 65) are at higher risk of developing ….

A

Vascular OR. Alzheimer Dementia

This is in contrast to those persons who had major depressive disorder in their earlier yeats.

Depression is often comorbid with anxiety; however, late-onset depression is not a known risk factor for future development of generalized anxiety disorder.

547
Q

In which patients do you suspect SBP

A

Suspect in patients with cirrhosis, patients who had peritoneal dialysis or that had a paracentesis for another reason.

Presents with fever
Abdominal pain/tenderness
Altered mental status ( abnormal connect the number test)
Hypotension, hypothermia, paralytic blues

548
Q

Relative contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

A

History of chronic, severe, poorly controlled hypertension
systolic blood pressure >180 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure >110 mm Hg
Traumatic or prolonged (>10 minutes) cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) or major surgery less than 3 weeks previously
History of prior ischemic stroke not within the last 3 months
Dementia
Recent (within 2-4 weeks) internal bleeding
Noncompressible vascular punctures
Pregnancy
Active peptic ulcer
Current use of an anticoagulant (eg, warfarin sodium) that has produced an elevated international normalized ratio (INR) higher than 1.7 or a prothrombin time (PT) longer than 15 seconds

549
Q

Peptic stricture

A

complication of GERD that can cause obstructive dysphagia.

difficulty swallowing solid food, prolonged and careful chewing, and swallowing small portions. Need to drink more fluids with foods
no weight loss, no difficulty drinking fluids.

550
Q

Treatment of Cat-scratch fever

A

Macrolides ( Azithromycin)

551
Q

Afib that needs antiarrhythmic in the context of Heart failure

A

Amiodarone

Dofetilide

552
Q

<p>Tick paralysis presentation </p>

A

<p>Clinical presentation:
QUICK PROGRESSION- OVER HOURS -DAYS
Prodrome of fatigue and paresthesias
Ataxia, frequent falls, ascending paralysis
Absent reflexes
no fever

SENSATION NORMAL
Labs and imaging are normal

the toxin produced by Dermacentor ticks may interrupt sodium flux across axonal membranes in selected locations such as the nodes of Ranvier and nerve terminals [15]. This in turn may result in weakness through impairment of neural transmission to motor nerve terminals</p>

553
Q

Dx and treatment of mitral regurgitation

A

Echo
CXR ( cardiomegaly in some patients)

Tto:
Vasodilators: ACEIs and ARBs the best
Digoxin or diuretics
Valve replacement if heart starts to dilate. ( EF =< 60%)

554
Q

Presentation of hemochromatosis

A

Iron deposition in tissues
HFE gene mutations, but not everyone who has it will develop clinical ss.

Severity depends on the extent of iron overload.

Ss of iron overload are rare in younger.
Ss in men commonly >= 40
Ss in women are later due to menses.

Patients have non-specific ss ( fatigue, lethargy, apathy)

Iron deposition:
In the liver first because blood containing iron absorbed by the GI passes first through the liver, so it is rare to see cardiac or endocrine manifestations without liver being involved.

Hepatic: hepatomegaly, increased transaminases, hepatic fibrosis ( may progress to cirrhosis) and Hepatocellular carcinoma

Cardiac: dilated cardiomyopathy, heart failure, diastolic dysfunction.
Conduction disturbances, sinus node dysfunction, arrhythmias.

Endocrine organs:
DM, it looks like iron has an affinity to beta cells ( insulin cells) rather than the alpha ( glucagon cells).

Hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, hypogonadism.

CNS

ARTHROPATHY- may present very similar in terms of morning stiffness, improving as day passes by, meta arpophalages as RA. THE RADIOGRAPHIC FINDINGS ARE ALMOST INDISTINGUISHABLE FROM THE CALCIUM PYROPHOSPHATE . —- rhomboid shape and positive birefringence under polarized light.

RX shows findings very similar to pseudogout- narrowing og the joint space, particularly the 2nd and 3rd  MCP, along with subchondral sclerosis, curved osteophytes cysts, and osteopenia.
555
Q

Definition of Delayed puberty

A

Absence or failure of complete development of secondary sexual characteristics
In girls: breasts by 12 yo
In boys: testes >=4mL by 14 years old

556
Q

HR treatment

A
beta blocker, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, aldosterone antagonist, and diuretics.  
isosorbide dinitrate (along with hydralazine) 

check image

557
Q

<p>In which patients who present with paralysis do you order serum analysis for bacterial toxin?</p>

A

<p>Clostridium botulinum

descending paralysis
starting with cranial nerves
Afebrile</p>

558
Q

Classification of HTN

A

Normal 120/80
Pre-HTN 140/90
Stage I 140-159/90-99
Stage II 160/100

Urgency --> >=180/100
Emergency: 
  Brain ( cerebral hemorrhage, hypertensive encephalopathy)
 Hemorragues or exudates, papilledema 
 Aortic dissection 
 Renal failure
559
Q

Febrile nonhemolytic reaction

A

Fever & chills
Within 1-6 hours of transfusion
Caused by cytokine accumulation during blood storage

560
Q

Med of choice in DM with HTN

A

ACEIs- [rptectove effect for kidney

561
Q

Types of urinary incontinence and tto

A

Stress( cough, valsalva): Q TIP test angle >=30 from the horizontal indicates hypermobility

  • lifestyle mod
  • pelvic floor exercises ( Kegel)
  • Pelvic floor surgery - sling

Urge ( detrusor hyperactivity)
- lifestyle modifications ( timevoids and bladder training- establish a baseline interval and gradually increase time between voids- eventually 3-4 hrs

Overflow: cholinergic agents ( bethanecol), intermittent catetherization

562
Q

Patient with asthma, recurrent exacerbations, hemoptysis and eosinophilia, next step?

A

Aspergillus-specific IgE

Allergy skin testing for Aspergillus

563
Q

periodic breathing physiology

A

Due to recurrent central apnea due to immaturity of the CNS in infants up to age 6 months

564
Q

<p>Criteria to dx bacterial vaginosis</p>

A

<p>
3 of the following:
Homogeneous vaginal discharge( thin, malodorous)
ph> 4.5
Amine odor after the application of potassium hydroxide
Clue cells ( stippled appearance)</p>

565
Q

normal PR

A

<200msec

566
Q

What should you consider before ordering antihypertensives in a woman in repruductive age

A

pregnancy test

567
Q

Cyanide toxicity presentation

A

Skin: flushing ( early), cyanosis ( later)
CNS: headache, altered mental status, seizures, coma
Heart: Arrhythmias
Resp: tachypnea initially, then respiratory depression, pulmonary edema
GI: abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting
Renal metabolic acidosis ( lactic acidosis), renal failure

568
Q

Opioid withdrawal presentation

A

Gastrointestinal: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cramping, ↑ bowel sounds
Cardiac:↑ pulse, ↑ blood pressure, diaphoresis
Psychological: insomnia, yawning, dysphoric mood
Other: myalgias, arthralgias, lacrimation, rhinorrhea, piloerection, mydriasis

569
Q

Cardiac contusion produces sudden death when the injury involves the cardiac chambers or vessels.

A

true

570
Q

Dx and Tto of sporotrichosis

A

Dx: Clinical and cultures and aspirate are often requested

Two: 3-6 months of itraconazole

571
Q

prominent x and absent y in JVP

A

cardiac tamponade

572
Q

Transient tachypnea of the newborn pathophysiology

A

Normal clearing of fetal lung fluid starts during late gestation and continues through birth and post-delivery.

Normally in late gestation the increase of catecholamines and hormones lead to stop secretion of chloride and fluids into the alveoli. And instead lead to increase reabsorption of Na and fluid , the former through AQP5 channels.

But in the delayed reabsorption of fetal fluid the fluid accumulates within the alveoli, there is increased permeability and fluid goes to interstitium—> pools in the perivascular tissues and interlobar fissures until it is eventually cleared by lympathics or absorbed into small blood vessels. —( In the RX: you see the fissures of the lung)

Excess fluid also leads to decreased lung compliance —increased breath work— tachypnea to compensate.
The poor ventilated alveoli leads to hypoxemia and eventually hypercapnia.

573
Q

MOA of cyanide for cyanide toxicity

A

cyanide binds to cytochrome oxidase inhibiting mitochondrial oxidative phosphorilase–> decrease ATP, anaerobic metabolism, lactic acidosis.

574
Q

Conditions associated with polymyositis

A

Interstitial lung disease
Myocarditis
Malignancy

575
Q

Presentation of ischemic colitis

A

commonly occurs due to nonocclusive disease in the setting of underlying atherosclerosis and a state of low blood flow.

abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, and fecal urgency as well as leukocytosis, lactic acidosis, and colonic distension or pneumatosis shown on abdominal x-rays.

576
Q

Labs in Giant Cell Arteritis

A

Normochromic anemia
Elevated ESR and CRP
Temporal artery biopsy

577
Q

Type II error

A

Type II error ( beta)-

failure to reject the null hypothesis ( false negative) — falsely infer the absence or non-existence of something that in fact is real or does exist.

578
Q

<p>Hypoglycemia definition </p>

A

<p>plasma glucose value of ≤40 mg /dL (2.22 mM) at any age (except during the first 48 to 72 hours of life).

In newborns, a plasma glucose value of ≤50 mg/dL is an appropriate threshold to distinguish infants who warrant further diagnostic testing.
In</p>

579
Q

What is the risk of Hep C to progress to chronic infection?

A

75-85%

580
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Giant Cell arteritis

A

3/5:
Age > =50
New-onset localized headache with fever and visual disturbances
ESR>50
Tenderness or decreased pulse of the temporal artery
Temporal artery biopsy showing necrotizing arteritis with mainly mononuclear cells.

581
Q

Treatment of mitral stenosis

A

UNIQUE!
Ballon valvuloplasty because is rheumatic heart disease
not calcium deposition

Diuretics, NA restriction

582
Q

Typical vs atypical chest pain

A

Classic
Typical location (eg, substernal), quality & duration
Provoked by exercise or emotional stress
Relieved by rest or nitroglycerin

Atypical
2 of the 3 characteristics of classic angina

Nonanginal
<2 of the 3 characteristics of classic angina

583
Q

Complications of MI

A

0-24 HF, arrythmias, cardiogenic shock

1-3 ( neutrophils)- PIP
4-7 ( macrophages) - rupture of free wall, interventricular septum

months - Ventricular aneurysm, dressler syndrome,

584
Q

Px Myeloma multiple

A

Monoclonal plasma cell cancer
IgG( 55%), IgA (25%)
> 40-50s
CRAB: hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia ( normocytic), bone lytic lesions/back pain.

There is increased risk for infections
Primary amyloidosis
Punched out lytic bone lesions on Xray 
Rouleaux formation
M SPIKE ON SERUM PROTEIN ELECTROPHORESIS
Bence Jones proteins ( Ig light chains in urine)
585
Q

Fixed splitting of hear sound causes

A

ASD

586
Q

Conditions associated with osteonecrosis

A
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)/ antiphospholipid antibody syndrome,, 
sickle cell disease, 
chronic renal insufficiency and hemodialysis,
 trauma, 
Gaucher's disease, 
HIV infection, 
following renal transplantation
Caisson's disease.

USE OF GLUCOCORTICOIDS (more than 15 to 20 mg/day).
ALCOHOL

587
Q

absent x and absent y in JVP

A

rv infarct

588
Q

All about actinomyces

A

Bacteria, anaerobe.
Is part of the normal oral, GI and reproductive flora
Causes OROFACIAL abscesses that drain through sinus tracts— yellow sulfur granules
Slow growing nontnder mass that eventually evolve into multiple abscesses
Tto penicillin

589
Q

Characteristics of back pain in ankylosing spondylitis

A

low back pain, improves with exercise
worsens at rest and at night

Limited chest expansion and spinal mobility–> restrictive pattern
Acute anterior uveitis
Hip and buttocks pain.
Enthesitis

590
Q

menopausal hormone therapy increases her risk of venous thromboembolism, what do you do in these patients?

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) (eg, escitalopram) or serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (eg, venlafaxine).

exact mechanism for how these medications improve hot flashes is currently unknown, 50%-70% of women who receive this therapy have a reduction in symptoms.

591
Q

treatment of aortic regurgitation

A

replacement is the definite tto

ACE/ARBS or nifedipine ( vasodilators will increase forward flow of blood and delay progression)

Loop

592
Q

Attributable risk factor

A

measure of excess risk and estimates the proportion of disease among exposed subjects that is attributed to exposure status.

(RR-1)/RR

593
Q

What are the policies for accepting travel expenses, gifts from pharmaceuticals?

A

Physicians ATTENDING conferences cannot accept subsidies from industry for travel costs, lodging, or other personal expenses.

However, it is permissible for faculty physician LECTURERS to accept reasonable honoraria and/or reimbursement for reasonable travel expenses.

LECTURERS MUST FULLY DISCLOSE the name of the company, his/her participation in company-funded research projects, and the nature of financial ties to the company.

594
Q

Guidelines for statin therapy

A

Patients with clinically significant ASCVD risk ( ACS, stable angina, CABG, stroke, TIA, PAD)
=< 75 high intensity statin
> 75 moderate

LDL >= 190 - high intensity

40-75 DM
If 10 year risk >=7.5 . high intensity
If 10 year risk <7.5 moderate intensity

Estimated ASCVD >= 7.5 MODERATE TO HIGH

595
Q

Meaning of D5W

D5NS

A

D5W (5% dextrose in water), which consists of 278 mmol/L dextrose

D5NS (5% dextrose in normal saline), which, in addition, contains normal saline.

596
Q

Acoustic neuroma presentation

A

are unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, often in association with tinnitus.
Acute vertigo episodes are uncommon due to slow tumor progression

Symptoms may also be due to involvement of other cranial nerves.

Diagnosis of a CPA tumor is based upon magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) imaging.

597
Q

Afib that needs antiarrhythmic in the context of NO CAD or structural heart disease

A

Flecainide

Propafenone

598
Q

<p>Where is the most common location of glucagonoma and the most common metastasis?</p>

A

<p>distal pancreas

| liver metastasis, although other organs can be involved</p>

599
Q

Why does melasma occur and how to manage it?

A

due to ultraviolet (UV) radiation exposure that triggers melanocyte proliferation in sun-exposed areas.

Sunscreen , minimize sun exposure
kin-lightening agents (eg, hydroquinone, azelaic acid) and topical retinoid creams ( CI during pregnancy)

600
Q

Dx of SBP

A

Dx: PMNS>=250
Positive culture for gram negative organisms
Protein < 1 g/dl
SAAG >= 1.1

601
Q

most common cause of sudden death due to steering wheel injuries in car accident

A

aortic rupture
Rapid deceleration produces a shearing force along the aortic arch where the aorta is firmly attached: either ligamentum arteriosum, the aortic root, and the diaphragmatic hiatus.

602
Q

Goal BP in hypertensive emergency

A

rapidly lower diastolic pressure to 100-105 mm Hg over 2-6 hours, with the total drop in blood pressure being no more than 25% of the initial value.

Excessive hypotensive therapy with sudden drop in blood pressure can lead to ischemic events (eg, cerebral ischemia, myocardial infarction), altered mental status, or generalized seizures.

603
Q

Which joints does RA affect?

A

e proximal interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints

604
Q

If multiple family members cannot agree despite adequate counseling in regards to next steps of patients directive what do you do?

A

involve hospital ethics committee

605
Q

Presentation of idiopathic pulmnary hypertension

A

dyspnea on exertion
fatigue; chest pain, palpitations, and syncope or near-syncope

PE: prominent right ventricular heave, a loud pulmonary component of S2, a holosystolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation, and signs of right heart failure

Chest-x ray reveals prominent pulmonary arteries but no infiltrates.

606
Q

Causes and labs for pre-renal AKI

A
  1. Hypotension( Sepsis, anaphylaxis, blood loss, dehydration)
  2. Hypovol ( Burns, pancreatitis, diuretics)
  3. Relative hypovolemia ( CHF, pericarditis, cardiac tamponade)
  4. Stensois - renal artery stenosis, NSAIDs
  5. Hypoalbuminemia, cirrhosis
  6. ACEIs
  7. Hepatorenal syndrome

BUN/Creat > 20:1
FeNA< 1%
UNa<20
Osm> 500

HYALINE CASTS

607
Q

Management f UTI in pregnancy

A
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Cephalexin
  • Amoxicillin-clavulanate
  • Fosfomycin

treated empirically with antibiotics for 3-7 days.

Because there is a high risk of persistent bacteriuria, a urine culture is repeated for a test of cure one week after treatment completion.

608
Q

Patient with asthma, recurrent exacerbations, hemoptysis and eosinophilia

A

Allergic Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

609
Q

when to do arterial Doppler ultrasonography in Raynaud?

A

digital plethysmography, arterial Doppler ultrasonography or angiography ONLY considered if vascular lesions ( decreased pulses, asymmetric involvement)

610
Q

Management of a thyroid nodule

A

First order: TSH and US

US
-if suspicious findings ( hypoechoic, microcalcification,s internal vascularity) or Ca RF–> FNA

-If no suspicious findings or Ca risk–see the TSH
If TSH normal or elevated –> FNA

If TSH low–> 123 scintigraphy
If hot nodule ( hyperfunctioning)- treat hyperthyroidism
If cold nodule–> FNA

All thyroid nodules > 1 cm on US require a FNA

611
Q

S1 and S2

A

S1: mitral and tricuspid valve closure
S2: aortic and pulmonary valve closure

612
Q

Treatment Acute Coronary syndrome

A

dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and platelet P2Y12 receptor blockers (clopidogrel, prasugrel, or ticagrelor),
beta blockers,
statins
anticoagulant therapy (unfractionated heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin, bivalirudin, or fondaparinux)

nitrates can also be given

613
Q

Crystalloids what are they , examples

A

aqueous solutions of mineral salts or other water-soluble molecules.

Normal saline- a solution of sodium chloride at 0.9% concentration, which is close to the concentration in the blood (isotonic)

Ringer’s lactate or Ringer’s acetate is another isotonic solution often used for large-volume fluid replacement. The choice of fluids may also depend on the chemical properties of the medications being given.

Glucose (dextrose)

Cheaper than colloids

614
Q

most sensitive examination finding for scoliosis

A

A thoracic or lumbar prominence on forward bend test

Spinal rotation ≥7 degrees (or ≥5 degrees in overweight children) may suggest clinically significant scoliosis.

615
Q

statistically significant with CI

A

confidence interval (0.25-0.55) does not include the null value.

616
Q

Ocular manifestations with

A

acute anterior uveitis, cataracts, and cystoid macular edema.

