Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

JFRD Engineer's Exam > Vehicle Extrication > Flashcards

Vehicle Extrication Flashcards

1
Q

According to NFPA 1670, _____________________ is defined as the removal of trapped victims from a vehicle or machinery.

A

Extrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Should an accidental deployment occur, having body parts positioned through an open window could result in a serious injury. When reaching into the vehicle to remove or turn off the ignition, members should reach from behind the ____________________.

A

Steering hub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which Presidential directive directs that all state & local governments & tribal entities adopt the National Incident Command System? (NIMS-ICS)

A

Homeland Security Presidential Directive -5 (HSPD-5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Local emergency organizations should make sure that their command structure will interface with _________________ organizations in an emergency.

A

External

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Three operating levels whose requirements are provided by NFPA 1006, Standard for Technical Rescuer Professional Qualifications.

A

Awareness
Operations
Technician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the difference between operations level and technician level extrication?

A

Technician level crew members must be able to perform all of the operations level skills on commercial or heavy vehicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Full-scene lighting equipment includes the following:

A

Portable generator
Cords
Lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

(Light) bulbs can ______________ if they come into contact with water.

A

Explode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Every year, approximately ______________ firefighters die on roadways as a result of being struck by vehicles while working in or near moving traffic.

A

6-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Highway incident management procedures should reflect the Department of Transportation’s ______________________________________.

A

Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices. (MUTCD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In some area, where electrical power lines are buried instead of being suspended, vehicles may come to rest on top of the __________________________.

A

Electrical ground transformers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Air systems should meet ANSI/CGA G7.1 Commodity Specification for Air for ________________ air.

A

Grade D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the three operating zones that should be used at a vehicle extrication incident?

A

Restricted- or Hot Zone
Limited Access- Warm Zone
Support- Cold Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

All personnel should wear appropriate reflective clothing, such as ANSI/ U. S. Department of Transportation (DOT) _________________ safety vests.

A

Class 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

______________________________ identifies the types of traffic control devices that should be used to establish work areas & identify incident scenes as well as the methods for deploying these devices.

A

The Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices (MUTCD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

On which side of the roadway should warning signs be placed?

A

On the incident side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Roadway warning signs should be positioned no close than _______________from the roadway.

A

24 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When using traffic cones, a minimum of ___________ cones should be used.

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The minimum level of care that should be provided during technical search & rescue operations is ___________________.

A

Basic Life Support (BLS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Document that the IC may use on the fire ground to track units & record filed notes during an incident. Often used as the basis for the development of an Incident Action Plan (IAP).

A

Tactical Worksheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the SMART acronym (incident objectives) stand for?

A 
Specific 
Measurable 
Action- oriented 
Realistic 
Time frame
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Standard size for helmet shields.

A

4-6”

Note the 6” shield is more desirable for extrication personnel because it covers a larger portion of the face.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fuel tanks may contain less than _____________ or more than__________________.

A

15 gallons for passenger vehicles

500 gallons for large buses & heavy trucks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hybrid/ electric vehicles. Depending on the type of vehicle, these systems may contain as much as __________ volts of DC current.

A

800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most desirable method to shut down a hybrid/ electric vehicle.

A

Switch & key system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Type of glass that consists of 2 sheets of glass bonded to a sheet of plastic sandwiched between them.

A

Laminated safety glass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Type of glass most commonly used for side windows & some rear windows of passenger vehicles.

A

Tempered glass.

Note- tempered glass is designed to spread small fracture lines throughout the plate when struck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Crushable bumpers may be made of ______________ foam molded into an egg crate structure covered by a flexible rubber shell.

A

Polystyrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Some crushable bumpers may be made of synthetic rubber molded into a ____________ structure covered with a flexible shell.

A

Honeycomb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Crushable bumpers are not a hazard in a fire until ____________________.

A

The fire is out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What chemical may “bead” up on a crushable bumper & have the appearance of water as the vehicle cools after a fire?

A

Hydrofluoric acid (HF)

Note- flush these bumpers with copious amounts of water to minimize the presence of HF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where are seat belt pretensioner pyrotechnic devices usually located?

A

Near the bottom of the B-Post at the base of the seat belt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the suggested minimum safety zone distances for airbags?

A

Side impact & knee bolsters- 5”
Driver frontal airbags- 10”
Impact curtains that deploy down from the headliner- 12”- 18”
Passenger frontal airbags- 20”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

___________________ electricity can cause airbag systems to deploy without an electrical source.

A

Static

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Agency within the U.S.D.O.T. that publishes annual summary reports of fatal highway accidents.

A

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which airbag system uses 2 airbags. One is the normal size. The other is smaller & located inside the larger bag.

A

Dual-state System.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Front impact airbags deploy in ___________ seconds at speeds in excess of ________________.

A

0.5 seconds

200 MPH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

From impact airbags deploy with an inflating force of over ___________________.

A

3,000 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Side impact airbags deploy in ________________ seconds.

A

0.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The sound of airbag deployment is in the range of _______________ decibels.

A

165-175

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Amount of time needed for reserve powers to drain from a vehicle (airbag/ electrical system application).

A

1 second to 30 minutes.

Note- The current average time is less than 5 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Passenger frontal inflators containing sodium azide reach temperatures in excess of ___________________.

A

1,200 F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In the chemical reaction that deploys an airbag, the sodium azide converts to sodium __________________, a highly alkaline powder that becomes ordinary lye when wet.

A

Hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Color of wires, tags, tape, or insulation often used to identify airbags.

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Head protection systems. (HPS) typically use compressed gas inflators. Inert gases such as argon or helium are used as a propellant & stored in steel or aluminum cylinders at pressures of _____________________ PSI.

A

2,500-4,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Rollover Protection Systems (RPS). Pop up style roll systems typically activate under the following circumstances.

A

Vehicle exceeds

23 degrees from horizontal 
Lateral angle limit of 62 degrees
Longitudinal angle of 72 degrees
3G acceleration force
Weightless for at least 80 milliseconds.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Air ride systems may try to ____________ during extrication if the power is not interrupted by isolating the battery.

A

Auto-level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Approach vehicles from a __________ degree angle.

A

45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If both struts attached to a bumper explode simultaneously, they can launch the bumper and / or struts ____________ or more from the vehicle.

A

100’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Gas that under the charging pressure is partially liquid at ________ degrees Fahrenheit.

A

Liquified Compressed Gas (LPG).

Also known as Liquified Gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If naturalness cylinders or propane cylinders are on fire, do not extinguish them until__________________________________.

A

Containers are cooled & valves & fuel sources can be turned off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Electrically conductive clear liquids that have a slight gasoline odor. (Ethanol or methanol) burns bright blue & produces little smoke. Water soluble & do not react to standard firefighting methods. Use AR-AFFF to extinguish.

A

Alcohol/ Gasoline Blended Fuels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Natural gas that is stored in a vessel at pressures of _______________ PSI.

A

2,400-3,600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Use ________________ to extinguish a CNG fire.

A

Water or foam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Control a LNG fire by using ______________________ on the surface of the fire.

A

Purple K Dry Chemical agent or high expansion foam.

Note- It is not recommended to use water directly on to a LNG fire. When water is applied, it warms the liquid, increasing the amount of vapor production, therefore increasing the intensity of the fire. Unless lives or exposures are threatened, allow the fire to burn off all the fuel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Third most common vehicle fuel type after gasoline & diesel.

A

Propane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

LPG contains about _________ % propane with small concentrations of ethane, butane, propylene, & other gases.

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Propane fuel fires may none allowed to self extinguish, but if extinguishment is necessary, use __________________ . Direct streams at the top of the tank to provide adequate cooling.

A

Foam & water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Describe hydrogen.

A

Colorless, odorless, non-toxic, & energy efficient.
Self ignition temperature- 550 F
Flammability range - 4-75%.
Flames may be invisible during the day.
Do not extinguish hydrogen fires. Protect exposures & allow it to burn itself off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Describe Bio-Diesel fuels.

A

Yellow liquid with odor of cooking oil.
Non- toxic, biodegradable, sulfur free.
Slightly lighter than water?
Can be used in any vehicle designed to use diesel.
Combustion produces carbon monoxide & carbon dioxide along with thick smoke.
Use dry- chemical, foam, carbon dioxide, or water spray (fog) to extinguish.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hybrid electric & and electric vehicle fires are fought much the same as _____________________ vehicle fires.

A

Conventionally fueled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Recommended extinguishing agents for specific battery types.

A

Lead-acid= Carbon dioxide, foam, or dry chemical
Nickel metal hydride= Class D extinguisher (Metal-X or similar)
Lithium-ion= Dry sand, sodium, chloride powder, graphite powder, or copper powder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the size of a DOT HazMat placard.

A

10.8” squared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

DOT HazMat placards have a _______ digit identification number.

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

DOT HazMat placard colors.

A 
Explosives- Orange
Oxidizer/ Reactive- Yellow
Flammable- Red
Health Hazard (Poison, Corrosive)- White
Water Reactive- Blue
Nonflammable Gas- Green
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

On larger, more complex incidents, the IC should appoint an ____________________ to coordinate the operations of the various functional groups.

A

Operations Section Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Forms associated with the elements are as follows. What is the use for each form?

A

Tactical Worksheet- May be created on scene. AHJ may develop its own form.
ICS 201 Form- Incident briefing
ICS 202 Form- Incident objectives
ICS 203 Form- Organization
ICS 204 Form- Assignments
Support Materials- Site plans, access or traffic plans, locations of support activities.
ICS 208 Form or ICS 208H Form- Safety message
ICS 215A Form- Incident safety analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

To restore normal traffic flow, personnel should remove______________________, all traffic control components.

A

In reverse order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

_________________ rescue vehicles can be built on a 1-ton or 1 1/2 ton chassis. This vehicle resembles a multiple compartment utility truck.

A

Light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The 2 primary types of rescue vehicle chassis.

A

Commercial

Custom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The most common power source on emergency vehicles.

A

Generators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Apparatus engines- also known as power plants generally have 110 & 220 volt capabilities with capacities up to _________ kilowatts & greater.

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Farm tractors are designed to operate the PTO shaft at either _____________________ revolutions per minute.

A

540 or 1,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Apparatus scene light banks have capacities ranging from _______________ watts.

A

500-1,500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The winch is rated at its capacity when ___________________________________.

A

The first layer of cable is still on the drum.

Note- Winch & cable strength are strongest on the 1st wrap around the drum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Winch danger zone.

A

Circle around the winch with a radius equal to the length of the cable or chain from the winch to the load.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Some A-Frames & Gin Poles have lifting capabilities in excess of ________ tons.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Gin poles & A- Frames are not designed to withstand ____________________ stress.

A

Lateral (sideways)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When gin poles or A-frames are used, do not exceed the rated weight the ________________________ is designed to carry.

A

Apparatus chassis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Some cranes have lifting capabilities of up to _________ tons or more.

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Hydraulic cranes attached to heavy rescue units have 3 disadvantages.

A

Initial cost of the crane
Additional maintenance required
Loss of space for other tools because of the crane’s size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Two types of stabilizer systems. (For rescue apparatus.)

A 
Hydraulic 
Manual (Resembles a screw type jack & are set by hand.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

There should be a minimum of ___________ of overlap on all 4 corners of the box crib.

A

4”

84
Q

Maximum height of box cribs per the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers.

A

Maximum height is 3 times the shortest width.
A 4X4 system’s maximum height is 4’.
A 6X6 system’s maximum height is 6’.

85
Q

_______________ are used singularly to take up space between cribbing & the object being supported.

A

Shims

86
Q

The best chain for rescue work is Grade ________.

A

Also known as Grade 8 or Grade T

87
Q

The minimum chain size generally used for extrication is ____________.

A

3/8”

88
Q

5 material categories for power rescue tools based on the type of material. (Based on NFPA 1936, Standard on Powered Rescue Tools.)

A

A, B, C, D, & E

Note- These categories are coupled with a numerical performance level rating of 1-9 which indicates the size of the material.

89
Q

The largest hydraulic rams can extend from a closed length of 36” to an extended length of over ___________.

A

60”.

Note- With extensions these rams can extend up to 75”. The closing force is about one-half of the opening force.
Telescoping rams will extend to more than 60” from 12”. Telescoping rams cannot be used for pulling. Telescoping rams are available in 2& 3 stage rams. After the 1st stage, the pushing force decreases by half for each additional stage.

90
Q

Hydraulic jacks are available in capacities up to ____________ or larger.

A

20 tons

91
Q

This auto body shop tool operates by transmitting hydraulic pressure from a hand-operated pump through a hose to a tool assembly.

A

Porta-Power System

92
Q

Most pneumatic-powered chisels ( also called air chisels, air hammers, or impact hammers) are designed to operate at air pressures between ______________ PSI.

A

90-150

Note- Others operate at 300 PSI. The Streeper brand air chisels carried by JFRD operate at 300 PSI.

93
Q

A pneumatic whizzer saw weights about ________ pounds. Or 1/10 the weight of a circular saw.

A

2

94
Q

Pneumatic whizzer saw specs.

A

Weight- About 2 Lbs.
RPM- 20,000
Blade- 3” carborundum. Cuts case-hardened locks & steel up to 3/4”.
Tool has a blade guard to protect the operator & victims from flying debris.
Much quieter than other power saws.

95
Q

Avoid exposing pneumatic bags & cushions to materials hotter than ________ degrees F.

A

220

96
Q

Pneumatic air bags inflation pressures.

A

High-pressure: 116-150 PSI
Medium Pressure: 12-15 PSI
Low Pressure: 7-10 PSI

97
Q

High pressure air bag specs.

A

Constructed of neoprene or butyl rubber reinforced with either steel wire or Kevlar aramid fiber.
Have a rough, pebble grained surface to improve grip.
Come in various sizes ranging from 6X6”- 36X36”.
Before inflation, bags lie flat & are about 1/2”-1” thick.
Range of inflation: 116-150 PSI.
Largest air bags may inflate to a height of 20”.
Largest air bags can lift approximately 90 tons.
Maximum lift capacity is generally rated at 1”.
Formula used to determine lift capacity. Length X Width X Operating Pressure(PSI) = Lifting Capacity

98
Q

Depending on the manufacturer, low & medium air pressure lifting cushions may be able to lift objects upwards of _________.

A

6’

99
Q

A 3-to-1 mechanical advantage system can be used to deploy resources & equipment down a slight grade of ______________degrees.

A

15-40

100
Q

Griphoist TU-32 specs.

A

Rating for material handling- 8,000 Lbs
Rating for personnel hoisting- 6,000 Lbs
Capacity can be increased by 2,3, or 4 times with the use of a sheave block.
Wire rope- 5/8” has a minimum breaking strength of 40,000 Lbs. (material) & 3,000 Lbs. (personnel.)

101
Q

Tu-28 Griphoist specs.

A

Wire rope- 7/16” has a minimum breaking strength of 20,000 Lbs.

102
Q

Avoid exposing cylinders to excessive heat. An ambient air temperature exceeding __________degrees F is undesirable for storing or using acetylene cylinders.

A

130

103
Q

When an acetylene cylinder is considered empty of acetylene, it still contains.

A

Acetone

104
Q

Perform a _________ to detect leaks after making regulator, torch, hose, & cylinder connections.

A

Soap test

Note- Apply a solution of soap & water on fittings.

105
Q

Flammable range of acetylene.

A

2.5-81%

106
Q

Do not use acetylene at pressures greater than __________.

A

15 PSI

Note- Acetylene decomposes rapidly at high pressure & may explode as decomposition occurs.

107
Q

Acetylene. Do not exceed a withdrawal rate of ___________ of the cylinder capacity per hour.

A

One-seventh

108
Q

Exothermic cutting device- also known as burning bars.

Specs

A

Can cut through virtually any metal or composite material
Can cut through materials such as concrete or brick that cannot be cut with an oxyacetylene torch.
Can produce temperatures in excess of 8,000 degrees F.
Cutting bars range in size from 1/4”- 3/4” in diameter & 22”-36” in length.

109
Q

Arcair (Exothermic cutting device) specs.

A

Uses a hollow magnesium rod fitted into a handle that allows oxygen to flow through the rod.
Rod is ignited by an electric striker & burns as oxygen is increased.
Produces temperatures from 6,000-10,000 degrees F.
Rod last 15-30 seconds.

110
Q

Cutting flare specs

A

Flame temperature- 6,800 degrees F
Lasts 15 seconds- 2 minutes depending on the length & diameter of the flare.
Advantages include the absence of hose or power cord. Lightweight & portable.

111
Q

Plasma arc cutters are ultra high temperature metal-cutting devices generating temperatures of up to _____________ degrees F.

A

50,000

112
Q

Plasma arc cutters use up to __________ amperes of electrical power.

A

200

113
Q

Oxyacetylene torches specs.

A

Temp for preheating metal: 4,200 degrees F.
When pure oxygen is added, a temp of over 5,700 degrees F is created.
Cuts through iron and steel with relative ease.

114
Q

(Acetylene) cylinders contain a porous filler of _________________ which prevents accumulation of free acetylene within the cylinder.

A

Calcium silicate

Note- They also contain liquid acetone in which the acetylene is dissolved & stored in liquid form.

115
Q

Oxygasoline cutting torches produce a cutting flame in the range of __________ degrees F.

A

2,800

116
Q

According to the concept of the ______________, a person should be treated, packaged, transported, & delivered to a surgeon in under an hour.

A

Golden Hour

117
Q

The Golden Hour begins at the moment of _____________________.

A

Impact or crisis

118
Q

The ___________________ is the maximum on-scene time goal that EMS units strive for when caring for patients.

A

Platinum 10 minutes

119
Q

Basic types of collisions.

A 
Head-on Impact
Side Impact
Rear Impact
Rotational Impact
Rollover
120
Q

Passengers that travel up & over the dashboard will sustain injuries to their ________________.

A

Chest & abdomen

121
Q

First 7 bones of the vertebral column, located in the neck.

A

Cervical spine.

122
Q

What kind of brain injury occurs at the point of impact & the opposite side of the brain.

A

Coup contrecoup brain injury

123
Q

Vacuum mattresses are most often filled with ______________beads.

A

Polystyrene

124
Q

Maximum weight at which a vehicle can be safely operated on roadways. Includes the weight of the vehicle plus fuel, passengers, cargo, & trailer tongue weight.

A

Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR)

125
Q

Distance between the front & rear axles.

A

Wheelbase

126
Q

What does UATV stand for?

A

Utility all terrain vehicle

127
Q

Types of passenger cars.

A 
Minicompact
Subcompact 
Compact 
Midsize
Large (Full Size)
Specialized passenger vehicles
128
Q

Minicompact (Station Cars) specs.

A

Length- (generally) less than 10’
Interior volume- less than 85 cubic feet
Wheelbase- less than 86”
Wheels- 3 or 4

129
Q

Subcompact Car specs

A

Wheelbase- less than 100”
Typically have unibody construction
May have 3rd door of hatchback

130
Q

Compact Car specs

A

Wheelbase- 100”-104”
May have 4 doors or be a station wagon configuration.
Usually have unibody construction.

131
Q

Midsize Car specs

A

Wheelbase- 105”-109”
Includes midsize station wagons
May have 3-5 doors.
May or may not have rigid frame

132
Q

Large Cars specs

A

Wheelbase- 110”-114”
Includes luxury automobiles
May be rigid, space frame, or unibody construction.
Heavy construction can make extrication more difficult.

133
Q

Conversions of popular older vehicles into 2-sear open vehicles that offer limited protection from weather & collisions because they lack a roof, rear & side windows. & passenger protection systems.

A

Roadsters

134
Q

Minivans have a GVWR or less than ____________.

A

8,500 Lbs

135
Q

From an extrication standpoint, every vehicle has _______ sides.

A

8

136
Q

Body area (on a car) that surrounds the area of the rear tire.

A

Quarter panel.

Note- The word fenders is used in relation to the front tires.

137
Q

Vertical pane walls in front of the A-post that are enclosed by structural members.

A

Kick panel

138
Q

Rounded narrow body panels on each side of a vehicle below the doors & between the kick panel & quarter panel.

A

Rocker channel

139
Q

Three basic frames used in modern vehicle construction.

A

Full (or rigid)
Unibody
Space frames.

140
Q

Construction technique in which an object’s external skin supports the structural load of the object.

A

Monocoque

141
Q

Today, __________________ construction is the dominant automobile construction technique.

A

Spot- welded unibody

142
Q

Aluminum skeletons similar to aircraft frames upon which the aluminum, plastic, or composite skin of the vehicle’s body is attached.

A

Space frame

Note- May weigh 50% less than conventional steel or aluminum unibody frames.

143
Q

Laminated safety glass windshields were introduced in __________.

A

1927

144
Q

Current car models that use Enhanced Protection Glass (EPG).

A

Audi
Volvo
Mercedes

145
Q

Magnesium is highly reactive to water. If a magnesium component is burning, use a ____________ extinguisher.

A

Class D

Note- If Class D is not available, a large volume of water may minimize the magnesium/water reaction.

146
Q

Two most common fuels in automotive vehicles.

A

Gasoline & diesel

Both are hydrocarbon fuels.

147
Q

Hybrid electric vehicles (HEVs) used _________________ to collect kinetic energy.

A

Regenerative braking.

148
Q

The cables in HEVs can carry as much as_____________ volts of direct current.

A

650

149
Q

Color code for auto wiring.

A

Orange- high voltage
Blue- medium voltage
Any color- low voltage

150
Q

Plug- In Electric Hybrid vehicles can run on electricity ONLY for up to _______ miles. (When fully charged.)

A

40

151
Q

An electric vehicle’s battery system 400 volt lithium battery pack that weights approximately ____________.

A

650 Lbs

152
Q

E-85 gasoline is less efficient in vehicles manufactured in and prior to _________. 2002

A
153
Q

Biodiesel is classified as a nonflammable liquid with a flash point of _________ degrees F.

A

320

154
Q

Automobile batteries used in ignition systems are generally of the ___________ type.

A

Lead-acid

155
Q

The typical forward looking collision avoidance system scans a distance of ________ or more forward of the vehicle.

A

300’

156
Q

Side sensing collision avoidance systems (sometimes called active blind-spot assistance) sense objects from __________ from the side of the vehicle in the blind spot area.

A

6.5’-30’

157
Q

Rear looking collision avoidance systems sense distances _________ or less.

A

20’

158
Q

Chemical inflators (air bags) use sodium azide enhanced with potassium nitrate to create _____________ gas, which inflates the airbag.

A

Nitrogen

159
Q

Airbags can deploy at speeds up to ____________.

A

200 MPH

160
Q

Children under the age of _________ should not ride in the front seat of vehicles with an armed passenger frontal airbag.

A

12

161
Q

Tensile strength of High Strength- Low Alloy Steel. (HSLA)

A

40,000-70,000 PSI

162
Q

Tensile strength of Micro- Alloy Steel (MA)

A

110,000-215,000 PSI

163
Q

Tensile strength of UHSS (steel)

A

Up to 442,000 PSI

164
Q

Roll cages must be able to withstand _______ times the weight of the vehicle.

A

2.5

165
Q

Synthetic slings made of Nylon or Polyester are unable to resist temperatures greater than __________ degrees F.

A

200

166
Q

Inspect synthetic slings every _________ days or after each incident.

A

30

167
Q

Ropes or cables used with lifting or pulling devices such as block & tackle.

A

Rigging

168
Q

Rated capacities vary, but common ratings for portable/ pinned winches range up to ___________ lbs & ___________ lbs for stationary/mounted versions.

A

9,000
12,000

Note- Length of throes may range up to 100’.

169
Q

Ratchet load binder ratchet action ratio & take-up.

A

Ratchet action- 50:1

Take-up- 8”

170
Q

Chain hoist specs

A

Can lift up to 6 tons with 100 lbs of force.
Must not overpull by using more than 1 person.
Tighteners have large take-up (up to 10’)
Some only require a 12” clearance.

171
Q

Turnbuckle take-up varies from ______________.

A

8”-24”

172
Q

The hook end of turnbuckles are only ____________ as strong as the eye or jaw ends.

A

2/3

173
Q

(Stabilization) Most wheel testing vehicles may require ____________ points of contact.

A

4-6

174
Q

The _________________ is considered to be the safest form of stabilization in a side-resting situation.

A

Same-side opposing force.

175
Q

Any trailer (commercial vehicle) built after _________ is required to have reflective tape on its side.

A

1993

176
Q

Any trailer that is built after ___________ is required to have a rear underride guard that is ________ above the ground or lower.

A

1996

22”

177
Q

In 2-door passenger vehicles, even opening or removing doors may still not provide sufficient room for safe & effective extrication operations. These situations may require a _________________.

A

3rd door conversion.

178
Q

3rd door conversions involve cutting & spreading tools to flap back the side-panel between ___________________. This creates an unobstructed opening from the A-post back to the rear fender well.

A

The B-post & the rear fender well.

Note- This technique creates a wider opening in 2-door vehicles.

179
Q

Rescuers will typically extricate victims using 4 basic methods.

A

Manipulative extrication
Disassembly
Cutting
Forcing

180
Q

The removal of both doors & the B-post along 1 side of a vehicle.

A

Total sidewall removal or side out

181
Q

Technique used to create another door in a panel or work van.

A

4th door conversion.

182
Q

If a vehicle door contains an airbag, rescuers will expose a _________________ between the door & the A-post when they remove the door.

A

Cable (possibly yellow)

Note- If rescuers must cut the wires from the door to the A-post, it should be after the battery has been disconnected & power has dissipated. Wires should be separated & cut 1 at a time. Cutting the yellow wire may deploy the supplement restraint system. (SRS)

183
Q

The windshields, A-posts, & the forward edge of the roof on modern cars compose the structural integrity of the vehicle body. Rescuers should cut the roof just behind the __________.

A

A-posts

184
Q

Rescuers may need to add ____________ under the roof flap, between the flap & the ground, to create a stable & secure platform & to reduce movement caused by a void space.

A

Cribbing

185
Q

Medium truck specs.

A

Weight: 13,000-33,000 lbs

Commonly used for local delivery trucks, garbage trucks, fire apparatus, & tow trucks.

186
Q

Heavy truck specs.

A

Weight: more than 33,000 Lbs

May include 2 or more axles

187
Q

Straight truck specs.

A 
Built on rigid frame. 
Not intended to pull a trailer.
2-3 axles on 1 frame.
GVWR: 10,000- 40,000 lbs
Large, boxy bodies
May be used as local delivery vans
May be flatbeds or box bodies

Note- Dump trucks are considered straight boxes.

188
Q

Trucks $ Semitrailer Combination specs.

A

May weigh up to 140,000 Lbs
Tractor may be 2-3 axles & weigh up to 18,000 Lbs
May carry up to 440 of hazardous material.
May be as long as 175’.

189
Q

In the mid 1950s, ______________ produced its cab-beside engine design. Also known as the bullnose or half cab.

A

Kenworth

190
Q

Sleeper(cabs) that are separate units must have ______________ between the sleeper and the cab.

A

An intercom

Note- The access door to the sleeper may be on either side of the unit.

191
Q

An auxiliary structure or the external surface either attached to, or a part of the roof of a large truck that serves to reduce drag.

A

Fairing

192
Q

What is the difference between a trailer & a semi trailer.

A

Semi trailers only have rear wheels.

193
Q

On many semi-trailers, the hand crank has 2 speeds. Explain.

A

The crank should be pushed in for slower raising or lowering.

The crank should be pulled out for faster raising or lowering.

194
Q

Most box trailers have an inside vertical clearance of______________.

A

110”

195
Q

Vehicle extrication. It may be possible to calm an animal by ____________________.

A

Blindfolding and/or restricting it’s hearing.

Note- sometimes it may be better to free the animal or call a vet to tranquilize them.

196
Q

Tanker trailers capacity range.

A

200-14,000 gallons.

197
Q

Per the DOT, what is the GVWR limit for dump trailers?

A

80,000 lbs

198
Q

Car haulers may carry as many as ______vehicles.

A

8

199
Q

Enclosed car carriers may be more than _________ in length.

A

50’

200
Q

Dry bulk trailers are easily recognized by their ________________.

A

V-shaped bottoms

201
Q

Medium & heavy truck battery specs.

A

12 or 24 volt electrical system
Supplied by 1 or more banks of batteries
Banks may be in more than 1 location
24 volt systems normally have four 6 volt batteries in series with a negative ground.

202
Q

What is the flashpoint for diesel fuel?

A

126-204 degrees F

203
Q

Exhaust system components may easily exceed ______________ degrees F.

A

1,200

204
Q

Diesel fuel tanks are usually large external saddle tanks that may vary in size from ____________ each.

A

50-300 gallons

205
Q

PTO shafts can rotate more than __________times per minute.

A

1,000

206
Q

Auxiliary power system for medium & heavy trucks normally provide ___________volts.

A

110-120

207
Q

School buses are designed to carry ________ or more passengers.

A

10

JFRD Engineer's Exam (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions