Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

JFRD Engineer's Exam > Building Construction pages 1-140 > Flashcards

Building Construction pages 1-140 Flashcards

1
Q

According to the Building Construction manual, the life span of a building may be more than __________.

A

100 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Truss construction buildings have been known to fail in as little as ___________ minutes.

A

5-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The use of a single organization to design & build a facility to minimize risks for the project owner. May also refer to a design-build team.

A

Design Build

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

During the CONCEPT phase (construction), the variables maybe discussed in terms of ______________.

A

Design principles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Guidelines applied to basic units of a project that cause the items to work together as a unified, completely finished item that serves a purpose within established parameters. Units can include the materials, concepts, & setting.

A

Design principles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who said “Buildings are machines for living?”.

A

Frank LLoyd Wright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which Chicago architect had the following philosophy: “ Form follows function?”

A

Louis A Sullivan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A set of rules developed by a standards organization & adopted by a governmental boy to regulate the minimum requirements for construction, renovation, & maintenance of buildings.

A

Building Code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The final consideration in the building design process is _____________.

A

Landscaping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Authorization issued from the appropriate authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) before any new construction, addition, renovation, or demolition of buildings or structures occurs.

A

Building Permit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Group of people , usually 5-7, with experience in fire prevention , building construction, and/or code enforcement, who are legally constituted to arbitrate differences of opinion between fire & building officials, property owners, occupants, or builders.

A

Board of Appeals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Strategy to reduce the overall time for completion of a project merging the design & construction phases. Often used in conjunction with design-build.

A

Fast-Track Construction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Assessment of a facility or location made before an emergency occurs, in order to prepare for an appropriate emergency response. Also known as Preplan.

A

Pre-Incident Survey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Act of preparing to manage an incident at a particular location or a particular type of incident before an incident occurs. Also known as Pre-fire Inspection, Pre-fire Planning, Pre-incident Survey, or Preplanning.

A

Pre-Incident Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The fire inspector witnesses system tests. The actual system tests are performed by __________________.

A

The installing contractor’s representatives.

Note- This practice helps minimize fire service liability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Determines the extent of work in relation to the building as a whole, which may ranger from repairs, to renovations, to change of occupancy, & building additions.

A

International Existing Building Code (IEBC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The International Building Code is the successor to 3 earlier model codes which are as follows:

A

The Uniform Building Code (UMC) - Published by International Conference of Building Officials.
The Standard Building Code- Published by Southern Building Code Congress International.
The Building Officials & Code Administrators National Building Code- Published by the Building Officials & Code Administrators International.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The most widely used model building code in the United States.

A

International Building Code - Published by the International Code Council. (ICC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The International Building Code has a companion fire code:

A

The International Fire Code.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

NFPA Building Codes

A

NFPA 1 - Uniform Fire Code
NFPA- 5000- Building Construction & Safety Code
NFPA 101 - Life Safety Code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maintains a national map that indicates location & frequency of fire fatalities.

A

United States Fire Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Annunciator panels should be easily viewed near ___________ to help company officers know the type & location of the alarm.

A

Entrances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 5 types of construction types classified by the International Building Code?

A

Type 1- Fire Resistive
Type 2- Protected Noncombustible or Noncombustible
Type 3- Exterior Protected (Masonry or Ordinary)
Type 4- Heavy Timber
Type 5 - Wood Frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The total quantity of combustible contents of a building, space, or fire area, including interior finish and trim, expressed in heat units or the equivalent weight in wood.

A

Fuel Load.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Total amount of heat produced or released to the atmosphere from the convective-lift phase of a fire, per unit mass of fuel consumed per unit time. Heat released when a material burns expressed in kilowatts or British Thermal Units (BTUs).

A

Heat release rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was enacted in ________.

A

1990

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In cases where building codes allow ADA-inaccessible structural features such as stairs, alternate protection must be made available such as an ____________ .

A

Area of Refuge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Distance from the street line to the front of a building.

A

Setback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The process whereby older neighborhoods are extensively rehabilitated to satisfy the desires of a modern real estate market.

A

Gentrification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Efforts to increase the energy efficiency of structures and their component materials.

A

Green Design

Note- As the need for heating fuels is decreased, greenhouse gas emissions are lowered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Building built before securing a tenant or occupant.

A

Spec Buildings

Note- Spec is short for speculation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Large uncontrollable fire covering a considerable area & crossing fire barriers such as streets & waterways. Usually involves buildings in more than one block and causes a substantial fire loss. Example- forest fire.

A

Conflagration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The movement of fire from one material (source) to another (exposure). May occur within a compartment or across a break.

A

Fire Spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Early fire regulations in colonial Boston prohibited ______________ to prevent the spread of fire.

A

Thatched roofs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Transfer of heat by the movement of of heated gases, usually in an upward direction.

A

Convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Flor of heat from a hot substance to a cold substance. May be accomplished by convection, conduction, or radiation.

A

Heat transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Transmission or transfer of heat energy, from one body to another body, through intervening space by electromagnetic waves similar to radio waves or X-rays.

A

Thermal radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Structures or separate parts of the fire ground to which a fire could spread. The heat effect from an external fire that might cause ignition or damage to an exposed building.

A

Exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Line, area, or zone where an undeveloped wildland area meets a human development area.

A

Wildland/Urban Interface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

_________________ materials possess the ability to maintain their structural integrity under fire conditions ( although not necessarily under other types of conditions.)

A

Fire-resistive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A chemical process of oxidation that occurs at a rate fast enough to produce heat and usually light in the form of either a glow or a flame.

A

Combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Computer software application that relates physical features on the earth to a database to be used for mapping and analysis. The system captures. stores, analyzes, manages, and presents data that refers to or is linked to a location.