617
Q

Bite wounds with a high risk of infection, that deserve Abc prophylaxis

A
Crush injuries
Bites on hands or feet
Wounds on body >12 hours or on face >24 hours
Cat bites (except on face)
Human bites (except on face)
Bite wounds in immunocompromised hosts
618
Q

Causes and labs for post-renal AKI

A
  1. Cancer ( prostate, cervix)
  2. Stone
  3. Stricture urethra
  4. Retroperitoneal fibrosis

BUN/creat > 20:1

619
Q

Torsades de pointes

A

polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can end up as fibrillation

Predisposed by prolonged QT, hypo K and hypoMg

tto: mg

620
Q

When do you use cryoprecipitate

A

Is usually used for :

Massive blood loss ( trauma or surgery): when there is evidence of low fibrinogen
Inherited disorders of fibrinogen
Impaired hemostasis in liver disease
DIC

621
Q

Dx and management of cryptorchidism

A

Dx is clinical
US is not recommended as it is not sensitive and won’t change management

If kid< 6 months - observe and follow
If child > 6 months- refer to surgical eval as spontaneous testicular descent rarely occurs after this age

Surgery before 1 year old optimized potential of fertility and testicular growth
Surgical procedure decreases risk of testicular torsion

Testicular Ca is decreased but not eliminated after an orchiopexy

622
Q

<p>Cardiac abnormality in infant of diabetic mother</p>

A

<p>Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 40% --deposit of fat and glycogen

Clinically variable-- can present with congestive heart failure.
R and L posterior ventricle become hypertrophied
BUT most prominent is the interventricular septum ( high insulin receptors)

Regardless of severity is transient- resolved within months.
</p>

623
Q

Treatment of femoral/inguinal hernia

A

surgical repair

No wait due to risk of necrosis with incarceration

624
Q

handle of an amputated part of the body

A

should be wrapped in sterile gauze, moistened with saline and placed in a sealed, sterile plastic bag.

the bag should be placed in a chilled container to best preserve it and reduce warm ischemia time. To maintain a temperature of 1-10 C (33.8-50 F), ice should be mixed with saline or sterile water (50/50 mixture) and the digit-containing closed plastic bag should be placed in the mixture.

625
Q

Young patient who experience Sudden cardiac death after exercising - options?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Anomalous Aortic origin of coronary artery

626
Q

Dx of hepatorenal syndrome

A
Renal hypoperfusion (FeNA < 1%)
Absence of tubular injury - no RBC , protein or granular casts on urine
No improvement in renal function  with fluids
627
Q

<p>Classification, assessment, treatment of monosymptomatic enuresis</p>

A

<p>Primary: never achieved drytime period ( most common)
Secondary: Enuresis after a period of at least 6 months of dryness ( usually secondary to stressfull events)

Hx, PE, URIANALYSIS to exclude secondary causes ( DM, DKA, Infection)

Tto: once urianalysis normal:
lifestyle changes
enuresis alarm
desmopressin changes</p>

628
Q

RF for ischemic colitis

A

atherosclerosis
CKD/hemodyalisis
Hypotension/hypovolemia

629
Q

What do you suspect in a New onset HF with low EF

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy due to CAD- due a stress test

630
Q

Risks/ complications of breast implants

A

They are associated to CAPSULAR CONTRACTURE ( Causes pain), distortion of shape, implant deflation and rupture.

There is no risk of breast carcinoma but there is a slight risk of anaplastic T cell lymphoma

There is no association with any connective or autoimmune disease.

631
Q

Triad of fever, leukocytosis and left upper quadrant abdominal pain
PLUS left sided pleuritic chest pain/pleural effusion?

A

splenic abscess

632
Q

Treatment of post-partum depression

A

Sertraline and paroxetine

patients should continue to breastfeed

633
Q

<p>21 hydroxylase def</p>

A

<p>MOST COMMON PRESENT IN INFANCY

salt wasting ( hypotension)
hyperK
increased renin activity
precocious puberty</p>

634
Q

signs and ss of aortic regurg

A

fatigue and shortness of breath

wide pulse pressure 
water hammer . pulse - wide, bounding
quincke pulse: pulsations of the nails
hill sign: BP in legs as much as 40 mmHg above arm BP
Head bobbing
635
Q

Presentation of infective endocarditis

A

Fever
Roth spots ( exudate, edematous lesions
Osler nodules
Murmur

Janeway lesions
Anemia
Nail bed hemorrhage
Emboli

636
Q

In a patient with SLE in treatment with glucocorticoids, who develop osteonecrosis. Whats the best way to manage ?

A

MRI
Hip replacement.

Stopping glucocorticosteroids is not an option– It may lead to more complications in the form of lupus flare and adrenal insufficiency.

637
Q

<p>Types of complex regional pain syndrome (CPRS)</p>

A
<p>
Type I (90%): without a definable nerve lesion 
Type II: with a definable nerve lesion 

</p>

638
Q

<p>Virologic failure definition - HIV</p>

A

<p>failure to decrease de viral load < 200 copies in 24 weeks( 6 months) of antiretroviral therapy.

Can be due to drug resistance or non-compliance

Patients who have good baseline ( high CD4 , low count) often respond better</p>

639
Q

MCC of delayed puberty

A

Constitutional delay of growth and puberty

640
Q

Alopecia areata can recur?

A

can recur in up to one-third of these patients.

higher chance of relapse :
 a longer duration of the disease
 a more extensive disease
 involvement of peripheral areas
 onset prior to puberty.
641
Q

MCC of mitral stenosis

A

rheumatic fever

pregnant and immigrant : – 50% increase in plsma that must pass narrow valve

642
Q

Management of patellar tendon rupture

A

surgical repair

leg cannot extend against resistance

643
Q

Why and when is a Chest X ray recommended in interstitial lung disease?

A

Chest x-ray is performed to screen for interstitial lung disease if no pulmonary symptoms are present.

In symptomatic patients, or those with abnormal x-ray findings, chest CT and pulmonary function testing are recommended.

644
Q

aortic regurgitation causes

A

anything that causes the heart to dilate: MI, HTN , Endocarditis, Marfan, ankylosing spondylitis.

645
Q

When do you screen with lipid profile

A

At age 20 , every 5 years

Earlier screen recommended in patients with fx hx or obesity

646
Q

<p>How is the viral load curve when ART is started?</p>

A

<p>1 month : <5,000
4month: < 500
6 months: < 50 </p>

647
Q

In which patients with HTN thiazide is a better option?

A

African-American

Osteoporosis ( increases calcium reabsorption)

648
Q

type 1 HIT

A

is nonimmune-mediated
caused by heparin-induced platelet clumping
arises within 2 days of heparin exposure, results in platelet nadirs >100,000 mm3, and resolves spontaneously over several days without intervention.

649
Q

What are the fetal post-natal derivatives of :
Umbilical arteries
Umbilical veins

A

MediaL umbilical lig

Ligamentum teres hepatis

650
Q

RF for osteoporosis

A

Advanced age - MOST SINGLE IMPORTANT
Estrogen depletion
Women
Ca/Vit D def

651
Q

management of inguinal hernia

A

If asymptomatic elective surgery in 1-2weeks
as a treatment delay of >2 weeks after diagnosis doubles the risk of incarceration

If incarceration immediate sx

652
Q

<p>To whom do you give irradiated RBC transfusion?</p>

A

<p>1. recipients of BMT

2. acquired or congenital immunodef
3. transplant from 1st or 2nd degree relatives</p>

653
Q

High-risk bites that require prophylaxis with Abcs

A
Crush injury
Bites in hands and feet
Wounds on the body (>12hrs) or on the face ( >24 hrs)
Human bites( except face)
Cat bites ( except face)

Bite wounds in immunocompromised

654
Q

Serology for Chronic hep B

A

HbsAg +
HbeAg+
Anti Hbc IgG

655
Q

radiates to the axilla murmur

A

mitral/tricuspid regurgitation

656
Q

Treatment of cyanide toxicity

A

sodium thiosulfate

657
Q

<p>How can ASD present in adulthood? ss?</p>

A

<p>Atrial fibrillation
decreased exercise tolerance
pulmonary hypertension
</p>

658
Q

Next step if suspecting dermatomyositis?

A

ANA ( 80%), anti-Ro, anti-La, anti-Sm, anti-ribonucleoprotein (RNP), and anti-Jo-1 antibodies.

Biospy and EMG are only done if there is diagnostic uncertainty.

659
Q

Complications of cryptorchidism

A

Infertility
Testicular torsion
Inguinal hernia
Testicular Ca

660
Q

What is the class of medication of tolterodine,

A

antimuscarinic

661
Q

<p>Treatment of bacterial vaginosis</p>

A

<p>Metronidazole or Clindamycin </p>

662
Q

pharmacological Treatment for osteoporosis

A

GIVEN IF ESTABLISHED OSTEOPOROSIS, FRAGILITY FX, HIGH RISK

Biphosphonates ( inhibit resorption-decrease osteoclast activity- binding to hydroxyapathite)-
Allendronate, risendronate
SE: reflux, esophageal irritation,ulceration

PTH therapy
increases bone mineral density and reduces risk fracture- due to cost not first line tto
max therapy of 24 months due to risk of osteosarcoma

Calcitonin
not good long term
useful short term in women with vertebral compression fx

663
Q

Treatment of hemochromatosis

A

serial phlebotomies to deplete serum iron stores

Chelating agents

664
Q

ENDOCARDITIS PROPHYLAXIS IS RECOMMENDED IN MVP

A

FALSE

665
Q

Risk factors for Erectile dysfunction

A

Atherosclerosis
Medications- antihypertnesives ( may indirectly lower intracavernosal pressure by virtue of lowering systemic BP)
sickle cell disease
hx of pelvic or perineal trauma
alcohol abuse
congenital penile curvature
any cause of hypogonadism/low testosterone

666
Q

Types of dysphagia

A

Oropharyngeal: difficulty swallowing, often associated with cough, drooling, aspiration
Esophageal: sensation of food stuck in the upper or lower chest

667
Q

Treatment of choice for osteonecrosis of femoral head?

A

The main modalities of treatment include conservative therapy, core decompression, osteotomy, and joint replacement.

Total hip replacement is the therapy of choice for stage 4 disease of the femoral head (flattening of the femoral head with joint space narrowing).

668
Q

Serology for window hep B

A

Anti Hbe

Anti bodyHb core IgM

669
Q

Treatment escalation for acne

A
  1. Topical retinoids, salycilic acid, glycolic acid
  2. Topical retinoids PLUS Benzoyl peroxidase
  3. Topical Antibiotics ( Erythromycin, clinda)
  4. Add oral antibiotics - tetracyclin, doxycycline, minocycline
  5. Isotretinoin
670
Q

Achalasia vs. pseudoachalasia

A

Achalasia: Absence myenteric plexus in LES- ( chronic presentation > 5 years)

Pseudo: due to esophageal cancer, rapid onset symptoms ( < 6 months), weight loss, alcohol or tobaccco history and > 60

671
Q

Patients with ADPKD are at increased risk of renal carcinoma?

A

NO

672
Q

SIRS

A

> =2

  • Temperature > 38 or < 36
  • HR>90
  • RR> 20 OR PaCO2< 32
  • WBCs> 12,000 or < 4,000 , or > 10%
673
Q

Murmur that radiates to carotid arteries

A

Aortic stenosis

674
Q

Labs ordered at 24-28 weeks of pregnancy

A

Hemoglobin/hematocrit
Antibody screen if Rh(D) negative
50-g 1-hour GCT

675
Q

<p>Premedication with anti-histamines or antipyretics significantly reduces the development of febrile non-hemolytic </p>

A

<p>False</p>

676
Q

<p>Noonan Syndrome</p>

A

autosomal dominant genetic disorder caused by abnormalities (mutations) in more than eight genes.

prevents normal development in various parts of the body.

unusual facial feature, short height, bleeding problems
, pulmonary valve stenosis.

677
Q

How to handle the weight loss concern associated with methylphenidate?

A

Weight loss is a common concern by parents- can be solved by giving medications after nutrient dense meals.

678
Q

<p>What are the labs in glucagonoma</p>

A

<p>glucagon > 500
normocytic normochromic anemia - ( anemia of chronic disease or due to effects of glucagon on erythrocytes)
low aa
increased gastrin, serotonin, calcitonin, VIP</p>

679
Q

What is needed for rapid sequence intubation

A
rapidly acting sedative (eg, etomidate, propofol, midazolam) and 
 paralytic agent (eg, succinylcholine, rocuronium) to facilitate emergent intubation while preventing aspiration.
680
Q

Pt that received intervention in ED, and has no advanced directive. Son arrives and says to remove it. What do you do next?

A

Ask in more detail what are the arguments behind. , and also before involving the whole family,

When a patient becomes incompetent or unable to participate in decision-making, and has no advanced directive. Physician should identify a surrogate -spouse or next kin.

681
Q

When do you use rhythm-control therapy for Afib

A

Management usually include anticoagulation ( e.g. rivaroxaban) and rate-control ( b blockers)

Rhythm control is not often used due to SE of antiarrhythmics but it is required in 2 scenarios:

  • Inability to maintain adequate control heart rate on rate control medications
  • Persistance of symptomatic episodes ( HF exacerbation on rate control agents)
682
Q

Delusional disorder

A

one or more nonbizarre delusions lasting >1 month in the absence of any mood or other psychotic symptoms.

683
Q

Patient with Raynaud that received nifedipine, but continues with it. Next step?

A

ANA, RF, CBC, blood chemistry, urinalysis and measurement of complement levels.

digital plethysmography, arterial Doppler ultrasonography or angiography should only be considered if vascular lesions (asymmetric involvement, deficient pulses)

684
Q

RF Primary ovarian insufficiency

A

Autoimmune disease
Chemotherapy
Turner syndrom

685
Q

If you suspect central hypothyroidism, next step?

A

prompt assessment of other pituitary hormones as well as pituitary imaging (magnetic resonance imaging).

686
Q

signs of testicular torsion

A

elevated, horizontal testis
abscense of cremasteric reflex
elevation of the testis doesnt improves the pain

687
Q

RF Transient tachypnea of the newborn

A
Prematurity
Cesarean delivery
Maternal asthma
Gestational DM
Obesity
688
Q

prognosis of ankylosing spondylitis

A

no increased overall mortality or reduced life expectancy.

689
Q

<p>Treatment of BZD withdrawal </p>

A

<p>BZD to control ss, once better the BZD has to be tappered gradually</p>

690
Q

Transfusion related acute lung injury

A

Resp distress & signs of pulmonary edema

Within 6 hours of transfusion

Caused by donor anti-leukocyte

691
Q

Dx and management of cryptorchidism

A

Dx is clinical
US is not recommended as it is not sensitive and won’t change management

If kid< 6 months - observe and follow
If child > 6 months- refer to surgical eval as spontaneous testicular descent rarely occurs after this age

692
Q

MAP calculation

A

CO x TPR

2/3 diastolic pressure + 1/3 systolic pressure

693
Q

<p>Atopic dermatitis treatment </p>

A

<p>Initially:
Oral histamines
* Avoid factors contributing to itching - excessive hot or dry environments
* Regular use of emollients to maintain the skin moisturized relieve pruritus

If persist: topical glucocorticoids
mild ss - low potency ( hydrocortisone)
moderate- high potency ( triamcinolone, bethametasone)

Topical glucocorticoids are not recommended for areas: eyelids, face, flexural areas. In these case calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus- may be considered

Severe:
UV therapy
systemic immunosupresants
</p>

694
Q

Why giving IVIG helps in immune thrombocytopenia

A

macrophages eat the given IgG instead of the one bound to platelets

695
Q

what is Lofgren syndrome

A

seen in. sarcoidosis

Erythema nodosum
hilar adenopathy
migratory polyarthralgias
fever

696
Q

How to monitor disease progression of ankylosing spondylitis

A

Every 3 months:
Anteroposterior and lateral views of the lumbar spine
Lateral view of the cervical spine
Pelvic radiograph, including the sacroiliac joints and hip

697
Q

What is cryoprecipitate and what does it contain

A

is the insoluble material that comes out of solution after frozen plasma is thawed at 4°C (between 1 and 6°C). It is rich in certain plasma proteins, especially fibrinogen.

comes from fresh frozen plasma.
Contains Factor VIII,XIII, vonWF, fibrinogen and fibronectin.

698
Q

Paradoxical splitting of heart sounds causes

A

LBBB

Aortic stenosis

699
Q

Empiric treatment for septic arthritis

A

Vancomycin, considering that is due to S.aureus, Streptococcus

700
Q

Postpartum depression vs blues vs. psychosis

A

“blues” that affect 50% of women
occurs around day 3, peaks ~5th and resolves after 1-2 weeks
no treatment necessary (CBT may be helpful)

severe postpartum depression
affects 10% of women
typically occurs 1-3 weeks after but can occur up to 1 year after
will meet criteria for major depression disorder 5/9 SIGECAPS
antidepressants (SSRI) + CBT

psychosis
psychotic thoughts and delusions
thoughts of hurting the baby - remove the child/ensure its safety
antidepressants, antipsychotics, CBT, admit

701
Q

Transient synovitis

A

Hip pain and limping , arise without a clear precipitant, over days.
More common in kids 3-8 years
M>F 2:1
THEY ARE WELL APPEARING
Fever can occur but is generally LOW OR ABSENT
Management is conservative

702
Q

HEPATORENAL SYNDROME IS A DIAGNOSIS OF EXCLUSION. A FLUID BOLUS IS NEEDED TO CONFIRM THAT RENAL FAILURE IS NOT SECONDARY TO INTRAVASCULAR DEPLETION.

A

TRUE

703
Q

Wide splitting of heart sounds causes

A

the abnormality occurs in expiration, pulmonary stenosis, Right bundle branch block

704
Q

Reversible causes of urinary incontinence in elderly

A

DIAPPERS

Delirium
Infection ( UTI)
Atrophic urethritis/vaginitis
Pharmaceuticals ( alpha blockers, diuretics)
Psychological (ie. depression)
Excessive urine output ( DM, CHF)
Restricted mobility ( eg. postsurgery)
Stool impactation
705
Q

<p>Treatment of botulism</p>

A

<p>equine serum heptavalent antitoxin</p>

706
Q

Non-pharmacological Treatment for osteoporosis

A
  • daily calcium (1,200 mg/day)
  • 800 IU of vit D
  • Weight bearing exercise
  • Smoking cessation ( accelerates bone mass) > alcohol
707
Q

SE of thiazides

A
HypoK
hyperuricemia
hyperglycemia
elevation of cholesterol and triglycerides
metabolic alkalosis, hyperUricemia, 
hypomg
708
Q

<p>Treatment for chlamydia</p>

A

<p>azithromycin</p>

709
Q

<p>Mechanism of hypocalcemia in DM?

| ( neonates can present with hypocalcemia due to maternal dm)</p>

A

<p>Patients with DM can develop acute renal failure due to volume depletion, sepsis, rhabdomyolysis or drugs. If there is acute renal failure PO4 accumulates and couples with Ca- causing hypocalcemia

In infants of DM moms ( 2 Mechanisms)

1. Associated with hyperphosphatemia
2. Increased ionized calcio in utero of infants lead to suppressed fetal PTH. </p>

710
Q

Considerations when giving sodium nitroprusside

A

risk of cyanide tox so;

low infusion rates < 2 microgr/kg/min
short term use
close monitoring

711
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica presentation

A

Age> 50
Bilateral pain and morning stiffness > 1. month
Involvement of 2 of following:
neck or torso
shoulders or proximal arms
proximal hip or thigh
constitutional ( fever,malaise, weight loss)

PE: Decreased active ROM in shoulders, neck and hip

SEEN IN GIANT CELL ARTERITIS

712
Q

<p>who is at risk of opioid addiction</p>

A

<p>> 45
hx of substance abuse or mental disorder
fx hx of substance abuse
legal hx</p>

713
Q

pelvic pain with exacerbation by bowel movements (dyschezia) and rectovaginal nodularity

A

endometriosis, complication infertility

714
Q

Advice in infectious mononucleosis

A

Avoid contact sports for >=3 weeks due to risk of splenic rupture.

715
Q

Mechanism of cathecholamines to produce contractility of heart?

A

inhibit phospholamban ( pentamer in the membrane who inhibits the SERCA to enter Ca+ in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and this contraction)

716
Q

Cat bite in hand, clean and vaccinated cat.

A

high risk bite

prophylaxis with amoxi-clavulanate

717
Q

There is no dose dependent relationship between smoking and cardiovascular risk

A

F, there is!

718
Q

Management of fibroadenoma

A

Observe for 1-2 menstrual periods. Is benign and will resolve over time.

If persistent US
If very large excisional biopsy can be done.

719
Q

Variants of impetigo

A

Non-bullous: MC form. papule–> vesicle surroeunded by erythema–> pustules that enlarge and breakdown–> crusted golden appearance. FACE & EXTREMITIES, although multiple they are localized.

Bullous: vesicles enlarge–> bullae–> ruptures and leave thin brown crust. Fewer lesions. TRUNK

Ecthyma: ulcerative form involving dermis and epidermis. “punched-out” ulcers covered with yellow crust surrounded by raised violaceous margins

720
Q

Presentation of acute diverticulitis

A

abdominal pain, leukocytosis AND fever, nausea, vomiting, NONBLOODY DIARRHEA.

721
Q

Treatment of congenital QT syndromes

A

B blockers shorten the QT

Pacemaker

722
Q

<p>poor growth and hypertension in a child with enuresis make you think of? what do you order?</p>

A

<p>renal disease, creatinine and renal US. </p>

723
Q

How do you manage diabetic foot infections with osteomyelitis

A
glucose control
surgical debridement
 weight off-loading
 revascularization (if needed), 
and antibiotic therapy for >6 weeks.  

Serial inflammatory markers (eg, erythrocyte sedimentation rate) can help confirm treatment response

724
Q

Positively birefringent, rhomboid crystals

A

pseudogout

acute monoarticular arthritis, but the knee joints are more frequently involved than the MTP joints.

725
Q

Differential of exudative pharyngitis or tonsillitis,

A
Strep Group A Infection
Infectious mononucleosis ( more systemic ss)
726
Q

Impetigo pathogens

A

S.aureus

S.pyogenes

727
Q

LP findings in MS

A

Oligoclonal bands and elevated IgG index can be seen in >90% of cases

728
Q

Screening for alcoholism

A
CAGE
Cut down?
Annoyed?
Guilty?
Eye-opener?

MAST(Michigan Alcoholism Screening Tes)
25 item questionnaire

729
Q

Blood cultures are often negative (>60%) in patients with osteomyelitis t/f

A

True

730
Q

Romano Ward Syndrome

A

Congenital long QT syndrome - AD, pure cardiac phenotype ( no deafness)

731
Q

patients with suspected PH should undergo initial evaluation with…

A

transthoracic echocardiography-estimate the pulmonary artery pressure , evaluates for RH dysfunction

Definitive diagnosis with right heart catheterization is required, with mean pulmonary arterial pressure >25 mm Hg providing confirmation.

732
Q

Risk factors for placenta previa

A

a previous placenta previa, multiple gestation, prior cesarean delivery, and advanced maternal age.

733
Q

What do you order if suspecting testicular torsion?

A

Doppler US

734
Q

Targets of BP in management of HTN

A

In < 60 yo , < 140/90

In>=60 , <150/90

735
Q

Treatment of Raynaud Sx

A

dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g., nifedipine and amlodipine), as well as diltiazem

736
Q

What is comfrey and SE?

A

Herbal supplement for joint pain

Hepatotoxicity

737
Q

Treatment of uremic bleeding?

A

Desmopressin acetate or combined estrogen.

The goal is to achieve an hematocrit of 30% to improve bleeding.

In this bleeding the number of platelet is normal , so no role of platelet transfusion here.

738
Q

How is the pulse oximetry in CO2 poisoning

A

NORMAL. is measuring saturation whether is O2 or CO2

739
Q

What medications predispose to osteoporosis?

A

Glucocorticoids, antiandrogens , some AEDs( phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, primidone

740
Q

Characterstics of alopecia areata

A

discrete, smooth and circular areas of hair loss over the scalp.
no associated scaling or inflammation present
The hair loss usually develops over a few weeks and has a recurring pattern. Most of the patients will have regrowth of the hair in the involved areas over time

741
Q

treatment for transient tachypnea of the newborn

A

TTO is supportive

O2 canula to maintain saturation > 90%, usually they don’t require more than 4

742
Q

What is the “Get Up and Go” test, what is it done for

A

assess postural stability.

patient to stand up from an armless chair without assistance, walk a short distance, turn around, return, and sit down again.

If the patient is unsteady or has difficulties during the test, further evaluation is necessary.

743
Q

Woman with recent femur fracture/repair that develops respiratory failure 3 days POP

A

Pulmonary embolism

744
Q

y wave in JVP: in which condition does it increase? absent?

A

increases in constrictive pericarditis

absent in cardiac tamponade

745
Q

which patients would you admit to the hospital for Hep B treatment?

A
> 50
poor oral intake
minimal social support
encephalopahty
hemodynamic instability
impaired hepatic synthesis function - INR >1.5
746
Q

Patient with urge incontinence who has tried lifestyle modifications and antimuscarinic agents but has not worked, what is next?

A

botulinum toxin injections

percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation.

747
Q

<p>If cardiac complications in Marfan patient, what is the recommendation </p>

A

<p>avoid strenuous physical activity- risk of sudden cardiac death. </p>

748
Q

Presentation of polyomyositis and antibodies

A

symmetrical proximal muscle weakness
No/mild pain or muscle tenderness

high CK, Aldolase
ANA, Anti Jo
Biopsy: Endomysial mononuclear infiltrate with patchy necrosis

749
Q

<p>Murmurs per site </p>

A

<p>Aortic foci: AS

Pulmonary foci : PS, ASD

left 2-3rd intercostal space: AR,PR,HCM

Tricuspid foci: TR,TS,ASD,VSD

Mitral focus: MVP, MS, MR</p>

750
Q

paradoxical splitting of S2

A

Aortic stenosis, left bundle branch block

In severe AS, closure of the aortic valve is delayed, which results in nearly simultaneous closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves during inspiration, and is appreciated on examination as a single S2.

751
Q

knee lesions when pivot/landing mechanisms

A

Anterior cruciate ligament

Patellar tendon rupture/tear

752
Q

Hypothyroidism causes

A

Iatrogenic- due to treatments of hyperthyroidism, radio iodine thyroidectomy or medications such as lithium

Hashimoto ( subclinical hypothyroidism)

753
Q

Types of SMA and treatment

A

There are 4 types depending on the onset of presentation
1- prenatal
2- aka Werdnig Hoffman disease ( Infantile)
3-juvenile
4- adult

1-2 are the most severe forms

Dx: Genetic testing. Electromyography and muscle biopsy were once standard, but now with the availability of genetic testing is preferred.
Treatment: Nusinersen - antisense oligonucleotide that modifies the splicing of SMN2 gene to increase the producttion of the absent protein.

754
Q

what does SAAG =<1.1 means and give examples

A

Peritoneal cause of ascites - tumors or infections

Peritoneal mesothelioma, peritoneal carcinomatosis, SLE, TB, SLE, sarcoidosis

755
Q

Management of cat bite in hand

A

amoxi clavulanate as prophylaxis

756
Q

EKG shows biphasic P wave in V1 and V2 AND CXR shows second bubble behind the heart

A

mitral stenosis

757
Q

Treatment for ADHD

A

Medications commonly given are methylphenidate
Alternatives:
atomoxetine.
Clonidine is a alpha 2 adrenergic that can be given if the above fails

758
Q

<p>Pathogenesis of atopic dermatitis</p>

A

<p>* Chronic pruritic rash with escoriation and lichnification

* Mutation of filligrin and other barrier proteins in skin
* Disrupture of skin increases antigen exposure and hypersensitivity
* Associated with asthma and allergic rhinitis

* Lab findings: High IgE, eosinophilia
</p>

759
Q

Why Glucocorticoids should not be given for a long time

A

suppress endogenous cortisol production through negative feedback on the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.

suppression of the HPA axis –>adrenal insufficiency on discontinuation of glucocorticoids

760
Q

Osgood Schlatter disease

A

tibial tuberosity apophysitis
Tenderness in tibial tubercle
Range of motion and joint stability are normal

761
Q

valgus stress test positive

A

Medial collateral ligament (MCL) tears

are caused by a direct impact to the lateral knee

either laxity of the knee joint when valgus stress is applied or tenderness along the medial joint line

762
Q

Treatment of H.pylori

A

If patient has any of the following:

  • Has received a macrolide before?
  • Clarythromycin resistance> 15% or local response rates to clarithromycin therapies <=65?

If YES– Patient will use Bismuth + MTZ+ Tetracycline+PPIs

If NO:
Ask: the patient allergic to Penicillin?

If no: Clarithromycin + Amoxi+PPIs

OIf yes, ask if the pateint has received MTZ

If patient has received MTZ– then Bismuth quadruple therapy
If not:

  • Clarythromycin + MTZ+PPIs
763
Q

What do you do if you suspect Infective endocarditis?

A
  1. order 3 blood cultures over the first 30-60 minutes
  2. initiate Abcs- if possible specific but otherwise empiric
    - ie. vancomycin
  3. There is no role of antithrombotic therapy.
  4. consider catheter removal, indication of surgery
764
Q

optic neuritis presentation

A

monocular visual loss accompanied by eye pain that worsens with eye movement.

765
Q

Management of condylomata acuminata

A

Trichloroacetic acid -destroys the lesion by protein coagulation. The clearance rate is not very high; therefore, repeated applications are usually necessary.

Systemic or topical interferon seems also to help

Ablative or surgical procedures are considered in patients in whom medical therapy is not effective

766
Q

Glucocorticoids can cause myopathy?

A

Yes, proximal

767
Q

Management of acute urinary retention due to bladder outlet obstruction in BPH

A

Immediate bladder decompression using urethral or suprapubic catheter is required to prevent progression and acute renal failure.

For most patients, urethral catheterization is attempted prior to consideration of suprapubic catheterization.

768
Q

If a patients response to one antihypertensive agent is not adequate what do you do?

A
  1. increase dose of th first agent to max dose
  2. Add a second medication ( thiazide, CCBs, ACE inhibitor); if target BP not reached you can increase both doses as necessary until max dose is achieved

**If still inadequate despite 2 meds, add a 3rd

769
Q

<p>Clinical presentation of glucagonoma</p>

A

<p>Weight loss ( catabolic effects of glucagon)
Diabetes mellitus ( can be recently diagnosed)
Necrolytic migratory erythema ( low aa, hyponutrition)
Venous thrombosis 30%

Other less specific
Diarrhea ( hyperglucagonemia &amp;amp; secretion of gastrin, VIP, serotonin, calcitonin)
Abdominal pain
Neuropsychiatric ss 20% -dementia, depression, psychosis
Dilated cardiomyopathy</p>

770
Q

Tto of hepatorenal syndrome

A

address precipitating factors: hypovolemia, anemia , infection
Splanchnic vasoconstrictors: midodrine, octeotride, NE
Liver transplant

771
Q

Is there increase risk of fetal or maternal bleeding with gestational thrombocytopenia?

A

NO

772
Q

Cause of indirect inguinal hernia

A

failure of processus vaginalis to obliterate

773
Q

If suspicion of splenic abscess what do you do next? how do you treat?

A

Abdominal CT

Broad spectrum abcs+/- splenectomy
Possible percutaneous drainage in poor surgical candidates

774
Q

Jervell and lange nielsen syndrome

A

AR sensorineural deafness

Long QT

775
Q

synovial WBC count in septic arthritis

A

synovial WBC count of >50,000/mm3

776
Q

What should you consider before prescribing methylphenidate for ADHD

A

Before prescribing stimulants the Dr. Should do:

  • Cardiac hx and PE
  • Baseline Weight
  • Vital signs

A ROUTINE ECG IS NOT RECOMMENDED

777
Q

Dx and tto of BPPV

A

Dix-Hallpike maneuver: diagnose BPPV; vertigo and nystagmus are triggered as pt quickly lies back into supine position with head rotated 45 degrees

Tto: Epley manuever: canalith repositioning maneuver

778
Q

Hep B post-exposure prophylaxis ie. healthcare worker

A

Hep B vaccine (within 12-24h), Hep B immune globulin

779
Q

Indications for platelet transfusion

A

platelet count <10,000/mm3
active bleeding with a platelet count <50,000/mm3
or planned major surgery with a platelet count <50,000/mm3.

780
Q

Patient with arthropathy mainly in the MCP, that now has in the knee PLUS hepatomegaly? Dx?

A

Hemochromatosis

781
Q

RF Cryptorchidism

A

RF: Prematurity and small for gestational age

Is abnormal to have this at birth

782
Q

When should statin be discontinued with myopathy?

A

asymptomatic patients, a CK level >10 times the upper limit of normal range

also evaluate if patient has had statin in the past and tolerated it. Sometimes there are confounding factors such as exercise.

783
Q

Statin therapy can potentiate muscle injury and elevation of creatine kinase (CK) levels following prolonged and vigorous exercise. Most such patients should be restarted on statin therapy after CK levels have normalized.

A

True

784
Q

Labs in SBP ascitic fluid

A

PMNs >250/mm3
Positive culture, often gram-negative organisms (eg, Escherichia coli, Klebsiella)
Protein <1 g/dL
SAAG >1.1 g/dL

785
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis cause

A

bacterial translocation through the intestine.

786
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis tto

A

Empiric antibiotics - third-generation cephalosporins (eg, cefotaxime)
Fluoroquinolones for SBP prophylaxis

IV albumin-decrease the incidence of renal failure and reduce mortality in patients with SBP.

787
Q

Why do you give albumin in SBP?

A

SBP is also often associated with renal dysfunction (possibly exacerbated by decreased effective intravascular volume due to cirrhosis and hypoalbuminemia).

IV albumin has been shown to decrease the incidence of renal failure and reduce mortality in patients with SBP.

788
Q

most useful indicator for 90-day mortality in Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis or liver disease

A

creatinine

Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score.
- bilirubin, INR, and serum creatinine, sodium

789
Q

Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score.

A

The MELD score can be used to determine a patient’s 90-day survival and to calculate a patient’s priority on the liver transplant list; patients with a higher MELD score take precedence should a suitable donor liver become available.

bilirubin, INR, and serum creatinine, sodium

790
Q

First line treatment for insomnia

A

Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

if doesnt work hypnotic therapy ( be careful in elderly!- falls)

791
Q

Recurrent pneumonia that resolves with antibiotic therapy in an elderly smoker

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma causing bronchial obstruction– obstruction, no clearance of secretions and pneumonia.

*The best diagnostic test for endobronchial obstructive lesions is flexible bronchoscopy. If the question had asked for the next best step in management, then the answer would have been CT scan.

792
Q

Presentations of alveolar hemorrhage

A

hemoptysis, does not resolve with antibiotics.

793
Q

most useful test to confirm diagnosis of bronchogenic carcinoma?

A

flexible bronchoscopy

794
Q

In which diseases do you see Hemosiderin laden macrophages

A

diffuse alveolar hemorrhage syndromes (Wegner’s granulomatosis, Goodpasture’s syndrome and other systemic vasculitis).

795
Q

Contraindications of kidney donation

A

Age <18
Lack of mental ability to make an informed decision
Uncontrolled hypertension, HIV infection, diabetes mellitus
Active or partially treated cancer
Acute infection
High suspicion of donor coercion
High suspicion of illegal financial exchange from recipient to donor
Uncontrolled psychiatric illness
Active substance abuse

796
Q

Patients on hospice can receive palliative medical therapies (eg, chemotherapy, radiation, tumor debulking) to improve comfort, but aggressive disease-modifying therapies with curative intent are not consistent with hospice care

A

true

797
Q

Patellofemoral pain syndrome

A

chronic overuse rather than acute trauma.

pain in the anterior knee, which can be reproduced by extending the knee while compressing the patella (patellofemoral compression test).

798
Q

DIsease associated with Baker popliteal cyst

A

Osteoarthritis

799
Q

Elevated TSH and normal T4

A

Subclinical hypothyroidism

800
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism def

A

Elevated TSH and normal T4

801
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism management

A

If TSH > 10: Start levothyroxine

If < 10 but upper limit check anti thyroid peroxidase antibody.
If positive: treat with levothyroxine
No: if patient has goiter, symptomatic, pregnancy,ovulation problems with infertility, and hypercholesterolemia: treat

if not monitor- repeat thyroid function tests every 6-12 months

802
Q

When to treat subclinical hypothyroidism

A

TSH >10 μU/mL or elevated titers of antithyroid peroxidase antibodies or

f patient has goiter, symptomatic, pregnancy,ovulation problems with infertility, and hypercholesterolemia

803
Q

levo vs liothyroxine?

A

liothyronine ( oral T3 supplement), not very useful because very short half-life-> fluctuations blood levels.

804
Q

Conversion of T4 to T3 is regulated by

A

TSH
Patients with primary hypothyroidism can have normal circulating T3 levels despite impaired thyroid function because of increased peripheral conversion due to elevated TSH levels. Serum T3 measurement is therefore of limited utility in hypothyroidism.

805
Q

When to suspect Ventilator associated pneumonia?

A

> =48 hours on mechanical ventilation
fever
increased requirements of oxygen
new patches on X ray

806
Q

Next step when you suspect Ventilator associated pneumonia?

A

Tracheobronchial aspirate for culture and empiric antibiotics.

807
Q

Why does ventilator associated pneumonia happens?

A

most commonly caused by microaspiration of virulent oropharyngeal organisms (eg, Escherichia coli, Streptococcus species).

808
Q

40 yo male with morning stiffness in hands, hepatomegaly,, recent DM dx, hepatomegaly.

A

Hemochromatosis

809
Q

Why does DM occurs in. hemochromatosis

A

iron has more affinitiy to B cells( insulin), than alpha( glucagon)

810
Q

Hemochromatosis patients are more susceptible to which infections

A

listeria, vibrio vulnificus, and yersinia enterocolitica

811
Q

MSK findings in hemochromatosis

A

arthropathy: morning stiffness with improvement as day passes. PSEUDOGOUT FINDINGS.
RX findings same as pseudogout: narrowing joint space, 2nd-3rd MCP, along with subchondral sclerosis, osteopenia

812
Q

Dx and tto of hemochromatosis

A

serum iron studies( increased levels of iron, ferritin, and transferrin saturation. ), then confirm with genetic studies (AR, HFE)
liver biopsy generally not done

tto: serial phlebotomies

813
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

slowly progressive arthropathy affecting the weight-bearing joints of the lower extremities and interphalangeal joints of the hands. Synovial fluid is typically bland, with <2000 cells/mm3, <50% neutrophils, and no crystals.

814
Q

Reactive arthritis

A

acute asymmetric arthritis

follows a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection.

815
Q

crystals are not present in osteoarthritis or RA

A

true

816
Q

Interstitial lung disease is a potential extraarticular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis

A

true

817
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of onychomicosis

A
  • Potassium hydroxide preparation of nail scrapings shows dermatophytic hyphae and arthrospores.
  • periodic acid-Schiff staining

Tto:

Medical indications for treatment : significant pain or functional limitation, history of cellulitis in the affected extremity, or additional risk factors for cellulitis (eg, diabetes).

First line: oral terbinafine,oral itraconazole
Second line : griseofulvin, fluconazole,Ciclopirox

Infection of the fingernails requires 6 weeks of therapy, and infection of the toenails requires 12 weeks.

818
Q

Cause and presentation of onychomicosis

A

dermatophyte Trichophyton rubrum.

thick brittle discolored nails

819
Q

Next step in management in patient with thunderclap headache where you suspect sucarachnoid?

A

if within 6-12 hours of SAH onset : Head CT

If not: LP

820
Q

Cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

ruptured asaccular aneurysm

821
Q

complications of subarachnoid hemorrhage

A
rebleeding (first 24 hours)
vasospasm (after 3 days)-from 3-10 days ct angio preferred for detections of vasospasm// NIMODIPINE
hydrocephalus.ICP
SEIZURES
HYPONATREMIA
822
Q

Why LP in subarachnoid more sensitive > 6 hours

A

retained CSF blood can take up to 6 hours to degrade and cause xanthochromia; for this reason, LP is most sensitive >6 hours from SAH onset.

823
Q

Chikungunya

A

high fever (up to 39 C [102 F]) for 3-5 days, followed by severe polyarthralgias.

Arthralgias - bilateral and symmetric, distal joints more than proximal joints.
The hands, wrists, and ankles are most commonly affected, and the pain may be severe enough to be disabling.

Headache, myalgias, conjunctivitis, maculopapular rash
Lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, transaminitis

824
Q

Chikunguya tto and prognosis

A

supportive tto

Most cases resolve spontaneously within 2 weeks, but approximately 30%-50% of patients develop chronic joint symptoms( may require methotrexate).

825
Q

Ehrlichiosis how is it transmitted and how does it present

A

Amblyomma ( lone star Tick), rash rare
Monocytes with morulae ( mulberry)

fever, nonspecific symptoms (eg, malaise, headache), nausea, vomiting, and cough.

leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, elevated aminotransferases

arthralgiasare less rare

826
Q

Pathology in Ehrlichiosis

A

Monocytes with morulae ( mulberry)

827
Q

Malaria pathogensesis

A

plasmodium falciparum, ovale, vivax or malaria parasites by bite of anopheles mosquito

828
Q

Malaria presentation

A

periodic fever paroxysms
cycle can have cold phase ( chills, shivering), hot phase ( febrile), and sweating phase.

malaise, headache, N/V, abdominal pain, diarrhea, PETECHIAE, HEPATOMEGALY, JAUNDICE

ANEMIA AND THROMBOCYTOPENIA

829
Q

Dx of Malaria

A

Thin and think peripheral blood smears.

830
Q

typhoid fever

A

Salmonella

slowly and begin with a week of fever (often with temperature-pulse dissociation- Typically for every 1 degree of fever the pulse increases by 10 beats/min. ),
followed by abdominal pain and cutaneous “rose spots.”
non bloody diarrhea

By week 3, hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal bleeding, and intestinal perforation often occur.

831
Q

what protects against malaria

A

hemoglobinopathies HgbS, Hgb C, thalassemia.

partial immunity from previous malarial illnesses

832
Q

Risk factors C fiddicile

A

Recent antibiotics ( fluoroquinolones, cluindamycin, penicillins, caphalosporins)
Recent hospitalizations
Advanced age
PPIs use

833
Q

Pathogenesis C. difficile

A

Intestinal overgrowth
Enterotoxin A: watery diarrhea
Cytotoxin B: colonic epithelial caell necrosis and fibrin deposition

834
Q

Presentation of C. difficile

A

Fever, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and leukocytosis ( ranges of watery diarrhea to fulminant colitis)

White/yellow pseudomembranes on sigmoidoscopy

835
Q

Diagnosis of C difficile

A

PCR detection of toxin in stools

if PCR negative no need to repeat the test because high sensitive.

836
Q

Treatment of C. difficile

1st
and recurrence

A

Oral vancomycin or Fidamoxicin(usually for recurrent or initial severe presentation)

Recurrence :
First recurrence: vancomycin PO in a prolonged pulse/tapper (2-8 w) OR Fidamoxicin (if Vanco was used in initial, and 10 days oral)

Multiple recurrences:
Vancomycin PO followed by rifaximin ( or above regimens)
Fecal transplant

Fulminant: METRONIDAZOLE IV PLUS HIGH DOSE VACOMYCIN PO OR PR if ileus present . Plus surgical eval.

837
Q

Fidamoxicin

A

bactericidal antibiotic for C. difficile
Usually for recurrences but can be used in the initial episode if very severe.

10 days oral.

838
Q

Organisms in endocarditis

A

Acute-S.aureus (large vegetations in previously normal valves)
Subacute- Strep Viridians( small vegetations in congenital abnormal or diseases valves, also in dental procedures)
S. bovis( gallolyticus)- Colon Ca
S. epidermidis ( prostethic bands)

Non bacterial: marantic endocarditis ( lupus(libmand disease two sides of mitral valve), malignancy)

839
Q

IF cultures are negative in bacterial endocarditis?

A

HACEK pathogens: Hemaophilus, aggregatibacter, cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella

840
Q

Which valve is more commonly affected in infectious endocarditis

A

MITRAL

But TRICUSPID seen with IV drug: S. aureus, Pseudomonas, Candida

841
Q

Vascular phenomena in infective endocarditis

A

Septic emboli ( cerebral pulmonary, splenic infarct)
Mycotic aneurysm
Janeway lesions

842
Q

Immunological phenomena in infective endocarditis

A

Osler nodules
Roth spots
Glomerulonephritis

843
Q

Treatment of infective endocarditis

A

Empiric tto after obtaining blood cultures: (cover, staph, strep and enterococci)–> VANCOMYCIN

Medical
vancomycin plus ceftriaxone or gentamicin
indications
empiric antibiotic therapy for patients with no prosthetic valve
often for 4-6 weeks

vancomycin plus gentamicin and rifampin
indications
empiric antibiotic therapy for patients with prosthetic valve
often for 4-6 weeks

844
Q

When do you give prophylaxis antibiotics

A

Dental procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue or the periapical region of teeth (eg, routine dental cleaning) or perforation of the oral mucosa AMOXI

Respiratory tract procedures that involve incision or biopsy of the respiratory mucosa (eg, tonsillectomy, bronchoscopy with biopsy) AMOXI

Surgical placement of prosthetic cardiac material( Staph, Vancomycin)
Surgery of infected skin or mucosa( Staph, Vancomycin)

GI or Genitourinary procedure with ACTIVE INFECTION. ( ampi, enterococcus)

845
Q

High risk cardiac conditions in infective endocarditis

A

Prosthetic valve
Prior infective endocarditis
Structural valve abnormality
Repaired/unrepaired heart disease

846
Q

OR

A

odds that an outcome will occur in the presence of an exposure divided by the odds that the outcome will occur in the absence of that exposure.

OR < 1 means that the exposure is associated with lower odds of the outcome
OR = 1 means that the exposure is not associated with the outcome
OR > 1 means that the exposure is associated with higher odds of the outcome

847
Q

6 P’s of lichen planus

A
pruritic
planar
polygonal
purple
papules
848
Q

Lichen planus is associated with

A

HCV,

849
Q

Next step is suspect lichen planus

A

skin biopsy: sawtooth infiltrate of lymphocytes at dermal-epidermal junction

850
Q

Lichen planus presentation

A
-skin:
purple papule with angulated (polygonal) border
can have vesicles or bullae
can result in scarring alopecia
-mucosa:
white, lacy, reticulated patches in oral mucosa = diagnostic of lichen planus
known as Wickham striae
nail
dystrophic
851
Q

Lichen planus

A

antihistamines for pruritus

topical steroids for localized disease

852
Q

discrete, intensely pruritic, polygonal-shaped violaceous papules or plaques involving the flexural surfaces of the extremities (most commonly wrists), buccal mucosa, or external genitalia.

A

Lichen planus

853
Q

If PE suspected, next step?

A

CT angiogram of the chest is typically preferred for diagnostic confirmation of acute PE

if impaired renal function, intravenous contrast should be avoided. :V/Q scan

854
Q

Wells Criteria for PE

A

+3 points
Clinical signs of DVT
Alternate diagnosis less likely than PE

+1.5 points
Previous PE or DVT
Heart rate >100
Recent surgery or immobilization

+1 point

Hemoptysis
Cancer
Total score

≤4 = PE unlikely
>4 = PE likely
855
Q

What to consider if pt wants to leave against medical advance

A

Discuss specific benefits/risks of proposed treatment & alternatives
Discuss specific risks of refusing treatment
Assess decision-making capacity
Understands proposed treatment
Understands risks of refusing treatment
Demonstrates a reasoned basis for leaving against medical advice
Discuss follow-up care & option to return to emergency department
Notify primary physician, family
Document in medical record

856
Q

Indications for GBS prophylaxis in pregnancy

A

maternal GBS bacteriuria, a positive rectovaginal culture for GBS (obtained at 35-37 weeks gestation), or a previous infant with invasive GBS disease.

A positive rectovaginal culture for GBS during a previous pregnancy is not an indication for prophylaxis in subsequent pregnancies.

857
Q

Definition of GBS adequately treated

A

if ampicillin, penicillin, or cefazolin is administered >=4 hours before delivery.

Vancomycin, clindamycin, or other antibiotics are not considered adequate prophylaxis due to increasing bacterial resistance and slower distribution across the placenta and into the amniotic fluid.

858
Q

All infants born to GBS-positive mothers, regardless of prophylaxis, should be observed in the nursery for 48 hours to monitor for signs of infection (eg, lethargy, poor feeding, temperature instability).

A

True

859
Q

Mom GBS positive adequately treated, next step for baby?

A

observe 48 hours

860
Q

GBS + inadequately treated/untreated. How do you decide if baby needs treatment?

A

if >=37 and ROM < 18 hours is OK to observe.

IF NOT the above, CBC, blood culture and observe 48 hrs

Antibiotics if the baby is ill or born to mothers with chorio.
LP indicated if very ill

861
Q

Fetal complications

from antiepileptics

A

Cleft palate
Congenital defects
Neural tube defects
Skeletal abnormalities

862
Q

Maternal & fetal

complications of seizures in pregnancy

A
Abruptio placentae/hemorrhage
Spontaneous abortion
Preeclampsia
Preterm labor
Mortality
Injury
863
Q

Patient on valproate just realized that is pregnant. What is the advice on the med?

A

Keep valproate, high dose folate, screen with serum alpha-fetoprotein and an anatomy ultrasound

therefore, changing to an alternate regimen should be tried 6 months prior to attempts to conceive. BUT NOT AFTER CONCEPTION

THIS APPLY TO ANY AED, ONCE CONCEPTION NO CHANGES

864
Q

Are AEDs contraindicated in breastfeeding?

A

NO.

Sedating AEDs (eg, benzodiazepines, phenobarbital) can sometimes cause the child to become irritable or sleepy; in these cases, breastfeeding should be discontinued, but it can be attempted again after a week.

865
Q

anginal pain lasting longer than 20 minutes is suggestive of acute coronary syndrome

A

True, so if a patient had an episode at home and arrives to the hospital asymptomatic and ECG doesn’t show ischemia, the best thing to do is wait observe, repeat ECG and troponins

866
Q

Initial ECG may be nondiagnostic or normal in more than half of patients presenting with myocardial infarction (MI), and serum troponin levels can remain undetectable for 6-12 hours following the onset of MI symptoms.

A

TRUE! For patients in whom the initial ECG and troponin findings are unremarkable but there is reasonable suspicion for acute coronary syndrome (ACS), the most appropriate approach is further observation with serial ECG and troponin levels (eg, 3 troponin levels 6 hours apart and several ECGs 30 minutes apart).

867
Q

transmission rates in positive for both HBsAg and HBeAg vs. only HBsAg positivity

A

Source patients positive for both HBsAg and HBeAg have transmission rates of 40%-60%; those with only HBsAg positivity have reduced transmission rates of 20%-40%

868
Q

psychiatrist vs. non physichiatrist dating former patient

A

psychiatrist: unethical with current or former

non-psychiatris: are unethical if the physician uses or exploits trust, knowledge, emotions, or influence derived from the previous professional relationship.”

For example, cases in which the physician-patient relationship was brief or relatively impersonal may be acceptable. In these cases, termination of the physician-patient relationship prior to beginning a romantic relationship is critical and should be documented.

869
Q

Mechanism of Organophosphate poisoning

A

inhibition of acetylcholinesterase–> colinergic activity

870
Q

Presentation of organophosphate poisoning

A

Muscarinic effects: “DUMBELS”

Defecation
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm/bradycardia, high secretion
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation
Nicotinic effects: Muscle weakness, paralysis, fasciculations
CNS: Respiratory failure, seizure, coma
871
Q

tto organophosphate poisoning

A
Remove clothing
Emergent resuscitation (eg, oxygen, fluids, intubation)
Atropine &amp; pralidoxime
Activated charcoal (if within 1 hour of exposure)

atropine (a competitive inhibitor of acetylcholine) and pralidoxime (a cholinesterase-reactivating agent

872
Q

A randomized trial shows that the incidence of relapses was 20% after 6 months of treatment A. Patients managed with placebo had an incidence of 25% during the same time period. Considering this information, how many patients will need to be treated with treatment A in order to prevent 1 episode of relapse of multiple sclerosis during the first 6 months of therapy?

A

ARR = 0.25 - 0.20 = 0.05 (ie, 5%). This means that for every 100 patients who used treatment A, 5 patients showed improvement.

NNT = 1/ARR = 1/0.05 = 20. This means that 20 patients need to be treated in order to prevent one multiple sclerosis relapse during the first 6 months of therapy.

873
Q

NNT

A

1/ARR

ARR: Substraction of thr risk of something in the treatment group and the placebo group.

874
Q

Which articulations are often involved in RA

A

metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints;

875
Q

Joint involvement in psoriatic arthritis

A

distal interphalangeal joints and axial skeleton (ie, spondyloarthropathy with sacroiliitis or spondylitis).

Morning stiffness, improve with physical activity

876
Q

arthritis
erythematous plaques with a thick, silvery scale in skin
pitting nails
destruction and separation of the nail plate from the nail bed (onycholysis).

A

psoriatic arthritis

877
Q

Psoriatic arthritis is seen in approximately one-third of patients with psoriasis and may precede the skin lesions.

A

true

878
Q

Soft tissue and nail involvement in psoriasis

A

Enthesitis (inflammation at site of tendon insertion into bone)
Dactylitis (“sausage digits”) of toe or finger
Nail pitting & onycholysis
Swelling of the hands or feet with pitting edema

879
Q

Treatment psoriasis

A
  • limited plaque psoriasis (<10% skin involvement) without associated arthritis are managed initially with topical glucocorticoids or vitamin D derivatives (eg, calcipotriene).
  • Narrowband ultraviolet B light therapy is typically used for widespread plaque psoriasis (eg, >10% of body surface area).
  • extensive disease or joint involvement require systemic treatment (eg, methotrexate).
880
Q

why oral glucocorticoids are relative contraindicated in psoriasis

A

as they may trigger pustular psoriasis.

881
Q

Causes of pancreatitis

A

I – Idiopathic/Infections (Ascaris, HIV,Salmonella, Cryptosporidium)
G – Gallstones
E – Ethanol
T – Trauma
S – Steroids
M – Mumps, malignancy (Pancreatic cancer)
A – Autoimmune
S – Scorpion sting
H – Hypercalcemia, Hypertriglyceridemia (Usually more than 1000mg/dL)
E – ERCP
D – Drugs ( HCTZ, Bactrim, azathioprine,furosemide, didanosine)

882
Q

Pancreatitis can present with Tachypnea, hypoxemia, hypotension if severe

A

TRUE

883
Q

dX OF PANCREATITIS

A

Requires 2 of the following:

Characteristic epigastric pain
Serum amylase or lipase >3 times normal
Imaging findings consistent with pancreatitis( contrast-enhanced CT scan, MRI, ultrasound)

884
Q

tREATMENT

A
Aggressive intravenous volume resuscitation
Pain control (eg, hydromorphone)
Nothing by mouth until pain resolves, nasojejunal feeds if oral intolerance >3-4 days
885
Q

Patient with pancreatitis who 3 days after develops fever, anemia, recurrence of abdominal pain, next step in management?

A

THink about possible complications: pancreatic necrosis, acute necrotic collection, acute peripancreatic fluid collection, or pancreatic infection (eg, infected necrosis)

So do contrast-enhanced CT (CECT) scan of the abdomen.

886
Q

ntravenous corticosteroids are the treatment of choice for autoimmune pancreatitis;

A

t

887
Q

how does the pharmacologic stress test work (adenosine and dipyridamole)

A

producing coronary vasodilatation and increasing the coronary flow rate and velocity.

In normal coronary vessels, vasodilation increases the blood flow
in areas with severe stenosis, there is already a compensatory microvascular dilatation at rest to maintain normal blood flow, so no further increase in the flow occurs.

The resulting heterogenous blood flow due to the stenotic or occluded region is detected by radionuclide imaging studies as a perfusion defect.

888
Q

left circumflex artery irrigation

A

lateral and posterolateral parts of the left ventricle

889
Q

LAD irrigation

A

anterior wall left ventricle

890
Q

right coronary artery

A

right ventricle and inferoposterior walls of the left ventricle.

891
Q

% gauss

A

68, 95,99.7

892
Q

Primordial prevention

A

prevention of risk factors themselves.(ie. obesity, htn for cardiovascular disease)

893
Q

Primary prevention vs 2, 3,4.

A

primary: preventing the disease to happen
secondary: preventing complications once disease has occurred
tertiary: taking all actions available to limit impairments and disabilities.
quaternary: mitigate and/or limit the consequences of unnecessary or excessive intervention by the health system.

894
Q

minor patient having sex with teacher

A

Situations involving sexual partners who occupy positions of power or authority in relation to the teenage patient should raise concerns for coercion. A physician who finds evidence of abuse or exploitation is obligated to notify the state’s child protective services or law enforcement agencies.

895
Q

presentation of infectious mono

A
Fever
Tonsillitis/pharyngitis ± exudates
Posterior or diffuse cervical lymphadenopathy
Significant fatigue
± Hepatosplenomegaly
± Rash after amoxicillin
896
Q

labs in infectious mono

A

Positive heterophile antibody (Monospot) test (25% false-negative rate during 1st week of illness)
Atypical lymphocytosis
Transient hepatitis

897
Q

Infectious mononucleosis management

A
  • Supportive , NSAIDs

- Avoid sports for >3 weeks (contact sports >4 weeks) due to the risk of splenic rupture

898
Q

Patient infectious mononucleosis (IM) with increased tonsil size, difficulty breathing airway obstruction, next step?

A

admit and start IV corticosteroids.

899
Q

peritonsillar abscess tto

A

clindamycin

900
Q

Complications of mono

A

airway obstruction
overwhelming infection
aplastic anemia
thrombocytopenia

in these cases IV corticosteroids are indicated

901
Q

The initial management of diabetic ketoacidosis consists of intravenous (IV) insulin, aggressive fluid support, and potassium supplementation. If serum glucose falls to <200 mg/dL but the patient still has an elevated anion gap, the rate of insulin infusion should be halved and dextrose added to the IV fluids to prevent hypoglycemia.

A

true

902
Q

DKA TTO

A

(IV) fluid support with normal saline and continuous IV insulin.

Because insulin promotes potassium entry into the cells, patients may rapidly develop hypokalemia. Potassium should be monitored closely and added to the IV fluids if serum potassium levels are <5.2 mEq/L.

903
Q

dka- insulin infusion is given until

A

serum glucose is <200 mg/dL, the anion gap is <12 mEq/L, serum bicarbonate is >15 mEq/L, and the patient is able to eat.

904
Q

DKA, glucose <200 but still persistent elevated anion gap what do you do with the management

A

the rate of insulin infusion should be halved and dextrose added to the IV fluids to prevent hypoglycemia.

905
Q

Calculation of K supplementation in DKA

A

The sodium concentration of IV fluids is determined by the corrected serum sodium (measured sodium + 0.016 [measured glucose – 100]).

So 0.9% normal saline should be continued for corrected sodium <135 mEq/L, but half (0.45%) normal saline should be given for corrected sodium >135 mEq/L.

906
Q

Anion gap formula

A

(serum Na – [serum Cl + serum bicarbonate])

907
Q

DKA management

A

IV fluids
Rapid infusion of 0.9% normal saline
Add dextrose 5% when serum glucose is ≤200 mg/dL

Insulin
Start continuous IV insulin infusion (hold if K <3.3 mEq/L)
Switch to SQ (basal bolus) insulin for the following: able to eat, glucose <200 mg/dL, anion gap <12 mEq/L & serum HCO3 ≥15 mEq/L
Overlap SQ & IV insulin by 1-2 hours

Potassium
Add IV K if serum K+ <5.3 mEq/L (hold if ≥5.3 mEq/L)
Nearly all patients’ K+ depleted, even with hyperkalemia

Bicarbonate
Consider for patients with pH ≤6.9

Phosphate
Consider for serum phosphate <1.0 mg/dL, cardiac dysfunction, or respiratory depression
Monitor serum calcium frequently

908
Q

Patient with DKA now corrected with Glucose <200 and anion gap decreased, in IV insulin infusion. Next step?

A

Give SQ insulin now and stop insulin infusion in 2 hours.

909
Q

Criteria for transition from intravenous (IV) to SQ insulin in DKA

A

glucose <200 mg/dL along with 2 of the following:
serum anion gap <12 mEq/L,
serum bicarbonate >15 mEq/L,
and venous pH >7.30.

910
Q

Treatment of latent tuberculosis

A
  1. Isoniazid & rifapentine weekly for 3 months under direct observation (not recommended in patients with HIV)
  2. Isoniazid monotherapy for 6-9 months
  3. Rifampin for 4 months

*Pyridoxine is added to prevent neuropathies in patients taking isoniazid who have the following conditions: diabetes, uremia, alcoholism, malnutrition, HIV, pregnancy, or epilepsy.

911
Q

When are patients with active TB considered noninfectious

A

when 3 consecutive acid-fast bacilli sputum smears are negative (8-24–hour intervals and >1 early morning samples).

912
Q

Why do we care about H.pylori infection?

A

risk of peptic ulcer disease ( duodenal 70%, gastric 50%)
Gastric cancer
MALTL (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma)

Also: Non peptic ulcer disease, GERD

913
Q

H.pylori treatment

A

PPI+Clarithromycin+Amoxicillin for 1-14 days

If penicillin allergy change amoxi to MTZ

iF High macrolide or metronidazole resistance or Treatment failure after 1 course of therapy:
PPI + bismuth + metronidazole + tetracycline for 10-14 days

914
Q

Recommendations about pain management in pts with H.pylori infection?

A

avoid NSAIDs due to risk of ulcer formation in the setting of H.pylori

915
Q

Misoprostol in H.pylori infection

A

inhibits gastric acid secretion and improves mucosal defenses.

Has been used to prevent ulcers associated to NSAIDs use

Not routinely used in H.pylori

916
Q

Patient recently treated for H.pylori has persistent abdominal pain, next step?

A

Confirm eradication of H.pylori first before considering other causes.

Urea breath test or antigen stool test - should be done after >=4 weeks of treatment completion

917
Q

Helicobacter pylori eradication should be confirmed for patients with

A
  1. persistent symptoms
  2. H pylori-associated ulcer on endoscopy
  3. evidence of an H pylori-associated malignancy (eg, mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma).
918
Q

Dx of gout

A

high clinical suspicion
arthrocentesis

Even if it is highly suspected clinically, gout should be confirmed with arthrocentesis.

919
Q

Predisposing factors for gout

A

Medications:diuretics, low dose aspirin, immune suppressants

Medical history: surgery, trauma, recent hospitalizations, CKD, Organ transplant

Lifeestyle: obesity, high protein, high fat, alcohol excess

920
Q

Gout tto

A

First line: NSAIDs (Indomethacine, ibuprofen)
If CI to NSAIDs: Colchicine

Give until 1-2 days after resolution of ss, usually 5-7 days.

If none of the above, depends on the joint involvement:

> 2 joints consider oral, IV, IM glucocorticoids
<2:consider oral, IV, IM glucocorticoids AND INTRAARTICULAR

921
Q

NSAIDS CI

A
Acute or CKD
Congestive HF
Peptic ulcer disease
NSAIDs sensitivity 
Currently on anticoag
922
Q

Why NSAIDs CI in HF

A

(NSAIDs), because they can cause sodium retention and vasoconstriction and can reduce the effectiveness and increase the toxicity of ACE inhibitors and diuretics

923
Q

CI of Colchicine

A

Severe renal or liver disease

Combined with another drug inhibiting CYP450

924
Q

Colchicine administration

A

1.2-mg dose followed by 0.6 mg an hour later.

Colchicine can then be continued at 0.6 mg once or twice daily until 2-3 days after symptoms resolve.

925
Q

Difference between pemphigoid vulgaris vs. bullous

A

Vulgaris:

  • Potentially fatal
  • Mediterranean/Jewish
  • 40-60yo
  • autoantibodies (IgG) against desmoglein, a component of the desmosome, desmosomes connect keratinocytes in the skin–> separation of epidermidis
  • Associated conditions: drugs( penicillamine, cephalosporin, captopril), thymoma, myastenia gravis, lupus
  • Flaccid bullae, NIkolsky sign positive ,
  • INVOLVEMENT ORAL
  • Antidesmoglein 1,3, and in pathology: IgG or C3 in net-like (reticular) pattern
  • TTO prednisone

Bullous pemphigoid

  • Hx of eczema and or pruritus before bullae formation
  • > 70 years of age
  • auto-antibodies (IgG) against hemidesmosomes in the —epidermal-dermal junction
  • main autoantigens are BP180 and BP230
  • Associated with drugs (loop diuretics,metformin, neuroleptic),multiple sclerosis, dementia, Parkinson disease
  • TENSE bullae, negative Nikolsy
  • Subepidermal blisters
  • tto: d/c new meds, wound care, steroids.
926
Q

NIkolsky sign

A

extension of blister or sloughing of skin with blunt pressure or lateral traction of skin

927
Q

lyme pathogen and vector

A

Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochete transmitted by the deer tick (Ixodes scapularis)

928
Q

Lyme arthirtis

A

afebrile and well-appearing, and can bear weight on the affected joint.
knee almost always involved
tenderness, swelling, decreased range of motion
Synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count 20,000-60,000/mm³.

929
Q

Lyme arthirtis dx

A

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, followed by confirmatory Western blot, is obtained.

930
Q

Synovial fluid in polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis,

A

synovial fluid WBC of 2,000-20,000/mm³ is expected.

931
Q

prognosis lyme

A

most pts are disease free after oral antibiotic

932
Q

tto lyme

A

A 28-day course of oral doxycycline or amoxicillin is the recommended treatment. Amoxicillin is indicated for children age <8 and pregnant or lactating women, as doxycycline can cause permanent tooth discoloration and skeletal problems in exposed children and fetus

933
Q

pts at high risk of postoperative pulmonary complications (PPCs)

A

COPD
Cigarette smoking
Sleep apnea
Heart failure

Prior to undergoing an elective procedure, these conditions should be optimized. This typically includes smoking cessation (ideally >4 weeks prior to the procedure) and the treatment of any heart failure or COPD exacerbation.

934
Q

medical contraindications for pregnancy

A
left ventricular ejection fraction <40%
NYHA class III-IV heart failure
Prior peripartum cardiomyopathy
Severe obstructive cardiac lesions
Severe pulmonary HTN (Eisenmenger syndrome)
Unstable aortic dilation >40 mm
935
Q

Eisenmenger syndrome are encouraged to use reliable contraception;

A

first-line options include hysteroscopic sterilization or a subdermal progestin implant. Estrogen-containing contraceptives are contraindicated due to an increased risk of thromboembolism.

936
Q

pediatric neck masses

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst
Midline
Superior displacement with tongue protrusion

Dermoid cyst
Midline
No displacement with tongue protrusion
consist of cutaneous structures (eg, hair follicles, sebaceous glands). They are located within the subcutaneous tissue

Branchial cleft cyst(remnant)
Lateral
usually located anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
Often associated with sinus tract/fistula

Lymphadenitis
Lateral
Tender, warm, erythematous

937
Q

Healthcare worker needle stick from patient Hep B +, next step

A

if he is immune: nothing
if he is non-immune: HbIG and vaccine, and then following the next 2 doses of Hep B after

revaccination alone is insufficient due to the delayed development of neutralizing antibodies. HBIG is needed to obtain immediate antibody activity.

938
Q

Healthcare worker needle stick from patient Hep B -, next step

A

if immune: nothing

if not immune: vaccine

939
Q

any patient with syphilis who has neurologic symptoms (eg, headache, blurred vision) requires…

A

a lumbar puncture to evaluate for neurosyphilis.

because treatment for neurosyphilis is different from other syphilis.

940
Q

Syphilis titers for positive

A

> 1:128.

941
Q

Primary syphilis characteristics

A

painless genital ulcer chancre

942
Q

Secondary syphilis characteristics

A
diffuse rash
LAD
oral lesions
hepatitis 
condylomata lata

Often presents with EARLY NEUROSYPHILIS: Meningitis, ocular ss ( posterior uveitis), visual acuity), and otosyphilis( hearing loss)

943
Q

Tertiary syphilis/neurosyphilis

A

Tabesd dorsalis, argyll robertson

Aortic aneurysm, aoric insufficiency

944
Q

Management of types of syphilis

A
  1. Primary, secondary and latent < 1 year: Benzathine penicillin G IM 2.4 million units as a single dose
  2. Latent>1 year, unknown, Gummas/CV syphilis: Bezathine penicillin G IM 2.4 millions unit weekly for 3 weeks
  3. Neurosyphilis/: Aqueous penicillin G 3-4 million units every 4 hours for 10-14 days.
945
Q

Congenital syphilis tto

A

Aqueous penicillin G 50,000 units/kg/dose IV every 8-12 hours for 10 days.

946
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

Patients who develop an acute febrile syndrome within 24 hours of initial treatment for a spirochetal infection (eg, syphilis, leptospirosis, tick-borne spirochetes)

lysis of spirochestes-> release of bacterial proteins-> trigger innate response.

947
Q

How to prevent Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

No effective prevention technique, self-limited, resolve in 48 hrs.

Can give acetaminophen during the reaction.

948
Q

Can we give antihistamines before or after Jarisch Herxheimer reaction?

A

The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is not mediated by mast cells or basophils so antihistamine therapy is ineffective. Corticosteroids have also not been shown to prevent or improve symptoms.

949
Q

acute bacterial prostatitis

A

have fever, dysuria, urinary frequency, and cloudy urine

rectal examination typically reveals a warm, edematous, and very tender prostate (unlike urinary tract infection).

treatment is to decompress bladder and start empiric antibiotic TMP/SMX, ciproflox

950
Q

Contrast induced nephropathy presentation and prevention

A

2-3 days after procedure and lasts 5-7 days.

Caused by vasocontriction.

Prevention with NaCL fluids before and after the procedure.

N-acetylcysteine has also been used to prevent CIN but has not been shown to be superior to intravenous saline or sodium bicarbonate.

951
Q

Definition of chronic diarrhea

A

> =4 months

952
Q

First step in management of chronic diarrhea

A

include microscopic stool examination for leukocytes and parasites, occult blood, pH, staining for fat, and electrolyte analysis for calculating the osmotic gap.

953
Q

4 Malabsorptive syndromes

A

Lactose intolerance
Chronic pancreatitis
Celiac disease
Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

954
Q

Characteristics of lactose intolerance ( including osmotic gap)

A

Diarrhea after lactose-containing meals
↑ Stool osmotic gap
↓ Stool pH
+ Lactose hydrogen breath test

955
Q

Stool osmotic gap

A

290 mOsm/kg − 2 x (stool Na + stool K)

<50: Secretory diarrhea

50-125: Indeterminate

> 125: Osmotic diarrhea

956
Q

high osmotic gap malabsorptive syndromes

A

lactose intolerance, celiac

957
Q

Celiac characterittics

A

↑ Stool osmotic gap
Microcytic anemia, iron deficiency
Villous atrophy

958
Q

Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

A

Macrocytic anemia, B12 deficiency

+ Lactulose breath test

959
Q

Pathophysiology SIBO

A

increase in native and non-native bacterial flora that cause increased fermentation, inflammation and malabsorption.

Normally small intestine contains minimal bacterial colonization due to gastric acidity and peristalsis

This can be triggered by:

  1. Anatomical abnormalities( strictures, surgery)
  2. Motility disorders ( DM, scleroderma)
  3. Other causes( end stage renal disease, AIDs, cirrhosis, chronic pancreatitis)
960
Q

Dx and tto of SIBO

A

Endoscopy ( gold standard) with jejunal aspirate showing > 10 ^5 organisms

Glucose breath hydrogen test

TTO: 7-10 days of antibiotics ( rifamixin, amoxi=clav)
Avoid antimotiliity(narcotics)
dietary changes( low carbs)
metochlopramide
961
Q

Celiac disease pathology

A

villous atrophy, loss of the normal villus architecture, intraepithelial lymphocytic infiltrates, and crypt hyperplasia

962
Q

Dengue hemorrhagic fever

A

due to increased capillary permeability leading to hemoconcentration, pleural effusion, and ascites.

Circulatory failure can develop with significant plasma leakage and is sometimes referred to as dengue shock syndrome. Patients typically have marked thrombocytopenia (<100,000/mm3) and prolonged fever.

963
Q

Most serious complication of dengue

A

Circulatory failure/hemorrhagic shock

964
Q

Dengue types of presentation

A
Classic: 
Flulike febrile illness with marked myalgias &amp; joint pains ("break-bone fever")
Retro-orbital pain
Rash ("white islands in sea of red")
transaminitis, LAD, pharyngeal erythema 
Hemorrhagic 
Increased vascular permeability
Thrombocytopenia (<100,000/mm3)
Spontaneous bleeding → shock  
Positive tourniquet test (petechiae after sphygmomanometer cuff inflation for 5 minutes)
965
Q

Complication of malaria

A

cerebral edema

966
Q

Complication of typhoid fever

A

intestinal perforation

967
Q

Typhoid fever

A

gradually with rising fever, chills, relative bradycardia, abdominal pain, and rose spots (faint salmon-colored macules on the trunk and abdomen).

968
Q

Leptospirosis presentation

A
Systemic and GI ss ( nausea, emesis)
Conjunctival suffusion
Hepatosplenomegaly +/- LAD
Muscle tenderness, arthralgias
Jaundice ( Weil Sx: icteric leptospirosis)
969
Q

Why is tinea versicolor more commonly seen in the summer

A

the organism inhibits pigment transfer to keratinocytes and makes the affected skin paler than the unaffected tanned skin.

Lesions may occasionally exhibit hyperpigmentation compared to surrounding skin due to a localized mild inflammatory response.

970
Q

Pityriasis Rosea vs Tinea versicolor

A
Pityriasis Rosea 
-post-viral 
-herald patch, small pink/tan 
-trunk and proximal extremities
-associated to URI, HSV 6-7
-KOH to rule out tinea
Lesions heal 4-12 weeks 

Tinea versicolor

  • fungal infection
  • malssezia species
  • multiple, often coalescing small circular macular that vary in color
  • rash + prominent in the summer
  • MC in upper trunk
  • KOH
971
Q

Tinea versicolor

A
  • fungal infection
  • malssezia species
  • multiple, often coalescing small circular macular that vary in color
  • rash + prominent in the summer
  • MC in upper trunk
  • KOH
972
Q

TTO of tinea versicolor

A

First line: topical anti-fungal therapy.

With extensive disease or recalcitrant infection, oral antifungals (ketoconazole, itraconazole, or fluconazole) are preferred

973
Q

Pityriasis Rosea

A
post-viral 
-herald patch, small pink/tan 
-trunk and proximal extremities
-associated to URI, HSV 6-7
-KOH to rule out tinea
Lesions heal 4-12 weeks
974
Q

The goal of intention to treat is ..

A

preserve randomization
avoid effects of crossover and dropout

IT DOES NOT AFFECT PLACEBO EFFECT

975
Q

The failure to detect side effects in earlier phases of clinical testing is most likely due to

A

Inadequate power.

976
Q

Pathogens in pediatric septic arthritis

A

< 3 months: S.aureus, GBS -, gram - bacilli

> 3 months: S. aureus, GBS

977
Q

Labs septic arthritis

A

↑ WBC, ESR, CRP
Blood culture
Joint aspiration (synovial WBC count of >50,000/mm3)
Effusion on ultrasound/MRI

978
Q

TTO septic arthritis

A

Joint drainage & debridement

IV antibiotics

979
Q

Developmental dysplasia of the hip presentation

A

positive Barlow and Ortolani tests with hip dislocation
limited hip abduction, and asymmetric gluteal/inguinal folds.
Ultrasound would not show effusion.

980
Q

Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, or idiopathic avascular necrosis of the hip

A

children age 3-12
insidious-onset hip pain and limp.
Deformity of the femoral head is seen on radiograph and MRI.
Inflammatory markers are not generally elevated.

981
Q

Transient synovitis

A

a hip effusion,
children age 3-8, often following a viral illness
normal or only mildly elevated inflammatory markers.

982
Q

hr DEFINITION

A

The hazard ratio (HR) is defined as the likelihood of an event occurring in a treatment group relative to the control group.

The null value for HR is 1.0. A HR <1.0 indicates an event is less likely to occur in a treatment group than the control group.

983
Q

Difference between HR and RR

A

HR is similar to relative risk (RR), except that RR is usually calculated at the end of a study (or other defined endpoint) to convey the risk of an event occurring within that time frame.

In contrast, HRs are a measure of the instantaneous risk of an event occurring, usually during a subset of the total study period.

984
Q

Medications associated to pseudotumor cerebri

A

isotretinoin, all-trans-retinoic acid, minocycline, tetracycline, cimetidine, corticosteroids, danazol, tamoxifen, levothyroxine, lithium, nitrofurantoin).

985
Q

Endocrine conditions associated to pseudotumor cerebri

A

hypoparathyroidism, hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, Cushing disease

986
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant syndrome

A

FEVER

Fever
Encephalopathy
Vitals unstable
Enzymes increased
Rigidity
Myoglobulinuria
987
Q

tto Neuroleptic Malignant syndrome

A

TTO: Dantrolene

988
Q

Management of akathisia secondary to neuroleptic

A
  1. Try to wean the dose, if this doesnt work or is already done
  2. B blocker: propanolol

. Benztropine and benzodiazepines have also been used.

989
Q

Treatments for stopping drinking

A

First line: naltrexone, a mu opioid receptor antagonist,

Second line acamprosate, a glutamate modulator.

990
Q

Naltrexone is CI in

A

patients taking opioids and in those with acute hepatitis or liver failure.

991
Q

Which AEDs decrease the efficacy of OCPs and how

A

phenytoin, carbamazepine, ethosuximide, phenobarbital, topiramate

by inducing cytochrome P450 system in the liver and lead to increased OCP metabolism, thus decreasing contraceptive efficacy.

992
Q

Amenorrhea in patient with epilepsy who recently changed AEDs, what do you think

A

Pregnancy

AEDs can decrease the efficacy of OCPs by increasing their metabolism,

993
Q

AEDs that do not interfere with OCPs efficay

A

gabapentin and valproate.

994
Q

Asherman syndrome presentation

A

intrauterine adhesions and endometritis

presents with cyclic abdominal pain and amenorrhea immediately after the procedure

995
Q

symptomatic meningitis, ocular syphilis, and otosyphilis and are likely manifestations of early neurosyphilis, which occurs most commonly during the secondary stage of syphilis

A

True Neurosyphilis can occur at any time following Treponema pallidum infection.

996
Q

Disseminated gonococcemia

A

either a combination of rash with tenosynovitis and non-purulent polyarthralgia or lone purulent polyarthritis.

997
Q

At what age kids know that death is final?

A

age >7

998
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome

A

compression of the median nerve as it passes under the transverse carpal ligament in the wrist.

relieved by shaking the hands (“flick sign”) or running them under warm water.

999
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome maneuvers that trigger ss

A

Phalen test (hyperflexion)
Tinel sign (tapping over the nerve in the carpal tunnel)
Hand elevation test (holding the hand over the head)
Reverse Phalen test (hyperextension of the wrist)

1000
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome tto

A

Mild: nightime splint
Moderate severe- if after 6 months of conservative measures it persists or there are neurologic changes surgery is an option

corticosteroids could be considered if splint fail.

1001
Q

NSAIDS in carpal tunnel syndrome

A

NOT USEFUL

1002
Q

Dx of Carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Clinical but EMG ( Nerve conduction studies) can also be done to confirm in preparation of surgery or if ss are uncertain

1003
Q

pyuria

A

leukocyte esterase on dipstick analysis or >5 WBC/hpf on microscopy

1004
Q

case fatality rate vs, mortality rate

A

proportion of people with a particular condition who end up dying from the condition.

mortality rate: probability of dying from a particular disease in the general population

1005
Q

attack rate

A

proportion of people in whom an illness develops out of the total population at risk for the disease.

1006
Q

Standardized mortality ratios

A

are used to determine if the observed number of deaths in a group exceeds what would be expected in a similar group (eg, similar age, gender) excluding the variable of interest (eg, smoking status, cholesterol levels). They are calculated using mortality rates for the general population to determine the number of expected deaths, which are then compared

1007
Q

STOP Bang Questionnaire

A

Snoring
Excessive daytime tiredness
Observed apneas or choking/gasping
High blood pressure

BMI >35 kg/m2
Age >50
Neck size: men >17 in (40), women >16 in
Male gender

High negative predictive value
If < 3 OSA LESS likely.

1008
Q

Strategies for snoring but not OSA

A

Smoking cessation and elimination of alcohol intake before bedtime are preferred initial management strategies for snoring.

1009
Q

Risks of Positive-pressure ventilation

A

Tension pneumothorax

1010
Q

In the ICU if patient develops pneumothorax next step

A

chest tube

Needle decompression is not needed as so far is not tension pneumothorax. If tension pneumothorax there is needle decompression followed by chest tube.

1011
Q

infantile (strawberry) hemangiomas course and treatment

A

grow rapidly but spontaneously regress by age 5-8.

no treatment, but sometimes due to size propanolol

1012
Q

to maintain organs viable in brain death person we need

A

brain-dead organ donor is to maintain a euvolemic, normotensive, and normothermic (or mildly hypothermic) state. Patients often receive intravenous fluids, desmopressin, and pressor support.

1013
Q

Breain death effects on organisms

A

Central diabetes insipidus, which can increase urine output to >1000 mL/hr and cause volume depletion
Systemic hypotension due to loss of sympathetic tone (and volume depletion)
Hypothermia

1014
Q

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergilosis presentation

A

hypersensitivity reaction in patients with cystic fibrosis or asthma
causes bronchiectasis and eosinophilia
non-invasive

develops recurrent exacerbations with fever, malaise, cough with brownish mucoid sputum, wheezing, or symptoms of bronchial obstruction.

Chest X ray upper lobe opacities, atelectasis due to mucus plugging, and signs of bronchiectasis such as bronchial wall thickening.

1015
Q

Dx of Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

Eosinophilia
Positive skin test for Aspergillus
Positive Aspergillus-specific IgG
Elevated Aspergillus-specific & total IgE

NOT BRONCHOALVEOLAR LAVAGE

1016
Q

Treatment for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

directed at acutely stopping the underlying inflammation and decreasing fungal burden to reduce the risk of recurrence.

Systemic glucocorticoids first line!

Antifungal therapy with either itraconazole or voriconazole ( reduce fungal load and requirements of glucocorticoids)

fluconazole has limited activity against Aspergillus so not given

1017
Q

Albendazole is used for

A

Ascaris lumbricoides, Enterobius vermicularis

1018
Q

First step in management of HHS and why

A

IV fluid hydration (ISOTONIC SALINE). There is dehydration due to osmoric diuresis due to glucose.

1019
Q

Labs in HHS

A

Pts tend to have high extracellular K due to lack of insulin, but the reality is that there is depletion caused by increased urinary excretion– SO AGGRESIVE DECREASE IN K IS NOT RECOMMENDED

Na levels can be increased or decreased,and either way may affect mental status

1020
Q

Dyshidrotic dermatitis

A

vesicular rash on the palms and/or soles that is associated with pruritus, redness, and scaling. The sides of the digits may also be involved, but lesions on the trunk are not typ

1021
Q

Chronic allergic contact dermatitis is characterized by pruritic lichenified plaques.

A

TRUE Common triggers include metals (eg, nickel), cleaning products, and a variety of chemicals used in rubber, plastic, and leather processing.

1022
Q

Before the diagnosis of fibromyalgia first rule out

A

anemia
inflammatory arthropathy ( ESR, CRP)
Hypothyroid myopathy
Some cases myositis with CK

1023
Q

Presentation of fibromyalgia

A
Widespread MUSCULOSKELETAL PAIN
fatigue
impaired attention and concentration 
psychiatric disturbances( anixety, depression) 
ss> 3 months.

multiple tenderness points
abscence of joint/muscle infallmation

1024
Q

Pregnancy management of hypothyroidism

A

↑ Levothyroxine dose 30% at time of positive pregnancy test

Measure TSH every 4 weeks & adjust levothyroxine dose to trimester-specific TSH norms

1025
Q

thyroid change dyring pregnancy

A

BhCG stimulates TSH receptors – > high T3, T4
Increase in thyroglobulin
Feedback suppression of TSH

**For this reason increase dose of levothyroxine, and check every 4 weeks TSH

1026
Q

pseudofolliculitis barbae (PB).

A

penetration of the hair shaft into interfollicular skin, either through the lateral wall of the follicle (transfollicular penetration) or by curving back down into the skin after exiting the follicle (extrafollicular penetration).

most prevalent in black men who have tightly curled facial hair.

1027
Q

Complications pseudofolliculitis barbae (PB).

A

hyperpigmentation, secondary bacterial infection, and (occasionally) keloid formation

1028
Q

tto pseudofolliculitis barbae (PB).

A

D/C shaving
it will resolve in a couple of weeks

After this other techniques like single razor blade, warm compresses before shaving, or Chemical depilatories, laser hair removal, and topical eflornithine (which slows hair growth)

1029
Q

treatment Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)

A

SSRIs

If it fails a second trial of SSRI can be tried.
If it fails and the patient doesnt want to get pregnant, oral contraceptive is also an option.

1030
Q

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)/premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) pts are at increased risk of ?

A

primarily mood and anxiety disorders

developing depression

1031
Q

The major problem that leads to difficulties finding cross-matched blood in patients with a history of multiple transfusions is

A

alloantibodies.

1032
Q

statin therapy guideline

A
Clinically significant ASCVD
Acute coronary syndrome
Stable angina
Arterial revascularization (eg, CABG)
Stroke, TIA, PAD
Then: 
Age ≤75: High-intensity statin
Age >75: Moderate-intensity statin

LDL ≥190 mg/dL
Then: High-intensity statin

Age 40-75 with diabetes
Then:
10-year ASCVD risk ≥7.5%: High-intensity statin
10-year ASCVD risk <7.5%: Moderate-intensity statin

Estimated 10-year ASCVD risk ≥7.5%
then
Moderate- to high-intensity statin*

1033
Q

Flail chest presentation

A

double rib fractures in more than one site
paradoxical movement of chest

muscular spasm and pain as well as pulmonary contusions, which lead to hypoxemia and increased work of breathing.

tachypnea and tachycardia, with shallow breathing, anterior chest bruises, and signs of inadequate ventilation (cyanosis)

1034
Q

Management of flail chest

A

Uncomplicated cases : supplemental oxygen, noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation, and medications for pain control.
Severe cases may require mechanical ventilation and surgical stabilization

1035
Q

Healthcare provider exposed to a patient with active TB, next step?

A

screening with tuberculin skin testing or interferon-gamma release assay is required. If initial screening is negative, repeat testing at 8-10 weeks can confirm whether transmission occurred.( the screenings can be negative up to 8 weeks)

If screening for TB is positive, chest x-ray and sputum testing for acid-fast bacilli are required to evaluate for active TB. If both of these additional tests are negative (and no symptoms of TB are present), patients are usually treated for latent TB with isoniazid and pyridoxine

1036
Q

Positive TB testing

A

≥ 5 mm
HIV
recent Tb exposure
chest radiographic findings consisted of healed Tb infection
organ transplantation or on immunosuppressants
≥ 10 mm
injection drug users
diabetes
chronic renal failure
employees in high-risk settings (e.g., physicians and nurses)
≥ 15 mm
considered a positive test in patients with no known risk factors

1037
Q

Patients with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) may transmit the bacterium to close contacts via aerosolized droplets for up to 3 months prior to the onset of symptoms.

A

true

1038
Q

precautions for patients with TB

A

airborne isolation, use of N95 mask

1039
Q

Prsentation of tabes dorsalis

A

Treponema pallidum spirochetes directly damage the dorsal sensory roots
Secondary degeneration of the dorsal columns
Clinical findings
Sensory ataxia
Lancinating pains
Neurogenic urinary incontinence
Associated with Argyll Robertson pupils

1040
Q

When the patient is asked to sign the consent form for treatment, she becomes reluctant and explains that women in their culture are not allowed to sign official papers. what due you do?

A

document verbal agreement and start treatment.

Husband should not be used as surrogate decision maker.

1041
Q

kid that needs live vaccine and mom is pregnant, should we vaccinate him?

A

YES!
Although pregnant women should not receive live virus vaccines due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection, the risk of contracting an infection from a recipient of a live virus vaccine is very low.

1042
Q

Inactivated ( killed ) vaccine

A

Polio

Hepatitis A

1043
Q

Toxoid- Inactivated toxin vaccines

A

Diphtheria, tetanus

1044
Q

Live attenuated vaccines

A

Measles
Mumps
Rubella
Varicella

1045
Q

Subunit/conjugate . vaccines

A
Hepatitis B
Pertussis
Haemophilus influenzae type B
Pneumococcal
Meningococcal
Human papillomavirus
Influenza (injection)
1046
Q

Do

A

Most glucagonomas are malignant and have metastasis, mainly in the liver, at the time of diagnosis

1047
Q

Lung cancer screening - how and to whom

A

Low dose chest CT scan , yearly

55-80 years old
Patients that have a history of >=30 years AND is currently smoking or quit smoking within the last 15 years.

1048
Q

When do you terminate lung cancer screening

A

Age >80
OR

Patient successfully quit smoking for ≥15 years
OR

Patient has other medical conditions that significantly limit life expectancy or ability/willingness to undergo lung cancer surgery

1049
Q

functional hypothalamic amenorrhea, long term consequences and treatment

A

↓ Bone mineral density
↑ Total cholesterol
↑ Triglycerides

Treatment
Increased caloric intake
Estrogen
Calcium & vitamin D

1050
Q

female circumcision complications

A

genital pain, scarring, infection, infertility, and difficulty with coitus and/or vaginal delivery.

1051
Q

Presbycusis

A

a sensorineural hearing impairment in elderly individuals. Usually, the disease is gradually progressive, and initially affects the high-frequency range of hearing.

1052
Q

Which action will most likely reveal impaired speech discrimination in a patient with presbycusis

A

decreased ability to discriminate speech is especially obvious in a noisy, distracting environment.

one to one conversation is ok.
The speech discrimination score may be normal in these patients; however, introducing background noise can reveal the hearing loss.

1053
Q

Carbamazepine side effects

A

BONE MARROW SUPPRESSION

early symptoms such as fever, mouth ulcers, easy bruising or petechiae, which can be markers of the development of neutropenia, aplastic anemia or thrombocytopenia.

Elderly patients are also at risk of SIADH. Because of some mild anticholinergic effects, there is a risk of glaucoma, urinary retention or constipation.

1054
Q

confidence interval and statistical significance

A

A confidence interval that crosses the null value or a P-value >α error cutoff (typically 0.05) denotes a result that is not statistically significant.

1055
Q

Bites at high risk of infection

A
Crush injuries
Bites on hands or feet
Wounds on body >12 hours or on face >24 hours
Cat bites (except on face)
Human bites (except on face)
Bite wounds in immunocompromised hosts
1056
Q

management of high-risk bite infections

A

leave them open to heal by secondary intention

The face is an exception due to its excellent, redundant vascular supply and cosmetic importance.

1057
Q

Management of mamalian bites ( cat, dog) in face

A

can be sutured unless they are >24 hours old.

1058
Q

Management of postpartum endometritis

A

Clindamycin and gentamicin

Is a polymicrobial infection
Clindamycin covers aerobic gram-positive cocci and penicillin-resistant anaerobes. Gentamicin covers gram-negative and some gram-positive bacteria (eg, Staphylococcus). Treatment is continued until the patient is afebrile for ≥24 hours.

1059
Q

chorioamnionitis treatment

A

ampi +genta

1060
Q

PID treatment

A

Cefoxitin plus doxycycline

1061
Q

The most important risk factor for endometritis postpartum?

other risk factors

A

THE MOST IS THE ROUTE OF DELIVERY- CESAREAN!!particularly when performed after labor commences or after rupture of membranes.

Other RF
Cesarean delivery
Chorioamnionitis
Group B Streptococcus colonization
Prolonged rupture of membranes
Operative vaginal delivery
Preterm (<37 weeks) and post-term (>42 weeks) gestations
1062
Q

Clinical presentation of Postpartum endometritis

A

Fever >24 hours postpartum
Uterine fundal tenderness
Purulent lochia

1063
Q

Patients with history of spontaneous abortion are at higher risk of another spontaneous abortion.

A

TRUE

1064
Q

Definition and risk factors of spontaneous abortion

AND TTO

A

< 20 weeks

Advanced maternal age
Previous spontaneous abortion
Substance abuse

1065
Q

Patient with spontaneous abortion, what are the recommendations and possible complications

A
Consider Rho(D) immune globulin
Pathology examination

tto
Expectant
Medical induction (misoprostol)
Suction curettage if infection or hemodynamic instability

1066
Q

Joint involvement in RA

A
Small joints (PIP, MCP, MTP); spares DIP joints
Cervical spine involvement: subluxation, cord compression
1067
Q

Patient in whom you suspect RA, next step

A

order RF *, and start ibuprofen/naproxen( while diagnostic workup)

*Anti CCP, CRP, ESR can be ordered

1068
Q

Parvovirus arthralgia vs RA

A

RA is chronic, often has palpable synovitis at palpation

Parvovirus often improves by 3-6 weeks.

1069
Q

Suspicion of lupus, next step

A

order ANA, if positive DsANA

1070
Q

Clinical suspicion of RA, but RF and anti CCP NEGATIVE , next step?

A

A positive assay for RF or CCP antibodies is associated with accelerated joint destruction, whereas patients who are negative for both RF and CCP antibodies (seronegative RA) often have a less aggressive course.

Is good to have CRP or ESR which would be high. If that’s the case can be started on Methrotexate

1071
Q

MOA Methotrexate

A

folate antimetabolite that targets rapidly proliferating cells. It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, blocking synthesis of purines and impairing replication of DNA. Major side effects include hepatotoxicity, stomatitis, and bone marrow suppression.

1072
Q

Before starting methotrexate always check

A

hepatic function

1073
Q

Patients on methotrexate should be supplemented with

A

folic acid

1074
Q

Cahracteristic labs of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

initial leukocyte count is typically normal
thrombocytopenia,
hyponatremia
transaminitis

1075
Q

Transmission of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii infection
Transmitted by tick bite
Peaks in summer

1076
Q

Treatment of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Rickettsia serology
Skin biopsy

Doxycycline for everyone, including children and pregnant women.

1077
Q

Presentation of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Fever, headache, myalgias , arthralgia
THEN 2-6 DAYS AFTER: erythematous macules on the wrists and ankles that then spread to the rest of the body AND EVOLVE TO PETECHIAE

Oklahoma and North Carolina have the highest incidence.

1078
Q

Complications of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

encephalitis, pulmonary edema, arrhythmia

So treat empirically before awaiting for confirmatory tests

1079
Q

Treatment of Lyme in kids < 8

A

Amoxicillin

1080
Q

meningococcal meningitis presentation

A

fever, headache, and a petechial/purpuric rash.

Intense myalgias

1081
Q

meningococcal meningitis tto

A

Ceftriaxone

1082
Q

Postpartum management of HIV

A

Mother: continue ART
Infant (maternal viral load ≤1,000 copies/mL): zidovudine
Infant (maternal viral load >1,000 copies/mL): multidrug ART

1083
Q

Intrapartum management of HIV

A

Avoid artificial ROM, fetal scalp electrode, operative vaginal delivery
Viral load ≤1,000 copies/mL: ART + vaginal delivery
Viral load >1,000 copies/mL: ART + zidovudine + cesarean delivery

1084
Q

Breastfeeding contraindications 7

A
Active untreated tuberculosis
HIV infection*
Herpetic breast lesions
Active varicella infection
Chemotherapy or radiation therapy
Active substance abuse
Galactosemia
1085
Q

In all countries, infants born to HIV-positive mothers should receive zidovudine prophylaxis for >6 weeks while the mother continues highly active antiretroviral therapy for indefinite viral suppression.

A

true

1086
Q

Contraindications to varicella vaccine

A

anaphylaxis to neomycin
anaphylaxis to gelatin
pregnancy
immunosuppressed state

1087
Q

Can we vaccinate a kid with varicella if a family member is immunosuppressed or pregnant?

A

YES

After varicella vaccine, vaccinated individuals should be monitored for a rash and isolated if one develops.

if rash develops the kid need to be isolated from the immunisupressed member until rash clears. an the member should receive IG

1088
Q

OCD treatment

A

Exposure and response prevention therapy, a specific form of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), is considered first-line psychotherapy for OCD

SSRIs can also be used

1089
Q

Dialectical behavioral therapy ( form of CBT) is used for

A

Borderline disorder

1090
Q

Interpersonal psychotherapy is often used in

A

depressive disorders

1091
Q

Psychodynamic psychotherapy what is it?

A

traces problems back to their origins in childhood

1092
Q

Presentation of Spinal stenosis back pain

A

pain in spinal stenosis increases with extension of the spine and decreases with flexion of the spine.

1093
Q

Mechanism of Bile salt-induced diarrhea

A

primary bile salts produced in liver –> excreted to intestine where bacteria transform them to secondary bile salts.

Conditions that cause excess of secondary bile salt cause diarrhea

1094
Q

Conditions associated with bile salt-induced diarrhea

A

post-cholecystectomy
post ileal resection
short bowel syndrome

1095
Q

Treatment for postcholecystectomy diarrhea caused by bile salts?

A

Cholestyramine: bile salt-binding resin that sequesters excess bile salts and is often effective against this form of diarrhea.

1096
Q

renal insufficiency with palpable purpura,

A

cryoglobulinemia

1097
Q

Cryoglobulinemia

A

Palpable purpura
Weakness
Arthralgias

elevated rheumatoid factor and hypocomplementemia. Approximately 20% of patients develop glomerulonephritis

1098
Q

Physiopathology of cryoglobulinemia

A

Hyperviscosity syndrome resulting from cryoglobulins (single or mixed immunoglobulins) in the blood

Pathogenesis
proteins, mainly immunoglobulins, precipitate at cold temperatures- deposit of immune complex within small and medium vascular wall.

IgM antibody (but different from cold agglutinin disease) deposition
often against anti-hepatitis C IgG
precipitated clumps can block blood vessels

1099
Q

Associated conditions to cryoglobulinemia

A
most commonly underlying hepatitis C ( history of IV drug use)
less commonly hepatitis B
endocarditis
Sjogren's syndrome
multiple myeloma
MGUS
lymphoproliferative disorder
1100
Q

Dx of cryoglobulinemia and tto

A

serum cryoglobulin levels.

Treatment of underlying disease -Hep C antiviral

Initial immunosuppressive therapy – stabilizes end-organ damage (eg, glomerulonephritis) using rituximab plus prednisone

**ojo is not extended immunosuppresive therapy, is just to halt end organ damage.

1101
Q

Nelson’s syndrome what is it

A

patients with Cushing’s disease who underwent bilateral adrenalectomy due to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia due to enlarging ACTH tumor. ( loss of feedback from adrenal)

Hyperpigmentation
Amenorrhea
Expansion of pituitary tumor, causing hemianopia

MRI and plasma ACTH levels are required for making the diagnosis.

1102
Q

Visual field defects are uncommon in patients with empty sella syndrome.

A

true

1103
Q

Indications for IVC filter placement include:

A

complications of anticoagulation, contraindications to anticoagulation ( i.e peptic ulcer disease), or failure of anticoagulation in the setting of a known DVT or PE

1104
Q

Osteoporosis

VS OSTEOPENIA

A

Osteopenia :T-score −1 to −2.5

Osteoporosis:T-score −2.5 or less OR history of fragility fracture**

TEST WITH dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry.

1105
Q

What is the major comorbidity of Tourette syndrome

A

OCD and ADH

NOT DEPRESSION

1106
Q

Dx of tourette

A

1.Both multiple motor & ≥1 vocal tics (not necessarily concurrent, >1 year)
Motor: Facial grimacing, blinking, head/neck jerking, shoulder shrugging, tongue protrusion, sniffing
Vocal: Grunting, snorting, throat clearing, barking, yelling, coprolalia (obscenities)
2.Onset age <18

1107
Q

Treatment of Tourette

A

1.Behavioral therapy (habit reversal training)
2.Antidopaminergic agents
Tetrabenazine (dopamine depleter)
Antipsychotics (receptor blockers)
3.Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonists

1108
Q

fever is a common systemic manifestation in SLE.

A

TRUE

1109
Q

Which of the lupus antibodies associates the most with disease activity

A

dsDNA

good to evaluate course
Anti-dsDNA antibody levels have also been associated with the development of lupus nephritis

1110
Q

Anti-centromere antibodies

A

scleroderma

1111
Q

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

A

primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC),

1112
Q

Anti-Smith antibodies

A

seen in LUPUS

1113
Q

anti-Ro/SSA antibody

A

correlated with a butterfly photosensitivity rash and other cutaneous manifestations of SLE as well as interstitial lung disease and congenital heart block.

However, it is not considered as reliable as anti-dsDNA antibodies.

1114
Q

Management of Lupus

A

Prednisone and hydroxycloroquine

Hydroxychloroquine is an anti-malarial agent that is particularly effective at improving arthralgias, serositis, and cutaneous symptoms in SLE. Low dose, short-term prednisone may be used in patients with acute mild manifestations of SLE, whereas higher dose steroids or other immunosuppressants are typically reserved for patients with more severe, solid-organ manifestations.

1115
Q

Causes and timing of postoperative hypoxia

A
  1. Airway obstruction/edema ( immediate)
  2. Residual effect of anesthesia ( immediate)-decreased respiratory drive and arousal
  3. Bronchospasm
  4. Pneumonia (1-5)
  5. Atelectasis (2-5)
  6. PE
1116
Q

A-a gradient in atelectasis

A

hypoxemia due to intrapulmonary shunting, the hypoxemia fails to correct with supplemental oxygen and the A-a gradient is typically elevated.

Usually, present 2-5 days following surgery

1117
Q

SMR

A

It is the ratio of observed to expected number of deaths in a specific group of the general population under the assumption that mortality rates for the group are the same as those for the general population.

A confidence interval (CI) that does not include the null value (1.0 for SMRs) indicates a statistically significant difference between the observed and expected number of deaths.

1118
Q

healthy worker effect

A

Working populations are generally healthier than the general population and often exhibit lower mortality rates.

1119
Q

Age range at which kids start to walk

A

Mean is 12

Range is age 9-16 months.

1120
Q

precocious puberty

A

onset of secondary sex characteristics in boys age <9 and girls age <8.

1121
Q

How to differentiate precocious puberty central vs. peripheral vs. isolated menarche, isolated thelarche

A

First bone age. If advanced then either central vs. peripheral. Order LH
If LH high : central and it can be due to a tumor or idiopathic ( so MRI needed to distinguish both)
- in this case patients will present with enlarged testes
If LH decreased: peripheral (adrenal, gonads, or external cause)

1122
Q

classic vs nonclassic adrenal hyperplasia

A

Both are due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency

Nonclassic: reduced 21-hydroxylase activity
acne and early pubic (and axillary) hair development. Boys have normal-sized testes, but girls often have hirsutism and menstrual irregularities. Although stature is tall in childhood, advanced bone age may result in short stature in adulthood due to early closure of the epiphyseal plates.NON SALT WASTING

Classic

1123
Q

Diagnosis and tto of nonclassic CAH

A

elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone on ACTH stimulation test. Treatment is with hydrocortisone.

1124
Q

Management of retrosternal goiter with compressive symptoms

A

surgery

Radioactive ablation may enlarged the thyroid
External beam radiation has no role in treatment

1125
Q

Patient with lupus who develops palpitation and chest pain, arrives to the ED, Vfib, Cardiac arrest and dies. Cause

A

premature coronary atherosclerosis

1126
Q

SLE patients are at increased risk for non-Hodgkin lymphoma, especially diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL).

A

true

1127
Q

Mom that has thoughs about killing her children everytime she goes to the kitchen and sees a knife.She does not want to. DX

A

OCD

1128
Q

posterior urethral valve why are these caused

A

caused by residual embryologic tissue during genitourinary development in boys.

1129
Q

Presentation and potential complication of posterior urehtral valve

A

dilation of bladder, thickened bladder wall, bilateral hydronephrosis. this leads to an obstructive pattern.

If obstruction is severe –> oligohydramnios can result and cause Potter sequence–> pulmonary hypoplasia flattened fascies

1130
Q

Potter sequence

A

pulmonary hypoplasia flattened fascies

1131
Q

duplicated collecting system cause and presentation

A

formation of multiple ureteric buds during kidney formation.

may be asymptomatic, have recurrent UTIs or even unilateral hydronephrosis

1132
Q

Best test for dx posterior urethral valves

A

voiding cystourethrogram

diagnosis is confirmed by visualization of a dilated posterior urethra when the catheter is removed (the catheter keeps the valve open and must be removed before the end of imaging).

1133
Q

What to do once posterior urethral valves have been diagnosed?

A

Place a foley catheter to relieve obstruction partially.

When conditions stabilized cystoscopy allows direct visualization and ablation of the valve, which is curative.

1134
Q

Types of physcotherapies useful for major depression

A

Cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal psychotherapy

1135
Q

Cervical screening in immunosuppressed

A
  1. In HIV patients: onset of sexual intercourse, diagnosis, annually until >=3 are normal, then every 3 years.
  2. Immunosuppressed (SLE, organ transplant): onset of sexual activity, annually with pap smear and co-test hpv
1136
Q

18 year old sexually active, cervical screening?

A

NO. at 21 years old every 3 years. except immunocompromised patients

test is not started in< 21 yo.

1137
Q

Cervical screening in Age 30-65

A

Cytology every 3 years or every 5 years pap smear and HPV

1138
Q

Whe to stop cevical screening?

A

at >=65 or hysterectomy.

1139
Q

Routine testing for human papillomavirus is not indicated for women age <30.

A

is often just the pap smear every 3 years

1140
Q

Complications/risk of silicone implants?

A

capsular contracture, implant deflation, and rupture.

These are not associated with increased risk of cancer, rheumatologic conditions, autoimmune etc.

1141
Q

Silicone implants are NOT associated with breat carcinoma, but anincreased, albeit extremely low, risk of developing anaplastic T-cell lymphoma compared to the general population.

A

true

1142
Q

Mammogram screening for women with breast implants

A

regular, same as for non implant person

All women aged 50-74 should have mammograms every 1-2 years
10 years earlier if a first degree relative

they recommended magnetic resonance imaging every 2 or 3 years over the lifetime of the implant to screen for asymptomatic implant rupture, which could lead to scarring within the breast.

1143
Q

Supplement to prevent Alzheimer?

A

none, there is not enough data

1144
Q

Pathogens of AOM

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Nontypeable Haemophilus influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis

1145
Q

AOM dx

A

Bulging TM

Middle ear effusion plus TM inflammation (eg, fever, otalgia, erythema)

1146
Q

Tto AOM

A

Initial: Amoxicillin

2nd-line: Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid

1147
Q

Recurrent infection of AOM within 2 weeks of treatment, pathogen ?

> 2 weeks?

A

S.pneumoniae

Infection that develops >2 weeks later is usually due to different pathogens.

1148
Q

Which organism causes otitis-conjunctivitis syndrome

A

nontypeable H influenzae.

1149
Q

adenovirus

A

nonpurulent (rather than purulent) conjunctivitis, pharyngitis, upper respiratory infection, and gastroenteritis, otitis

1150
Q

Tto of Uncomplicated acute otitis media

A

10-day course of high-dose amoxicillin

1151
Q

When to consider Myringotomy and placement of tympanostomy tubes in recurrent AOM

A

persistent treatment failure
has persistent effusion for >3 months
or has >3 episodes of AOM in 6 months (or >4 in a year),

1152
Q

Schizotypal personality disorder

A

exhibit magical beliefs, eccentric behavior & thinking, unusual perceptual experiences

1153
Q

Acute stress disorder vs. adjustment disorder vs. PTSD

A

acute stress disorder: PTSD ss Lasting >=3 days & <1 month
PTSD >1m

Adjustment disroder: trigger can be of any severity and usually generates anxiety/depression but no psychiatric components.

1154
Q

Treatment of gonococcal conjunctivitis

A

Erythromycin ointment

1155
Q

Treatment of chlamydial conjunctivitis

A

oral azithromycin or erythromycin

1156
Q

Cluster headaches charactersitics

A

headaches that last <180 minutes and occur 1-8 times a day over a period of weeks.

orbital, supraorbital, or temporal and always unilateral.

ipsilateral autonomic symptoms such as ptosis, miosis, lacrimation, conjunctival injection, rhinorrhea, and nasal congestion.

1157
Q

Preventive treatment for cluster headaches

A

for those who have > 2 month of ss
Verapamil
240 mg to start

1158
Q

tto trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

1159
Q

Acute management of cluster headache

A

100% O2 by a nonrebreathing facial mask. This treatment is administered for >15 minutes and provides significant relief in >70% of patients.

1160
Q

dyspareunia + dysmenorrhea +chronic pelvic pain

A

endometriossis

1161
Q

suspect severe malnutrition, next step in management

A
Rewarming for hypothermia
Antibiotics for presumed systemic infection
Rehydration
   Oral rehydration solution preferred
   Intravenous fluids if in shock
Refeed cautiously

oral rehydration is the preferred method of rehydration. An orogastric or nasogastric tube

IV should be avoided due to the risk of fluid overload and heart failure

Feeding should be started cautiously due to risk of refeeding syndrome

1162
Q

Complication of sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor (eg, canagliflozin) ?

A

euglycemic DKA glucose < 250

euDKA in patients taking SGLT2 inhibitors can be triggered by prolonged fasting, major illness, intense exercise, excessive alcohol intake, or an abrupt reduction in concurrent insulin dose. These conditions further lower the insulin-to-glucagon ratio and exacerbate relative insulin deficiency to the point of stimulating ketogenesis.

Hyperkalemia  
Hyperlipidemia
Symptomatic hypotension
Acute kidney injury
UTI
1163
Q

MOA sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor (eg, canagliflozin)

A

lower blood glucose by reducing reabsorption of glucose in the kidney, which leads to a low insulin-to-glucagon ratio because high blood glucose levels are the primary stimulus for insulin release.

1164
Q

There is NO risk of early menopause with athlete triad

A

TRUE, just osteopenia, osteoporosis, breast and vaginal atrophy, mild hypercholesterolemia, and infertility.

1165
Q

Tamoxifen puts you at risk of

A

uterine sarcoma

1166
Q

Risks for uterine sarcoma

A

Pelvic radiation
Tamoxifen use
Postmenopausal patients

1167
Q

What is Rh(D) alloimmunization

A

Rh(D)-negative mother develops antibodies against Rh(D) antigen.
can lead to hemolytic disease of an Rh(D)-positive newborn and/or fetus; maternal IgG anti-D antibodies cross the placenta and destroy fetal red blood cells. When severe anemia develops in the fetus, it can lead to heart failure and subsequent hydrops fetalis (

1168
Q

Rh(D) alloimmunization- when do you do antibody screening?

A

prenatal visit and at 28 weeks

positive: alloimmunization has occurred and anti D Ig is not needed
negative: at 28 and then <72 hours after delivery

1169
Q

Indications for prophylactic administration of anti-D

immunoglobulin for Rh(D)-negative patients*

A
At 28-32 weeks gestation
<72 hours after delivery of Rh(D)-positive infant
<72 hours after spontaneous abortion
Ectopic pregnancy
Threatened abortion
Hydatidiform mole
Chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis
Abdominal trauma
2nd- &amp; 3rd-trimester bleeding
External cephalic version
1170
Q

Dementia + urianry incontinence, suprapubic tenderness to palpation, next step?

A

Examine potential reversible causes.

1171
Q

Reversible causes of urinary incontinence in teh elderly

A
Delirium
Infection (eg, UTI)
Atrophic urethritis/vaginitis
Pharmaceuticals (eg, alpha blockers, diuretics)
Psychological (eg, depression)
Excessive urine output (eg, diabetes mellitus, CHF)
Restricted mobility (eg, postsurgery)
Stool impaction
1172
Q

Common medications that cause urinary incontinence

A

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists (urethral relaxation)
Anticholinergics, opiates, calcium channel blockers (urinary retention/overflow)
Diuretics (excess urine production)

1173
Q

an inappropriate patient arriving at late hours to the clinic, saying that has a terrible pain

A

if complaint doesnt seem acute dont send to the ED,

and say that they can schedule an appointment in the morning.

1174
Q

What is the personality disorder of a patient with vague description of symptoms, use of appearance to attract attention, dramatic but shallow and shifting emotions regarding the romantic breakup, and continued inappropriate familiarity and seductive behavior toward the physician

A

hystrionic personality

1175
Q

Borderline personality vs histrionic

A

both can exhibit attention-seeking, manipulative behavior, and rapidly shifting emotions.

BUT borderline exhibit self-injurious and suicidal behavior, intense anger, chronic feelings of emptiness, and identity disturbance

1176
Q

Sinus tachycardia vs. SVT

A

SVT refers supraventricular tachycardia with abrupt onset and offset and regular ventricular response, including atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT), atrioventricular reentrant tachycardia (AVRT), and atrial tachycardia. — reentrant circuit

SVT- retrograde P waves(atrial depolarization follows ventricular), that are inverted in the inferior leads

Sinus tach- normal P waves and onset is gradual

1177
Q

What syndrome is associated with SVT

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) pattern, which is commonly associated with the development of atrioventricular reentrant tachycardia (AVRT).

1178
Q

Patient with fatigue and edema who had heart surgery 7 months ago, ECG sinus tach, Chest X ray pericardial thickness and calcification

A

Constrictive pericarditis

1179
Q

Causes of constrictive pericarditis

A

Idiopathic or viral
cardiac surgery or radiation therapy
TB pericarditis

1180
Q

ECG in pericarditis

A

may be not specific (i.e. tachycardia) or show atrial fib or low voltage QRS

NOT THE TYPICAL PATTERN FOR PERICARDITIS

1181
Q

Long-term amiodarone use SE

A

thyroid dysfunction
hepatotoxicity, cardiac bradyarrhythmias, chronic interstitial pneumonitis, neurologic symptoms (eg, ataxia, peripheral neuropathy), blue-gray skin discoloration, and visual disturbances

1182
Q

ss of anabolic-androgenic steroid abuse.

A

mood changes, feeling depressed and then angry

there will be other ss including worsened acne and hirsutism

MEN: decreased testicular size and sperm count, gynecomastia
WOMEN :Ovarian dysfunction

ERYTHROCYTOSis, hepatic dysfunction, altered lipid profiles,

1183
Q

CYclothimic disorder

A

numerous periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms that occur over at least 2 years.

1184
Q

ss of methylphenidate abuse

A

agitation, aggressiveness, and psychosis.

1185
Q

Herpangina pathogen , presentation and management

A

Coxsackie A

Summer age 3-10
drooling, fever, sore throat, vesicles in soft palate and tonsillar pillars

saline gargles, analgesics, and antipyretics

HAND WASHING CAN PREVENT OUTBRAKES

1186
Q

A 22-year-old white male who underwent a laparotomy two weeks ago for a perforated appendix, develops a swinging fever, dry cough, and pain in his right shoulder-tip.

A

subphrenic abscess,
DEVELOPS 14-21 days after Surgery.

SO ORDER AN ABDOMINAL US TO ASSESS THIS!

1187
Q

Treatment options for squamous cell carcinoma

A

SURGERY , cryotherapy, electrosurgery, and radiation therapy.

1188
Q

basal cell carcinoma vs. squamous cell carcinoma

A

basal cell carcinoma: locally invasive, no metastasis , pearly nodule with telangiectasis , palydasing nuclei. upper face and upper lip. Mohs surgery

squamous cell carcinoma:sun, scars, burns, immunosuppresse.Ulcerative lesions,
tto: surgery, radiation, cryotherapy.

1189
Q

triad pheochromocytoma

A

episodic headache, sweating, and tachycardia

1190
Q

labs for suspected pheochromocytoma

A

24-hour fractionated urinary metanephrines and catecholamine levels
AND plasma fractioned metanephrines

Twenty-four-hour urinary vanillylmandelic acid excretion has a much lower sensitivity and specificity compared with 24-hour urinary fractionated metanephrine and so is not preffered.

1191
Q

If labs are positive for pheochromocytoma, next step?

A

MRI of abdomen

Patients with negative abdominal imaging usually require further testing, such as the metaiodobenzylguanidine scan. Removal of the tumor is performed only after adequate preoperative control of blood pressure for 10-14 days with an alpha blocker, and intravascular fluid volume repletion with liberal fluid and salt. Beta blockers are given only to patients with adequate and complete alpha blockade.

1192
Q

Medical management of pheochromocytoma

A

alpha blockers first, then b blockers

1193
Q

Intraoperative management of hypotension in patients with pheochromocytoma

A

bolus of IV fluids

no need of dopamine.

1194
Q

Diagnostic study for narcolepsy

A

polysomnography

include multiple spontaneous awakenings and reduced sleep efficiency (total sleep time divided by total recording time) and latency of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep =<5 15 min

1195
Q

Treatment of Narcolepsy

A

modafinil- stimulant

1196
Q

Treatment of cataplexy in narcolepsy

A

serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (eg, venlafaxine) or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, and a tricyclic antidepressant- because the cataplexy is triggered by emotional distress

Sodium oxybate (the salt form of gamma-hydroxybutyrate) can improve nocturnal sleep, relieve excessive daytime sleepiness and has anti-cataplectic properties; however, it is rarely used due to abuse potential and restrictive regulations.

1197
Q

Difference between postpartum blues and depression

A

postpartum blues 5 days postpartum and resolves within 2 weeks.

postpartum depression >=2 weeks + SIGECAPS

1198
Q

Do patients with depression and on antidepressants able to breastfeed?

A

Yes

1199
Q

First line treatment in postpartum depression

A

Sertraline and paroxetine

1200
Q

Next step in management when suspicion of septic arthritis (clinically and CBC , CRP collected)?

A

Arthrocentesis is both diagnostic and therapeutic.
Give empiric antibodies– vanco

MRI IS NOT DONE BEFORE ARTHROCENTESIS because can delay treatment.

1201
Q

TTO septic arthritis

A

Vancomycin

1202
Q

Pathogens in pediatric sepsis arthritis

A

Age <3 months: Staphylococcus aureus, group B Streptococcus, gram-negative bacilli
Age ≥3 months: Staphylococcus aureus, group A Streptococcus

1203
Q

Should you give IV antibiotics in pressure ulcers?

A

Systemic antibiotics are indicated for wounds complicated by deep infection (eg, cellulitis, osteomyelitis).

1204
Q

Management of pressure ulcers

A

If not involvement of subcutaneous tissue –occlusive, semipermeable changes

If fullthickness – DEBRIDEMENT

ABCs are only used if suspected overinfection

1205
Q

1 week baby diagnosed with hypothyroidism, next step?

A

Start levothyroxine immediately to prevent cognitive decline.
Order ultrasound of the thyroid
Refer to endocrinology

**initially most infants lack clinical signs of hypothyroidism at birth as maternal T4 crosses the placenta

1206
Q

T4 is critically important for normal brain development and myelination.

A

Infants with congenital hypothyroidism may experience permanent intellectual disability if hormone replacement is not initiated by age 2 weeks

1207
Q

Definition of failure to thrive

A

weight below the 5th percentile or down-trending weight percentiles crossing 2 or more major percentiles (eg, 50th, 25th, 10th).

1208
Q

The most common etiology of FTT is ..

A

inadequate calorie intake secondary to psychosocial stressors.

1209
Q

Before starting TMP/SMX in a teenager with UTI

A

Pregnancy test

1210
Q

tto uncmplicated cystitis in non pregnants vs. pregnants

A

Nitrofurantoin for 5 days (avoid in suspected pyelonephritis or creatinine clearance <60 mL/min)
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days (avoid if local resistance rate >20%)
Fosfomycin single dose

pregnants: cephalexin, fosfomycin, and amoxicillin-clavulanate,

1211
Q

tto complicated cystitis

A

fluoroquinolones 5-14 days, ampo/gentfor severe cases

1212
Q

Duration of full trial of antidepressant

A

6 weeks. we have to wait until there without doing changes

1213
Q

patient with delirium, next step in management?

A
  • evaluate VS
  • Order labs to assess organic causes

psychotrophics are NOT the first line, always study potential underlying causes first

1214
Q

when can be antidepressants be stopped if pt are feeling ok

A
  • patients with a single episode: for 6 months following acute response (referred to as “continuation phase treatment”). The dosage that achieved response should be maintained and not reduced
  • history of multiple episodes (recurrent major depressive disorder), chronic episodes (≥2 years), strong family history, or severe episodes (eg, suicide attempt) should be considered for maintenance treatment.–>1-3 years following remission to prevent recurrence

highly recurrent (eg, ≥3 lifetime episodes) and very severe, chronic major depressive episodes may need to continue maintenance treatment indefinitely.

1215
Q

If suspecion of osteonecrosis of the femoral head, next step in management?

A

MRI of the side.

**not bilaterall, no x rays.

1216
Q

Management of osteonecrosis of the hip?

A

conservative therapy, core decompression, osteotomy, and joint replacement.

Total hip replacement is the therapy of choice for stage 4 disease of the femoral head (flattening of the femoral head with joint space narrowing).
1217
Q

When an error is discovered, disclosure (apology) should be provided in person, in a timely manner that includes an apology for what occurred.

A

true

1218
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Dementia Lewy

A

dementia (ie, progressive cognitive decline that causes functional impairment) when ≥2 of the following 4 clinical features are present:

Fluctuating cognition (eg, alertness, attention)
Visual hallucinations
Parkinsonism
Rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder (ie, loss of normal rapid eye movement sleep atonia)-dream enactment.

1219
Q

Pharmacotherapy for dementia with Lewy bodies

A

cholinesterase inhibitors (Donepezil)for cognitive impairment, carbidopa-levodopa for parkinsonism, and melatonin for REM sleep behavior disorder.

Quetiapine can be given for hallucinations

1220
Q

Risk of giving risperidone in dementia with Lewy bodies

A

QUETIAPINE IS PREFERRED OVER Risperidone for hallucinations

Some patients are extremely sensitive: worsening of confusion, parkinsonism, or autonomic dysfunction ( orthostatic hypotension).

1221
Q

3 YO Boy with ss of ADHD and family refuses to receive medication

A

parent-child behavioral therapy

1222
Q

Treatment in ADHD

A

initial treatment with nonpharmacological interventions (behavior therapy) in preschool-age children (3-5). If therapy fails medication can be used.

Older children (age >6) may receive pharmacotherapy as a first-line treatment.

1223
Q

prior to starting ADHD meds, what is required?

A

Cardiac history and physical exam

NO NEED FOR ECG

1224
Q

patients on methylphenidate who experience side effects or persist with ADHD ss despite max therapy, next step?

A

switch to another ADHD med, mixed amphetamines salts

other non-stimulant options: atomoxetine, clonidine

1225
Q

How do you switch from one ADHD med to another

A

No tapering or washout is needed, and the patient can be switched immediately from one stimulant to another.

1226
Q

Meds for ADHD

A

Methylphenidate, mixed amphetamine salts

non stimulants: atomoxetine and clonidine

1227
Q

Chart Ca, PTH

A

notes

1228
Q

First step in evaluating hypercalcemia is

A

PTH

1229
Q

What are the causes of hypercalcemia of malignancy

A

PTHRP–( Squamous cell, renal&bladder, breast and ovary)

Bone metastasis (Breast,Multiple myeloma)- increse osteolysis

increased vit D – lymphomas.

1230
Q

Hypercalcemia in primary hyperparathyroidism vs hypercalcemia due to tumor

A

in primary hyperpara–> Ca is high but < 12 usually

In malignancy the Ca are VERY HIGH

1231
Q

Management of atrial fibrillation (AF) with rapid ventricular response.

A

B blockers Metoprolol, atenolol

or non dihydropyridine Ca blockers: , diltiazem, verapamil)

1232
Q

Recommendations for patients taking levothyroxine

A

Empty stomach with water at least 30-60 min before breakfast

If taking Ca and iron, these should be separated for at least 3-4 hours

1233
Q

Recent infection, jaundice and fatigue and hemolytic anemia

A

G6PD deficiency

1234
Q

Heinz bodies and Bite cells are seen in

A

G6PD deficiency

1235
Q

Diagnostic test for G6PD deficiency

A

G6PD assay detects the production of NADPH which is low.

1236
Q

Osmotic fragility testing is abnormal in

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

1237
Q

G6PD def presentation

A

XL
Asian, African, or Middle Eastern descent

Neonatal unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Jaundice & anemia day of life 2-3
Acute hemolytic episode
Secondary to oxidative stress (eg, fava beans, sulfa drugs)
Jaundice, pallor, dark urine, abdominal/back pain

1238
Q

if high suspicion of G6PD def and the assay was negative, next step?

A

Repeat after the acute episode.

The acute episode usually lasts 1-2 weeks after the removal of offendant agent

1239
Q

Hemoglobin electrophoresis detects hemoglobinopathies such as

A

thalassemia and sickle cell disease

1240
Q

Screening for osteoporosis by DXA is recommended for

A

women >=65 or < 65 if risk factors ( low body weight, current smoking, family history of hip fracture, use of glucocorticoids)

1241
Q

Bisphosphonate therapy is indicated for postmenopausal women with: (3)

A

Low bone mass with a history of fragility fracture

Bone density criteria for osteoporosis (T-score 20% or hip fracture >3% based on the FRAX risk calculator

1242
Q

When to use topical antibiotics in burns

A

full thickness, and partial thickness

Superficial ones doesnt require and there is a risk of allergic contact dermatitis and antibiotic resistance

1243
Q

Characteristics of essential tremor

A

in the distal upper extremities
pronounced with outstretching of the ar
increases at the end of an activity or movement.

1244
Q

Prognosis of essential tremor

A

It does not affect life expectancy

The symptoms won’t resolve COMPLETELY with medications and WONT cause disability, and WONT resolve

1245
Q

Treatment of essential tremor

A

propanolol

1246
Q

Definition of a solitary pulmonary nodule

A

Rounded opacity
≤3 cm in diameter (>3 cm is considered a “mass”)
Surrounded by pulmonary parenchyma
No associated lymph node enlargement

1247
Q

Managemnt of pulmonary nodule

A

compare previous x-rays or CT scans; a nodule with stable size and appearance over 2-3 years has a low risk for malignancy and requires no further workup.

If change in size or no previous imaging CT chest

partially solid (heterogenous) or has a spiculated (spikes radiating from the surface), rather than rounded, surface is more likely to be malignant.

1248
Q

What are some characteristics of a solitary pulmonary nodule that makes it malignant?

A

partially solid (heterogenous) or has a spiculated (spikes radiating from the surface), rather than rounded, surface is more likely to be malignant.

1249
Q

Management ofsolitary pulmonary nodule

A

Nodules >0.8 cm that are intermediate or high probability for malignancy due to RF (ie, ≥5% probability) based on these factors require tissue diagnosis with biopsy or surgical excision.

1250
Q

in ALS which d functions are preserved?

A

Ocular motility, sensory, bowel, bladder, and cognitive functions are preserved, even with advanced disease.

1251
Q

MOA Riluzole for ALS

A

glutamate inhibitor

1252
Q

ALS flare can be treated with steroids

A

NO!! THERE IS NO FLARE. AND THE UNIQUE TTO IS RILUZOLE

1253
Q

Gout attack treatment

A

NSAIDs ( Indomethacine)

HOWEVER in patients with CKD or bleeding –> INTRA-ARTICULAR GLUCOCOSRTICOSTEROIDS.

) Colchicine should be avoided in patients with renal failure.

1254
Q

When to use intra-articular vs. oral steroids in gout?

A

FIRST: steroids are only used above NSAIDs if the patients have CKD or blood loss.

Intra-articular steroid is given if involvement of just one articulation

Oral prednisone if >1 joint involved.

1255
Q

Which is the best indicattor of poor prognosis in patients with COPD?

A

FEV1 remains as the single most important factor in determining the prognosis of patients with COPD.

A FEV1 below 40% of predicted indicates severe obstruction.

Residual volume is NOT

1256
Q

Radionuclide ventriculography measures..

A

Ejection fraction

1257
Q

Before initiating doxo or danarubiin oorder…

A

Radionuclide ventriculography

1258
Q

Test to diagnose pernicious anemia

A

FIRST the antibody IF

Then if negative, schilling test.

1259
Q

Pernicious anemia pathogenesis

A

antibody to gastric parietal cell leads to ineffective secretion of IF
leads to vitamin B12 deficiency due to decreased uptake in terminal ileum
accompanied by achlorhydria and atrophic gastritis( ABSENT RUGAE IN THE FUNDUS)

1260
Q

wHAT IS autoimmune metaplastic atrophic gastritis(AMAG).AND WHAT ARE THE THREE COMPONENTS

A

caused by autoimmune aggression against gastric mucosa

mainly directed against oxyntic cells and intrinsic factor.

glandular atrophy, intestinal metaplasia and inflammation. Atrophy affects mainly the gastric body and fundus.

1261
Q

Type of cells in Acoustic neuromas

A

Schwann cells

1262
Q

Patient with persistent cough, yellow,brown sputum, and has a history of upper respiratory ss. Dx?

A

Acute bronchitis

1263
Q

Dx of acute bronchitis

A

Precending Upper respiratory infection (90% viral)
cough for >5 days to 3 weeks (± purulent sputum)
Absent systemic findings (eg, fever, chills)
Wheezing or rhonchi, chest wall tenderness

**yellow and green sputum represent sloughing of epithelial cells and not bacteria

they can have crackles that disappear with coughind due to mobilization of sputum.

1264
Q

Tto Acute bronchitis

A

Symptomatic management, there is no benefit of antibiotics.

1265
Q

What to do in vertex/vertex delivery of twin if one comes out and the other one is at -2?

A

Expectant management as long as he has reassuring tracings. The cervix often contracts a little bit with delivery of the first kid, then it opens again.

1266
Q

mode of delivery in breech/vertex or breech/breech

A

c section

1267
Q

Natural history of. infantile hemangioma

A
May present as patch of telangiectasias at birth
Proliferation:
Age 0-1
Bright red, raised nodule
Involution:
Age 1-9
Deeper red/violet, regression in size
1268
Q

recommended screening test for HIV

A

combines detection of HIV antigen (p24) and HIV-1/HIV-2 antibodies.

at 4 weeks of infection, before there is likelihood that is negative.

1269
Q

When should HIV postexposure prophylaxis be started?

A

<72 hours after exposure (ideally within 1-2 hours).

1270
Q

Window period for testing HIV

A

at 4 weeks of infection, before there is likelihood that is negative.

1271
Q

If a patient is HIV positive for what should you test before initiating treatment and why

A

Hep B, some antivirals have dual action.

** also test for Hep C, TB and other STIs

1272
Q

Suspect SAH, next step?

A

CT FIRST!!!! BEFORE LP if negative CT

1273
Q

Tto of methadone ( non-opioid) withdrawal?

A

clonidine or adjunctive medications (antiemetics, antidiarrheals, benzodiazepines)

1274
Q

Tto of opioid withdrawal?

A

methadone (preferred) or buprenorphine

1275
Q

GI manifestations of OPIOID WITHDRAWAL

A

Gastrointestinal: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cramping, ↑ bowel sounds

1276
Q

Cardiac manifestations of OPIOID WITHDRAWAL

A

Cardiac:↑ pulse, ↑ blood pressure, diaphoresis

1277
Q

Psych manifestations of OPIOID WITHDRAWAL

A

insomnia, yawning, dysphoric mood

1278
Q

Pemberton’s test

A

patient raise his arms over his head for up to 60 seconds. The presence of facial plethora or engorgement of neck veins is strongly suggestive that the thyroid is the source of the patient’s obstructive symptoms.

1279
Q

Thyroid lymphoma should be suspected in patients with a history of Hashimoto’s who have a rapidly enlarging thyroid gland and subsequent obstructive symptoms.

A

T

1280
Q

Lab findings in DKA

A
Glucose >200 mg/dL
Bicarbonate <15 mEq/L
pH <7.3
Anion gap >14
Serum/urine ketones