A

Geographic Information Systems (GIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the only 3 primary strategies in a fire incident?

A

Offensive
Defensive
Transitional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Offensive strategies address:

A

Life hazards
Structural stability
Risk (Benefits outweigh risks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Defensive Strategies address:

A

Volume of fire
Structural deterioration
Risk (Risk outweighs benefit)
Structural conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

NFPA 220 Standard on Types of Building Construction uses a 3 digit code to designate building classifications. Explain each digit.

A

1st Digit- Fire resistance rating (in hours) of exterior bearing walls.
2nd Digit- Fire resistance rating of structural frames or columns & girders that support loads of more than 1 floor.
3rd Digit- Fire resistance rating of the floor construction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Any substance, except plain water, that when applied to another material or substance will reduce the flammability of fuels or slow their rate of combustion by chemical or fuel action.

A

Fire Retardant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Some building codes contain a provision to omit the fire-resistive rating for a roof construction for some occupancy types when the roof is located_________ above the floor.

Note- This can cause a Type 2 building to be classified & inspected as a Type 1 (Fire-Resistive building) which can be significant in the event of a fire.

A

More than 20’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Type 2A fires require that structural components have __________ fire resistance.

A

1 Hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Type 2B (unprotected) construction allows structural components to remain ______________.

A

Unprotected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In unprotected noncombustible construction, the major structural components have no _____________.

A

Fire resisitance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Type 3 Construction is commonly known as_______________.

A

Ordinary construction.

Note-Frequently constructed with exterior walls of masonry, but from a technical standpoint, any noncombustible material with the required fire resistance can be used for the exterior walls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Type 3 Construction- Interior structural components that are permitted to be partially or wholly combustible include.

A 
Walls
Columns
Beams
Floors
Roofs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Type 3 Construction has 2 sub-classifications allowing the interior structural components to be ____________________.

A

Protected or unprotected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Type 3 Construction commonly uses nominal ____________ joists for floor construction.

A

2X10”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Solid materials such as wood blocks, used to prevent or limit the vertical or horizontal spread of fire & the products of combustion installed in hollow walls or floors, above false ceilings, in penetrations for plumbing, or electrical installations, in penetrations of a fire-rated assembly, or in cocklofts & crawl spaces.

A

Fire Stop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Explain the difference between Type 3 Construction & Type 4 (Heavy Timber or Mill) Construction.

A

In Type 4 construction, the beams, columns, floors, & roofs are made of solid or laminated wood with dimensions greater than Type 3 construction.
Concealed spaces are not permitted between structural components in Type 4 Construction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Type 4 Construction is the only type that does not include ___________________.

A

A & B subdivisions.

Note- Instead, the 2HH is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Type 4 Construction requires minimum nominal dimensions of _____________ for floor construction which is thicker than needed in Types 3 & 5 Construction.

A

6X10”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Modern heavy-timber wood frame construction is primarily used for __________ purposes.

A

Aesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The fundamental problem with Type V construction is the presence of extensive ______________.

A

Concealed voids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

___________________occurs where a new structure is built onto an existing structure of a different construction type.

A

Mixed construction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Building construction & _____________ classifications are used together in building codes to establish limitations on the permissible heights & open areas of buildings.

A

Occupancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The International Building Code contains _________ major occupancy classifications.

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How many sub-groups does the International Building Code contain under the 10 major occupancy classifications?

A

26

Note- The IBC also separately addresses 1 & 2 story family dwellings not more than 3 stories high. Although these buildings are classified as “R” in the IBC, they are governed by a separate code- the International Residential Code. (IRC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In contrast to the IBC, NFPA 5000, Building Construction & Life Safety Code has____________ major occupancy classifications.

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The specific requirements for occupancy separation will depend on the __________ building code.

A

Local

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Required separations for mixed occupancies can range from ___________ hours & not all occupancies will require a separation.

A

1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A building code may permit a reduction in the required occupancy separation if the building is _____________.

A

Sprinklered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The total quantity of combustible material in a compartment.

A

Fuel load.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The fuel load contributes to the _____________, the maximum amount of heat that can be released if all fuel is consumed.

A

Fire load.

This is expressed in pounds per square foot & obtained by dividing the amount of fuel present by the floor area. Used as a measure of the potential heat release of a fire within a compartment. The fire load is the product of the of the weight of the combustibles, expressed in pounds per square foot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Total amount of thermal energy (heat) that could be generated by the combustion (oxidation) reaction of if a fuel were completely burned, The heat of combustion is measured in British Thermal Units (BTUs) per pound. kilojoules per gram, or Megajoules per kilogram.

A

Heat of combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A material that in the form which used and under the conditions anticipated, will not ignite, burn, support combustion, or release flammable vapors, when subjected to fire or heat.

A

Noncombustible material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The most commonly used test for determining commonly used test for determining combustibility is the ___________________.

A

ASTM E-136 Standard Test Method for Behavior of Materials in a Vertical Tube Furnace at 750 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The faster the available fuel burns, the greater will be the ___________ rate.

A

Heat release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Fire ______________ indicates the ability of a structural assembly to maintain it’s lad bearing capacity & structural integrity under fire conditions.

A

Resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

_______________construction is not prone to structural failure under fire conditions.

A

Fire resistive

Note- in the case of of walls, partitions, & ceilings, fire resistivity also means the ability to act as a barrier to fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Fire doors & windows will have a fire resistance rating specific to their ___________ & location.

A

Function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The most common method used to determine fire resistance.

A

Laboratory testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The standard test for determining fire resistance.

A

ASTM-E 119 -also known as NFPA 251 Standard Method of Tests of Fire Endurance of Building Construction & Materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where & when were the earliest known fire tests conducted?

A

In Germany in 1884-1886.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Where were the first known fire tests in the United States conducted?

A

In Denver Colorado in 1890. Subsequent tests were conducted in New York City in 1896.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Normally, assemblies are not tested beyond __________ because this is the maximum time that building codes require.

A

4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the primary points of failure for fire resistance tests?

A

Failure to support an applied load.
Temperature increase on the unexposed side of wall, floor, & roof assemblies of 250 degrees F (121 C) above ambient temperatures.
Passage of heat or flame through the assembly sufficient to ignite cotton waste.
Excess temperature on steel members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The failure point of steel will depend on the _____________ of the component.

A

Application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The only test universally accepted in fire codes is the __________test.

A

E-119

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Joint systems for floor-to-wall & wall-to-wall connections are tested in accordance with __________________.

A

UL Standard 2079, Standard for Fire Tests of Joint Systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

In 1997, the American Society of Engineers (ASCE) and the Society of Fire Protection Engineers (SFPE) jointly developed a standard for the calculation of fire resistance of structural elements. That standard known as the ASCE/SFPE, Standard Calculation Methods for Structural Fire Protection, provides the methods for calculating fire resistance ratings that are _____________ to the results obtained from standard fire tests.

A

Equivalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The ASCE/SFPE 29 Test is limited to use with the following materials.

A 
Structural steel
Plain & reinforced concrete
Timber & wood
Concrete & masonry
Clay masonry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The most prevalent steel used in compiling test data.

A

A-7 & A-36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

In physics: any interaction that may change the motion of an object. Simple measure of weight, usually expressed in pounds (kilograms).

A

Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The direction of forces from loads acting on the interior of structural members.

A

Stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The forces within a structural support system that resist applied loads.

A

Reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

This exists when a structural support system can support a load equal to or greater than the applied loads.

A

Equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Any effect that a structure must be designed to resist, including the forces of gravity, wind, earthquake, or soil pressure.

A

Load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Factors that work against the strength of any piece of apparatus, equipment, or structural support. Measurement of force intensity is calculated as force divided by area.

A

Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Condition of balance that exists when a structural system is capable of supporting the applied load.

A

Equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A reaction within a structural component that opposes a vertical load. When the bending moment is exceeded, the component will fail. Bending stress can be calculated from the bending moment.

A

Bending moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The _________________ is the most common load imposed on a structure via the weight of the structure’s components, contents, & any occupancy activity.

A

Force of gravity

Note- Gravity related factors significantly influence structural plans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Force acting to draw an object toward the earth’s center; force is equal to the object’s weight.

A

Gravity (G)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Horizontal movement of air relative to the surface of the earth.

A

Wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Model building codes define a high-rise building as being more than _________.

A

75’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Once a lost/trapped firefighter has been found, what is the most important action to be taken?

A

Maintaining his air supply.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Transfer of heat by the movement of heated fluids or gases, usually in an upward direction.

A

Convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Materials that possess the ability to maintain structural integrity under fire conditions.

A

Fire resistive materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

3 primary strategies in a fire incident.

A

Offensive- Life hazards, structural stability, risk (benefit outweighs risk),
Defensive- Volume of fire, structural deterioration, risk (risk outweighs benefit), structural conditions
Transitional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

In NFPA 220, each classification is designated by a _______digit number.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Type I construction can either be ________________(3-digit classification code.)

A

4-4-3 or 3-3-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Explain the 3-digit codes used in building types.

A

1st digit- Fire resistance rating (in hours) of exterior walls.
2nd digit- Fire resistance of structural frames or columns & girders that support loads of more than 1 floor.
3rd digit- Fire resistance rating of the floor construction.

Note- Think of the numbers in reverse order of the way buildings are constructed.

Floor-3
Structural frame-2
Walls-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Fire- resistance ratings are allowed to be reduced by 1 hour where supporting a ___________ only.

A

Roof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

In all occupancies, _________________shall be allowed where there is a 1-hour or less fire-resistance rating.

A

Heavy timber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

_____________________ shall be allowed to be substituted for a 1-hour fire-resistance rated construction, provided such system is not otherwise required by other provisions of the code or used for an allowable area in increase in accordance with Section 506.3 or an allowable height increase in accordance with Section504.2. The 1-hour substitution for the fire resistance of exterior walls shall not be permitted.

A

An approved automatic sprinkler system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The fire -resistive compartmentation provided by partitions & floors that tends to ______________ the spread of fire through a building.

A

Limit or slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Type I construction bearing walls, columns, & beams fire resistance ratings are_____________.

A

2-4 hours , as specified by the local code & the construction classification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Type I Construction fire-resistance ratings.

A

Bearing walls, columns, & beams: 2-4 hours (as specified by the local code & construction classification
Floor construction: 2-3 hours
Roof deck & construction supporting the roof: 1-2 hours
Interior partitions enclosing stairwells & corridors: As specified by the local code; usually 1-2 hours
Partitions separating occupancies or tenants- As specified by the local code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What contributes the most combustible material in a Type I building fire?

A

The contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

The combination of the structural strength of steel___________ produce a fire-resistive structural assembly.

A

& the insulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Type II construction allows a wider range of materials than Type I. In addition to steel & concrete, ___________can be used with a limited structural role.

A

Aluminum & glass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Type II-A requires that structural components have a _____________fire resistance.

A

1 hour

Note- Protected non-combustible is similar to Type I but with a lower requirement for fire resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Type II-B (unprotected) allows structural components to remain ___________.

A

Unprotected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The use of ___________is the most common characteristic of unprotected, non-combustible construction.

A

Unprotected steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Ordinary construction is a tern associated with __________construction.

A

Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

A fundamental fire concern with Type III construction is the combustible ______________ that are created between floor & ceiling joists & between studs in partition walls.

A

Concealed spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Concealed spaces in Type III construction must contain________________.

A

Fire stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Type IV construction is known as heavy-timer of _________construction.

A

Mill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

2 major distinctions between Type III & Type IV construction.

A

In Type IV, the beams, columns, floors, & roofs are made of solid or laminated wood with dimensions greater than Type III.
Concealed spaces are not permitted between structural components in Type IV construction.

127
Q

______________ is the only construction type that does not have A & B subdvisions.

A

Type IV

Instead the designation 2HH is used. The structural components so indicated are of heavy timbers with minimum dimensions greater than those used in Type III of Type V construction.

128
Q

Type IV (heavy timber) construction requires minimum nominal dimensions of ___________ for floor construction.

A

6”X10”

Which is thicker than needed in Types III & Type V construction,

129
Q

Modern heavy timber construction is used primarily for _________ purposes.

A

Aesthetic

130
Q

The primary fire hazard in Type Iv construction is the _________________ present in the structural supports.

A

Relatively large amounts of fuel.

Note- Additionally, the interior of the building may have traces of oil & resin from previous industrial use.

131
Q

Wood frame construction is ______________ construction.

A

Type V

132
Q

In _________________ construction, all major structural components may be of combustible construction.

A

Type V

133
Q

Many Type V structures are required to have a 1-hour fire-resistance for structural components. The addition of _______________typically provides enough protection for combustible frame members.

A

Plaster or fire-rated gypsum

134
Q

The fundamental problem with Type V construction is the presence of extensive ________________.

A

Concealed voids

135
Q

Light frame construction was was introduced to the Unites States in the __________.

A

1830s

136
Q

________________ is considered the common currency of small residential & commercial buildings in North America today.

A

Light-frame construction

137
Q

Building code classification based on the use to which owners or tenants put buildings or portions of buildings.

A

Occupancy (or Occupancy Classification)

138
Q

A building code may restrict wood-frame schools (Type V-A) to 1 story. A 2-story school will have to include an __________________or a type of construction with greater fire resistance.

A

An automatic sprinkler

139
Q

A 15 story apartment building will be required to be of _____________construction in the IBC (NFPA 4-4-2).

A

Type I-A

140
Q

An ______________ or lower apartment building can be Type I-B construction. (NFPA 3-3-2)

A

11-story or lower

141
Q

The International Building Code (IBC) contains _________ major occupancy classifications.

A

10

142
Q

What are the 10 major IBC Occupancy Classifications

A 
Assembly Group A
Business Group B
Educational Group E
Factories Group F
High Hazard Group
Institutional Group I
Mercantile Group M
Residential Group R
Storage Group S
Utility & Miscellaneous Group U

Note- The IBC contains a total of 26 subgroups within the 10 major occupancy classifications.
The IBC also separately addresses 1 & 2 story family dwellings not more then 3 stories high. Although these are classified as R in the IBC, they are governed by a separate code- The International Residential Code.

143
Q

In contrast to the IBC, NFPA 5000 & NFPA 101 identify _________major occupancy classifications.

A

12

144
Q

What are the 12 occupancy classifications identified by NFPA 5000 & NFPA 101?

A 
Assembly
Educational
Day Care
Health Care
Ambulatory Health Care
Detention & Correctional
Residential
Residential Board & Care
Mercantile
Business
Industrial
Storage
145
Q

The specific requirements for occupancy separation will depend on ______________.

A

Local building codes.

Note-Required separation can range from 1-4 hours & not all occupancies will require a separation. A building code may also allow a reduction in the required occupancy separation if the building is sprinklered.

146
Q

The maximum amount of heat that can be released if all fuel is consumed.

A

Fire load.

Note- The fire load will vary depending on the heat of combustion. The fire load is the product of the weight of the combustibles multiplied by their heat of combustion expressed in lbs per square foot. The fire load can be used as an estimate of the potential heat release or thermal energy to which a building may be subjected if all combustibles become fully involved in fire.

147
Q

Which building construction types have combustible structural compenents?

A

Type III, IV, & V

148
Q

Being in the form in which used & under the conditions anticipated , will not ignite, burn, support combustion, or release flammable vapors, when subjected to fire or heat.

A

Noncombustible

149
Q

The most commonly used test for determining combustibility is _____________.

A

ASTM E-136 Standard Test Method for Behavior of Materials in a Vertical Tube Furnace at 750 degrees C. (1382 degrees F)

150
Q

______________ is the most common method used to determine fire reistance.

A

Laboratory testing

151
Q

The standard test for fire resistance is ______________also known as NFPA 251- Standard Method of Tests of Fire Endurance of Building Construction & Materials

A

ASTM E-119

152
Q

The earliest known fire test on build materials were conducted in __________ in 1884-1886.

A

Germany

Note- In the United States, the 1st known tests were conducted in Denver, Colorado in 1890 with subsequent tests in New York City in 1896.

153
Q

Fire-resistance test will either be considered at _____________________,

A

Load bearing or non-load bearing

154
Q

Normally materials are not tested beyond __________because this is the maximum time that the building code requires.

A

4 hours

155
Q

Failure criteria fire resistance lab tests.

A

Failure to support an applied load
Temperature increase on the unexposed side of the wall, floor, & roof assemblies of 250 F (121 C) above ambient temperature
Passage of hear or flame through the assembly sufficient to ignite cotton waste
Excess temperature on steel members

Note- The failure point of steel will depend on the application of the component. Other factors include maximum temperatures indicated for identified points in the assembly & the average overall temperature.

156
Q

Certain wall, partition, & door assemblies are subjected to the application of a ___________to duplicate the impact & thermal shock of water that may occur during firefighting operations. This is designed to simulate firefighting operations after a prolonged fire.

A

Hose stream

157
Q

The test used to evaluate fires used in petroleum refineries is ______________________.

A

ASTM 1529, The Standard Test Methods for Determining Effects of Large Hydrocarbon Pool Fires on Structural Members & Assemblies.

158
Q

The only standardized test method currently universally accepted by building codes.

A

E-119

159
Q

Joint systems for floor-to-wall or wall-to-wall connections are tested in accordance with _________________.

A

UL Standard 2079 Standard for Fire Tests of Joint Systems

160
Q

In 1997, the American Society of Civil Engineers (ASCE) & the Society of Fire Protection Engineers (SFPE) jointly developed a standard for calculation of fire resistance of structural elements. That standard known as ASCE/SFPE 29, Standard Calculation Methods for Structural Fire Protection is limited to use with the following materials.

A 
Structural Steel
Plain & reinforced concrete
Timber & wood
Concrete masonry
Clay masonry
161
Q

The most prevalent steel used in testing.

A

A-7 & A-36

162
Q

The structural fire resistance of building components is most often determined through ________________.

A

Laboratory testing

163
Q

The most critical aspect of engineering design is ___________________

A

Accommodating the type & magnitude of the forces to which the structure will be subjected.

164
Q

The direction of forces from loads acting on the interior of a structural member is expressed as __________.

A

Stress

165
Q

Condition of balance that exists when a structural system is capable of supporting the applied load.

A

Equilibrium

166
Q

Forces within a structural system that resist applied loads are referred to as _____________.

A

Reactions

167
Q

Reaction that takes place when a horizontal structural component is loaded vertically.

A

Bending moment

168
Q

Force acting to draw an object to the earth’s center. Force is equal to the object’s weight.

A

Gravity

169
Q

The most common load imposed on a structure.

A

Gravity

170
Q

Force that pulls a material apart. Referred to as tensile stress.

A

Tension

Tension: Vertical or horizontal force that pulls material apart; for example, the force exerted on the bottom chord of a truss.

171
Q

Force that squeezes the material. Referred to as compressive stress.

A

Compression

172
Q

Force that slides one plane of a material past an adjacent plane.

A

Shear stress

173
Q

Theoretical slice of a 3-dimensional structural component to enable area & stress calculations.

A

Cross-section

174
Q

The direction of the interior stresses is important because materials may have ____________tolerances.

A

Unique

For example: Concrete has a high compressive strength but a low tensile strength.

175
Q

External forces often can be visually identified & evaluated ; interior forces must be __________.

A

Calculated

176
Q

Load applied to the center of the cross section of a member & perpendicular to that cross section. It can be either tensile or compressive, & creates uniform stresses across the cross section of the material.

A

Axial load

177
Q

Load perpendicular to the cross-section of the structural member, but which does not pass through the center of the cross section. An eccentric load creates stresses that vary across the cross section any may be both tensile & compressive.

A

Eccentric load

178
Q

Load applied off-center from the cross-section of the structural component & at an angle to or in the same plane as the cross-section; produces a twisting effect that creates shear stresses in a material.

A

Torsional load

179
Q

Ratio of the failure point of a material to the maximum design stress; indicates the strength of a structure beyond the expected or actual loads.

A

Factor of safety

180
Q

Load that is steady, motionless, constant, or applied gradually.

A

Static load

181
Q

With the exception of ____________________that produces vibrations. dead loads are generally static loads.

A

Mechanical equipment

182
Q

For a dynamic load to stop moving, the surface it impacts must absorb the ___________.

A

Kinetic energy

183
Q

Water accumulation is also known as ___________.

A

Ponding

184
Q

The snow load expected on the ________is used as a starting point in calculating the snow load on a roof.

A

Ground

185
Q

Air pressure less than that of the surrounding atmosphere; a partial vacuum.

A

Negative pressure

186
Q

A stream discharging 250 gallons per minute may impact its target with _________ lbs of water per minute.

A

2,080

187
Q

Water at a depth of 3 inches adds a static load of __________per square foot.

A

21 lbs

188
Q

The __________ of air manifests as wind that presents a force that can be calculated.

A

Kinetic energy

189
Q

Effects of wind

A

Direct pressure- Straight line winds apply force to a surface
Drag- Wind flowing around the object may catch (drag) along a building’s surface.
Negative pressure- Wind may produce a suction effect on the downwind side of the building resulting in outward pressure
Rocking- Wind may cause the building to sway in a back & forth motion.
Vibration- Wind passing over a surface, such as a roof, may shake the surface
Clean-off- Wind may dislodge or move objects from a building’s surface

Note- In designing buildings to withstand wind forces, direct pressure is the primary consideration. Other factors include wind velocity & static air pressure, & they assume a wind direction perpendicular to the building.

190
Q

The typical expected life span of a building.

A

50 years

191
Q

All model building codes provide ___________maps.

A

Seismic

192
Q

In cases where the expected seismic loads are different than the structural provisions for wind or gravitational loads, the more ____________requirements must be accommodated.

A

Stringent

193
Q

Seismic loads can be far more complex than wind loads because the movements of the ground beneath a building can be _______________.

A

3-dimensional

194
Q

_________________that create horizontal motion are the most significant force generated by an earthquake.

A

Lateral loads

Note- Inertia holds the upper portion of the building in its initial position as the lower portion moves with the ground, & shear stress develops between the upper & lower portions of the building. Low buildings are less susceptible to this type of motion than tall buildings.

195
Q

_______________ are applied to a structural member that is twisted by seismic motion.

A

Torsional loads

196
Q

Seismic waves affect some buildings differently than others due to the ___________ of the earthquake & each building’s features.

A

Resonance.

197
Q

3 Types of accommodations for seismic activity.

A

Expansion joints
Damping mechanisms
Base isolation

198
Q

Buildings with geometric _______________ are more susceptible to damage from earthquakes than buildings with symmetrical design.

A

Irregularities

199
Q

In buildings with height variations or large floor plans, ________________can be added to increase the flexibility of the connection.

A

Seismic expansion joints

200
Q

_____________________absorb resonant energy as the structure begins to move. These mechanisms are typically installed at the connections between columns & beams. Operate on a principle similar to mechanical door equipment that controls the movement of an automatic door.

A

Damping mechanisms

201
Q

Isolates the building from the horizontal movement of the earth’s surface. This strategy is increasingly popular & includes 2 common methods.

A

Base isolation

202
Q

2 common methods of base isolation

A

Shear systems- Elastomeric bearings placed in a layer between the building & the foundation. The bearings change the fundamental resonance of the buildings. (Example- City Hall of Oakland, California)

Sliding systems- Special plates that slide on each other to isolate the building from the horizontal shear force. This system is loss common

203
Q

_________________is a strategy used to harden a structure against expected loads. Some types of structural stiffness are particularly effective against seismic loads.

A

Structural stiffening

204
Q

2 types of structural stiffening.

A

Shear walls & cross bracing- effective against ground motions with a relatively long (slow) vibrational period. May not be suitable for all locations due to the fact that cross bracing components must be symmetrically located in a building to prevent torsional forces from deveoping.

205
Q

Load that exerts a horizontal force against a structure. Calculated as a live load; includes seismic activity & soil pressure against vertical restraints such as retaining walls & foundations.

A

Lateral load

206
Q

Side-to-side swaying motion.

A

Horizontal motion

207
Q

Movements of relatively large amplitude resulting from a small force applied at the natural frequency of a structure.

A

Resonance

208
Q

Structural accommodation that allows building sections to move independently of each other. Often installed in concrete. Modern expansion joints may be fire rated.

A

Expansion joints

209
Q

Structural element designed to control vibration from resonance.

A

Damping mechanism

210
Q

A system of structural elements that create a joint between a building & its base to minimize seismic force effects on the main structure. This type of system may be customized to the type of seismic forces expected in the area.

A

Base isolation

211
Q

Generic term for rubber-like materials including natural rubber, butyl rubber, neoprene, & silicone rubber used in facepiece seals, low pressure hoses, & similar SCBA components.

A

Elastomer

212
Q

The force of the foundation against the soil is known as ____________.

A

Passive soil pressure

213
Q

Horizontal structural member used to support a ceiling or floor.

A

Joists

214
Q

Projecting beam or slab supported at 1 end.

A

Cantilever

215
Q

Supported beneath both end & free to rotate. Example: a wood joist resting on a masonry wall.

A

Simply supported beam

216
Q

Rigidly supported at each end. Under fire conditions, a rigidly supported beam may retain its load bearing ability longer than a simply supported beam because the end restraints provide more resistance to applied stresses.

A

Restrained beams

217
Q

Supported at 1 end; must be able to support a vertical load in addition to resisting bending stresses. Often used to support balconies.

A

Cantilever beam

218
Q

Similar to a cantilever beam but with additional support.

A

Overhanging beam

219
Q

May span several vertical beams.

A

Continuous beam

220
Q

Arches produce __________at their end supports.

A

Inclined forces

221
Q

Arches are used to carry a load across ______________.

A

A distance

222
Q

Single or paired external ridges on a beam that do most of the work of supporting aload.

A

Flange

223
Q

Wide vertical ridge of a beam between the thick ridges (flanges) at the top & bottom of the beam. Secondary member of a truss contained between the chords.

A

Web

224
Q

Vertical member designed to support an axial load & compressive stresses.

A

Column

225
Q

Curved structural member using compressive internal stresses. Arches develop inclined reactions at their supports.

A

Arch

226
Q

If the end supports cannot maintain the arch, _____________ can be used to prevent the arch from spreading.

A

Horizontal tie rods

227
Q

Framed structural units made up of a group of triangles in 1 plane.

A

Trusses

Note- The top & bottom members of a truss are called chords. The middle section of a truss is also called the web or diagonals. Geometrically speaking, triangles provide an inherently rigid frame. If a diagonal brace is added to the framework, the resulting triangulation creates a stronger assembly.

228
Q

Typical truss shapes span distances of ________________, but truss spans in modern construction may exceed 100’.

A

22’-70’

229
Q

Roof trusses that have a curved top chord.

A

Bowstring truss

Note- These curved members are unavoidably subjected to bending stresses.

230
Q

Lightweight steel trusses known as ____________ are also used for floor & roof construction in fire-resistive & non-combustible construction.

A

Bar joists

231
Q

Steel wall stud construction uses steel studs placed ____________apart.

A

12”-16”

Note- Historically, stud-wall frame construction has been associated with the use of 2”X4” wood studs.

232
Q

Construction style that uses vertical elements to support horizontal elements. Associated with heavy beams & columns. Historically constructed of wood. Requires the addition of other members such as diagonal braces to withstand lateral loads.

A

Post & beam construction.

233
Q

Structural load that exerts a force perpendicular to structural members.

A

Transverse load

234
Q

Rigid frame usually have a ____________ at the peak of the roof tp allow for slight movement between the 2 halves of the frame.

A

Hinged connection

235
Q

The broad top surface of a column or pilaster designed to spread the load held by a column.

A

Capital

236
Q

Type of concrete floor construction in which the portion of the floor above each column is dropped below the bottom level of the rest of the slab, increasing the floor thickness at the column.

A

Drop panel

237
Q

How are membrane structures different from tents?

A

Membrane structures are designed to be permanent structures.

238
Q

Building codes address membrane structures with a life of ___________or more. Fire codes address those membrane structures used for _____________.

A

180 days or more

Less than 180 days

239
Q

Permanent membrane structures use _____________________for the fabric.

A

Polyetraflouroethylene coated glass fiber.

Note- Early permanent membrane structures were polyvinyl-coated polyester.
Fabrics cannot resist compressive forces. therefore, frameworks must support the fabric.
Types of frames include:
Cables & masts
Tubular
Solid

240
Q

Permanent membrane structure roofs weigh_______________.

A

Less then 2 lbs per square foot.

241
Q

Rigid 3-dimensional structure with an outer skin thickness that is small compared to other dimensions.

A

Shell structure

242
Q

3 parts of a means of egress.

A

Exit access
Exit
Exit discharge

243
Q

Stairs that usually connects 2 floors in a multistory building.

A

Convenience stairs

244
Q

Horizontal face of a step. (The part you stand on.)

A

Tread

245
Q

Vertical part of a stair step.

A

Riser

246
Q

The horizontal measurement of a stair tread or the distance of the entire stair length.

A

Run

247
Q

Vertical distance between the treads of a stairway or the height of the entire stairway.

A

Rise

248
Q

Buildings that are __________ in height may be required to include 1 stairway that extends to the roof for access to mechanical equipment, & is identified by signage in the stairway.

A

4 stories or more

249
Q

Prefabricated stairs are held together by ______________.

A

Metal gussets

250
Q

__________stairs extend in 1 direction for their entire length. Landings may be used between sections of vertical travel.

A

Straight-run

251
Q

Horizontal platform where a flight of stairs begins or ends.

A

Landing

252
Q

_____________stairs have an immediate landing between floors & reverse direction at that point. May have more than 1 landing where the height between floors is greater than normal?

A

Return

Note- This type of stair design is common in modern construction.

253
Q

2 sets of stairs constructed in a common shaft. Cheaper & more efficient than 2 separate stair enclosures.

A

Scissor stairs

Note- Scissor stairs often use a pair of return stairs for assembly occupancies that have large floor-to-ceiling heights. In these instances, the ingress/egress access is from the same corridor but several feet apart. this arrangement positions the standpipe on the same stair side at each floor. Buildings that often include scissor stairs include: airport terminals, convention centers, malls, & cinema complexes. Scissor stairs provide additional exit capacity for egress. Older scissor stairs may only return to every second floor. Firefighters may need additional hose to connect to a standpipe on the floor below the fire.

254
Q

Minimum width of circular stairs is usually _________.

A

10”

Note- A special requirement for circular stairs is that the small radius of the full circle is greater to or equal to twice the widest part of the stair tread.

255
Q

The column that connects spiral stairs.

A

Baluster

Note- Typically, custom made stairs are not enclosed. Because they can be difficult to traverse, spiral stairs are generally not allowed as part of the means of egress except in residential structures.

256
Q

Steep -spiral stairs are sometimes used for access to ___________confined-spaces, as a dry-well in a sewage pumping station, & in industrial applications.

A

Permit-required

257
Q

Folding stairs usually have _________wooden sections.

A

3

Note- Springs in folding stairs lose tension rapidly when exposed to heat. The stair opening can provide a vertical path for fire & smoke spread.

258
Q

Since both folding stairs & fixed ladders may have weight limitations lower than __________________, many departments recommend against using these stairs for fire fighting purposes.

A

The weight of a firefighter earing full PPE.

259
Q

__________________ are increasingly used with the hinge in folding stairs.

A

Gas springs (also known as struts)

260
Q

Fully enclosed exterior are subject to the same regulations as ____________________.

A

Enclosed interior stairs

261
Q

Building codes have traditionally required a minimum of 1 smokeproof stair for stairs serving buildings ______stories or higher.

A

5

Note- More recently, codes also require protection for stairs serving floor levels more than 30’ below the level of exit discharge.

262
Q

Smokeproof stair enclosures may use either ___________________ smoke control.

A

Active or passive

263
Q

Smokeproof stairs are typically located on the ___________________of the building.

A

Exterior perimeter

Note-Stairs are entered through ventilated vestibules or open exterior balconies.

264
Q

What is the difference between active & passive smoke control?

A

Active smoke control uses mechanical or electric parts that work as a system & require a power source for operation. Passive smoke control relies on building construction.

265
Q

Stairwells are designed to pressurize when the _______________is activated.

A

Fire alarm system

Note- In this arrangement, a dedicated mechanical air-handling system will generate enough pressure to keep smoke out of the air enclosure, even when a door is open to the fire floor. A correctly operating system should allow firefighters to begin suppression operations concurrently with occupant egress.

266
Q

In high rise structures, codes require dedicated, pressurized stairways for the sole purpose of _____________.

A

Providing firefighters a safe route to access & attack a fire.

267
Q

Building codes typically allow the use of open stairs in buildings only when they connect no more than __________________.

A

2 adjacent floors above the basement level.

268
Q

Conveyor systems are protected by features such as _____________________.

A

Fire doors
Shutters
Water spray fixed fire suppression systems.

269
Q

The driving machinery is located under ______________________.

A

An access plate at the upper landing.

270
Q

Escalator speeds are standardized at _________ per minute.

A

100’

271
Q

Older escalators usually operate at speeds of either ________________per minute.

A

90 or 120

272
Q

Vertical penetrations for escalators serving more than ________ floors must be protected.

A

2

Note- The most common protection for the vertical opening is to use closely spaced sprinklers & draft stop around the opening. Combined, these 2 features may be arranged as an 18” deep draft stop with a row of automatic sprinklers on all sides outside the draft stop. A rolling shutter at the top of the escalator can also produce vertical opening protection. Partial enclosures use separate fire-rated enclosures for the up & down escalator.

273
Q

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requires that multistory buildings be equipped with _______________.

A

Elevators or ramps

274
Q

2 most common types of power used in elevators.

A

Hydraulic & electric

275
Q

Historically, the practical upper limit for hydraulic elevators was about _________.

A

6 stories.

Note- The elevator shaft required a deep well for the ram to extend into the ground to reach the lowest service floor.

276
Q

Modern elevator cables are ____________.

A

Flat polyethylene-coated steel belts that increase energy & efficiency.

Historically, elevators have been made of conventional wire cables.

277
Q

The vertical shaft in which the elevator car travels; includes the elevator pit.

A

Hoistway

278
Q

4 Common styles of elevators

A

Drum elevators- intended for passenger use
Traction elevator- intended for passenger use
Machine Room-Less- Intended for passenger use.
Dumbwaiters- Intended for cargo use

279
Q

_____________use a hoisting cable wound on a drum located in a motor room directly over the hoistway.

A

Drum elevators

Note- The car is connected to a set of moving counterweights to reduce the effort the motor must produce to raise the car.
Drum elevators have practical height limitations because the size of the drum increases with the lifting distance. Drum elevators are obsolete & found only in very old structures or in use freight elevators.

280
Q

Most common type of elevator in buildings over 6 stories.

A

Traction elevators

281
Q

Operating heights may require elevators to have as much as a __________volt supply.

A

500

Note- Drive motors may be either Direct Current (DC) or Alternating Current (AC) types.

Alternating current- Current can move through the circuit in both directions.
Direct Current- Current only flows in 1 direction.

282
Q

Tapered pairs of steel jaws that wedge against the guide rails & bring the elevator to a stop. Elevator safeties are designed to stop a free-falling car.

A

Car safeties.

283
Q

An electric switch that terminates power before the elevator reaches the upper or lower limits of the hoistway.

A

Terminal device

284
Q

Elevator hoistways enclosures are usually required to be a fire-rated assembly with a _________ rating, depending on the height of the building.

A

1-2 Hour

Note- No wiring, ductwork, or piping should be run within the hoistway unless it is required for the elevator itself.

285
Q

Wall panels that are braced against lateral loads. May be load bearing or non-load bearing.

A

Shear wall

286
Q

To prevent mushrooming, building codes require ___________at the top of most hoistways.

A

Venting

287
Q

A building with 3 or fewer elevators may contain all 3 in a single _______________.

A

Hoistway

Note- 4 or more elevators must have a minimum of 2 separate hoistways. Where more than 1 hoistway is provided, ap to 4 elevators may be located in 1 hoistway. Elevators that share a hoistway are usually not separated.

288
Q

A (elevator) zone usually includes __________consecutive floors.

A

15-20

289
Q

Upper zone cars operate in express mode (without stops) from the ___________to the lowest floor of the upper zone.

A

1st Floor

290
Q

Generally, access doors for single-car hoistways that serve upper floors have access doors for rescue purposes every __________.

A

3 Floors

291
Q

A _________ is provided on all electric traction elevators.

A

Top exit

Note- On hydraulic elevators, a top exit may be provided depending on whether the system is equipped with a manual lowering valve.

292
Q

Side (elevator) exits are required to have ____________to prevent car movement when the panels are open. Side exits may not be provided on hydraulic elevators where a manual lowering valve is provided.

A

Electrical interlocks

293
Q

Chutes require sprinklers at the top of the chute and in ________________.

A

The termination room.

294
Q

A type of rooftop projection historically used for ventilation & lighting & modernly added for aesthetics.

A

Cuploa

295
Q

Duct detectors are typically provided for with capacities exceeding _______________.

A

2,000 cubic feet per minute.

296
Q

Unoccupied space within a building through which air flows back to the heating, ventilating, & air conditioning (HVAC) system. Normally immediately above a ceiling & below an insulated roof of the floor above.

A

Return-air Plenum

297
Q

A building heating & cooling system that uses air as the heating & cooling system that uses air as the heat transfer medium.

A

Forced-air system

298
Q

A building heating & cooling system that uses water as the heat-transfer medium.

A

Hydronic system

299
Q

Rooftop or independent unit that ejects waste heat into the atmosphere to lower the temperature in a system. Commonly used in HVAC systems.

A

Cooling Tower

300
Q

NFPA 90A requires that HVAC ducts & fire-rated shaft enclosures be 1 hour rated for buildings less than 4 stories and _______ for buildings 4 stories or greater.

A

2 hours

301
Q

Setting on an HVAC system or Fire Alarm Unit system that can be activated automatically or manually to initiate a programmed smoke control procedure.

A

Smoke Control Mode

302
Q

Draft curtain boards should not be less than ___________ of the ceiling height. Curtain boards should be spaced so that they are not farther apart than _______times the ceiling height.

A

20%

8

303
Q

High voltage is defined as __________ volts or higher.

A

600.

Note- Low voltage is less than 600 volts.

304
Q

____________________ convert high voltage electricity from the electric utility service to an appropriate voltage for building system use.

A

Transformers

305
Q

Most common voltage delivered via transformers to medium & large buildings is via 3 phase _________________ volt transformers.

A

208/120

306
Q

2 most common methods of cooling a transformer.

A

Air & oil

307
Q

Toxic compound found in some older oil-filled electric transformers.

A

Polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB)

308
Q

Fire rating for transformer rooms.

A

3 hours if not protected by sprinklers.

1 hour if protected by sprinklers

309
Q

Generator fuel day tanks are typically limited to _________ gallons form diesel fuel.

A

60

310
Q

Interior finishes may be classified as trim if they do not exceed _________ of the wall & ceiling area.

A

10%

311
Q

Speed at which flame will spread over the surface of a material.

A

Surface-burning characteristic

312
Q

Any enclosed space without internal fire barriers.

A

Compartment

313
Q

Building codes usually exclude surface treatments & wallpaper that are no thicker than __________.

A

1/28”

JFRD Engineer's Exam (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions