uworldnotesstep2 Flashcards

1
Q

primary reason to screen AFP

A

for neural tube defects

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2
Q

treatment for secondary pneumothorax in COPD

A

observation and O2 if minoremergent tube thoracotomy if serious

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3
Q

most likely reason for a ↓AFP

A

trisomy 18/21

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4
Q

side effects of azathioprine

A

dose related disarrhea, leukopenia, hepatoxicity

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5
Q

lab results that would suggest rhabdomyolysis

A

↑ K

↑ CPK

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6
Q

pt with alcohol hx and develops postural instability and wide based gait what is the dysfunction

A

decrease in purkinje cells in the cerebellar vermis

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7
Q

“proximal muscle weakness”

“can’t walk upstairs”

A

polymyositis

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8
Q

pt with hx of stomach ulcers and kidney stones - what genetic disease does this suggest

A

MEN1

primary hyperparathyroidism causing hypercalcemia

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9
Q

treatment for polymyositis

A

glucocorticoids (prednisone)

glucocorticoid-sparing agent - methotrexate or azathioprine

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10
Q

cancer assocated with lambert easton

A

small cell lung CA

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11
Q

pt presents with small kidneys and elevated BUN/Cr - most likely chronic dx

A

HTN

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12
Q

tan colored lesions on the eyes

A

NF1 - lisch nodules, tan colored hamartomas

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13
Q

side effects of what drug - nephrotoxicity, HTN, glucose intolerance, gingeval hypertrophy, hirsuitism, and GI manifestation

A

cyclosporine

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14
Q

pt with dementia - sudden onset with myoclonus

A

prion diseae

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15
Q

general ways to get a thrombocytopenia

A

decreased platelet production increased platelet destruction Other

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16
Q

what are these?non immune direct effect that starts within 2 days of commencing heparinantibody to platelet factor 4 causing platelet aggregation, thrombocytopenia, thrombosis, platelets decreased by at least 50% 5-10 days after starting heparin

A

HIT 1 and HIT 2

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17
Q

50% loss of platelets and antibody to platelet factor 4

A

HIT2

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18
Q

67 year old man with no health problems and does not take any medications - which vaccines does he need

A

PCV13 + PPSV23 at a later time because he is ≥65

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19
Q

pt with loss of sensation fo the foot dorsum - nerve

A

common peroneal/fibular nerve on the anterolateral leg

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20
Q

up until what point can you administer charcoal following toxic acetaminophen exposure

A

up to 4 hours

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21
Q

coming from a low income country is highly indicative of which bacterial infection

A

h. pylori

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22
Q

in a quad screen - decreased AFP, beta hcg, estriol

A

Edwards (trisomy 18)

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23
Q

most common cause of purpura in a child

A

Henoch Schonlein purpura (HSP)

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24
Q

proximal muscle weakness with ↑CRP

A

polymyositis

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25
Q

risk factors for developing acute otitis media

A

formula intake, exposure to cigarette smoke

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26
Q

immunoglobulin associated with celiac disease

A

IgA - anti-epidermal transglutaminase antibodies are IgA associated

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27
Q

who should receive Tdap/Td?

A

all adults should receive one Tdap and Td boosters every 10 years. If vaccination hx is unknown, replace one Td with Tdap

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28
Q

when should a quad screen be done

A

15-20 weeks

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29
Q

what drug should you never give in uremic pericarditis

A

heparincan cause a hemorrhage

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30
Q

hyperdense biconvex lesion that does not cross suture lines

A

epidural hematoma

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31
Q

what two organ dysfunctions would you see in cocaine OD - why?

A

Renal failure and heart failure

renal because of ↑K and ↑CPK causing rhabdomyolysis

cardiac failure because of valvular damage and ↑K

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32
Q

difference in meconiums bt hirschprungs and ileus

A

ileus - inspissated and viscous causing obstructionhirscprung - normal

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33
Q

pt with pH of 7.28, CO2 of 38 - what is this and what shouldn’t you give them

A

metabolic acidosis - don’t give bicarb becuase they are compensated if the pH is <7.2

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34
Q

cancer associated with actinic keratosis

A

squamous cell carcinmona

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35
Q

coronary artery aneurysm in a child

A

kawasaki disease

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36
Q

what dysfunction can you diagnose by rocking the pt back and forth at the hips

A

gastric outlet syndrome

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37
Q

loss of glomerular capsule, glomerular and peritubular fibrosis, microhematuria and proteinura

A

glomerulosclerosis

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38
Q

most common causes of ESRD

A

1) diabetic nephropathy2) HTN

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39
Q

what life treatning condition is found comorbid with cocaine overdose in >20% of cases

A

rhabdomyolysis - ↑CPK, ↑K

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40
Q

differentiate in symptoms between cauda equina and conus medullaris syndrome

A

cauda equina - saddle anesthesia, hyporeflexia, gradual onset of pain, lower motor neuronconus medularis - fast onset, perineal anesthesia, hyperreflexia, symmetrical weakness

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41
Q

expain why this isn’t mets:extra axial well circumscribed/round homogeneously enhanced dural lesion

A

mets to brain would have multiple ring enhancing lesions at the gray-white matter junction

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42
Q

which is the worse of the HIT’s

A

HIT 2

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43
Q

what does a decrease of angiotensin II/aldosterone cause with Na

A

increase in naturiesis

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44
Q

only vasculitis with normal platelet counts

A

HSP

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45
Q

what should you do before starting vasopressors in someone with septic shock

A

give IV saline 0.9%

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46
Q

pt with prolonged QRS and prolonged PR

A

bradyarrhythmia

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47
Q

drug use that increases your risk for rhabdomyolysis

A

cocaine abuse especially if the pt was imobilized for some time before being found

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48
Q

what arrhythmia would you see with digitalis toxicity

A

atrial tachycardia w/AV block

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49
Q

pt with CPK >35,000IU/L

most likely dx

A

rhabdomyolysis with acute renal failure

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50
Q

what will you see on microscopy of diabetic nephropathy

A

increased extracellular matrix, basement membrane, mesangial expansion

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51
Q

50 year old patient with no reliable vaccination hx - Td or Tdap?

A

Tdap and then Td every 10 years!

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52
Q

what is meconium illeus virtually diagnostic for

A

cystic fibrosis

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53
Q

when someone is in septic shock what are the appopriate steps to take

A

1) secure the airway 2) IV 0.9% saline with CRYSTALLOID 3) treat the infection

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54
Q

production of a reactive oxygen species by interaction of drug metabolites and UV

A

phototoxic reaction

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55
Q

pt with recent onset optic neuritis, intranuclear opthalmoplegia and fatigue

A

MS

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56
Q

what causes jaundice by decreased activity of the UDP-glucuronyltrasnferase enzyme

A

gilbert syndrome

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57
Q

pt presents with decreased DTRs, symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, and autonomic dynsfunction - dx?

A

Lambert Easton secondary to small cell lung cancer

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58
Q

dysfunctions that cause decreased platelet production leading to thrombocytopenia

A

EBV, CMV, chemo, myelodysplastic syndrome, alcohol, Fanconi anemia, vitamin B12/folate deficiency

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59
Q

pt presents with extra axial well circumscribed and round and homogenously enhanced dural lesion - dx

A

meningioma - calcification, hyperdense, dx with non contrast CT

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60
Q

which nerve is affected by a hit to the anterior thigh

A

femoral nerve

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61
Q

palpable purpura mostly contained to the buttocks, legs, and thighs

A

HSP

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62
Q

who should receive which pneumococcal vax

A

adults 19-64 with no medical hx: NO vaccine necessary adults 19-64 with heart disease, DM, or liver disease should have PPSV23 adults 19-64 who have CSF problems, cochlear implants, sickle cell anemia, asplenia or HIV should have PCV13 and then PPSV23 at a later date All patients over 65 should have PCV13 + PPSV23 at a later date

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63
Q

which one is which?high fever (>104)cervical lymphadenopathycecphalocaudal rash with gradual spreadlow fever (<104)post auricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathycephalocaudal rash with rapid onsetarthralgias (esp in women)

A

first: measlessecond: rubella

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64
Q

renal vascular lesions in HTN

A

arteriolosclerosis of afferent and efferent renal arterioles

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65
Q

what is the precipitating factor that makes toxic shock syndrome so dangerous

A

massive release of cytokines

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66
Q

10 year old female patient with pruritic anal and vaginal areas particularly at night - dx

A

pinworm infection (enterobius vermicularis)

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67
Q

where is the defect in hirscprungs vs meconium ileus

A

H - sigmoid-rectum (will find meconium in the rectal vault)MI - ileum

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68
Q

most effective primary meds for parkinsons

A

levodopa/carbidopa

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69
Q

what kind of AKI will show a ≥50% increase in Cr from normal

A

prerenal AKI

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70
Q

how does the RAAS system work in response to hypoperfusion

A

hypoperfusion causes the juxtaglomerular apparatus to release renin. Renin cleaves angiotensin into angiotensin I. ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II which is a potent vasoconstrictor and causes adrenal cortex to produce aldosterone which retains Na/H20 and secretes K in order to increase BP

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71
Q

s/e of mycophenelate

A

bone marrow suppression

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72
Q

pt has persistant pneumothorax and pneumomediastinum following chest tube placement

A

tracheobronchial rupture

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73
Q

pt complaining of morning stiffness and has elevated CRP and sed rate what won’t you see on PE

A

joint inflammation - this patient has polymyalgia rheumatica

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74
Q

pt with non painful and non pruritic skin lesions increasing gradually in size on the trunk

A

NF1

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75
Q

diastolic murmur at the apex in a young woman

A

mitral stenosis

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76
Q

other than azithromycin and TMP-SMX - what other potential prophylaxis for HIV with CD4 <50

A

pt lives in ohio river valley - histoplasma, tx: itraconazolept has herpes hx - acyclovirpt with yeast flare - fluconazole

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77
Q

treatment for complicated gallstone disease (acute cholecystitis, choledocholilithiasis, gallstone pancreatitis)

A

cholecystectomy within 72 hours

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78
Q

what is this

A

osgood schlatter disease with fractured tubercle

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79
Q

what increases your risk of developing impetigo following a bacterial infection

A

eczema, abrasions, insect bites

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80
Q

what are some causes of pseudothrombocytopenia

A

platelet clumping due ot EDTA abciximab inadequate sample

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81
Q

pt with GI pain, weight loss of 10 lbs, recent onset memory deficits, peripheral neuropathy, and microcytic anemia - dx

A

acute lead poisoning

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82
Q

progressive dyspnea, decreased exercise tolerance, Afib, rapid ventricular response, LV systolic dysfunction

A

tachycardia mediated cardiomyopathy

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83
Q

what can help LV function in someone with tachycardia

A

rate control drugs

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84
Q

less likely but still common reaosns for ↑AFP in pregnancy

A

ventral wall defects - oomphalocele, gastroschisis

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85
Q

most likely cause of a phototoxic drug reaction

A

doxycycline (tetracyclines)

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86
Q

pt ingested toxic levels of acetominaphen in the last 2 hours - next steps

A

administer charcoal (if within 4 hours) + take acetaminophen level

based on level determine whether n-acetylcysteine is needed

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87
Q

what disease process does this describe

parathyroid hyperplasia or adenomas with symptomatic hypercalcemia from primary hyperparathyroidism, burning upper abdominal pain from zollinger ellison syndrome and pituitary adenomas

A

MEN1

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88
Q

40 year old pt with no relevant medical hx presents with thrombocytopenia seemingly unrelated to anything - potential casue

A

HIV - 5-10% of patients present initially with this

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89
Q

what is the mechanism of renal failure in cocaine use

A

ATN secondary to rhabdomylosis from excessively filtered myoglobin

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90
Q

definitive diagnosis for polymyositis

A

muscle biopsy

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91
Q

pt with increased aPTT, new thrombocytopenia and arterial thrombosis

A

heparin induced thrombocytopenia

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92
Q

what echo finding would you expect with mitral stenosis

A

left atrial dilation

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93
Q

what are the two main dx for non passage of meconium

A

1) Hirschprungs disease2) meconium ileus

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94
Q

nerve on the medial thigh

A

obturator

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95
Q

what labs might you find in kawasaki disease

A

↑CRP, sed rate leukocytosis with neutrophilia, thrombocytosis, sterile pyuria

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96
Q

next step after finding an ↑AFP

A

u/s

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97
Q

complications of impetigo

A

PGSN

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98
Q

male patient with hx of COPD has sudden onset of chest pain and hyperresonance with unilateral decrease in breath sounds

A

COPD with acute exacerbation with secondary spontaneous pneumothorax - chronic destruction of alveolar sacs causes large alveolar blebs and rupture/leak of air

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99
Q

best way to diagnose turners

A

KARYOTYPE not Barr bodeis

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100
Q

causes of uterine atony

A

prolonged laborover distended uterusmultiple gestationforcep assistedHTN

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101
Q

where does aldosterone work

A

on the distal collecting duct to increase Na/H20 and blood volume

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102
Q

most common cause of post partum hemorrage

A

uterine atony

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103
Q

12 year old male presents with increased indirect bilirubin following surgery for appendicitis with overt scleral icterus

diagnosis

A

Gilbert syndrome

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104
Q

paraneoplastic syndrome associated with presynaptic volatage gated Ca channels

A

lambert easton - small cell lung cancer

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105
Q

how does TSST-1 differ from RMSF

A

in RMSF the petechiae rash starts in the extremities

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106
Q

what should you look for on xray when you suspect secondary pneumothorax in COPD

A

visceral pleural line beyond which no pulmonary markings exist

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107
Q

treatment for rhabdomyolysis

A

aggressive hydration

manitol and urine alkalinazation

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108
Q

main danger associated with CPK >20,000IU/L

A

acute renal tubular necrosis from myoglobinuria

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109
Q

what cardiac condition frequently coexists with mitral stenosis

A

Afib - 70% co-occurrence

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110
Q

posterior shoulder dislocation associations

A

the 3 E’sElectricityEpilepsyEtoh

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111
Q

when is suction curretage the right answer in an abortion

A

when the woman is hemodynamically unstable from heavy bleeding or sepsis - expectant management otherwise

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112
Q

pt with no medical hx is newly diagnosed with ITP what commonly coexisting condition should you also check for

A

HIV

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113
Q

mutation most associated with polycythemia vera

A

JAK2 mutation

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114
Q

when is AFP measured

A

16-18 weeks

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115
Q

why is tacrolimus better with side effects than cyclosporine

A

no hirsuitism or gingival hypertrophy in tacrolimus

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116
Q

if someone is in prerenal AKI how do you know whether to give fluids or diurese

A

give fluids if there are no obvious signs of fluid overload (e.g. ↑JVD, crackles) - give isotonic if not fluid overloaded

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117
Q

treatment for impetigo

A

muprocin

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118
Q

23 year old female with sickle cell - which vaccine(s) does she need

A

PCV13 + PPSV23 at a later time because she is immunocompromised

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119
Q

femoral nerve damage could result in what dysfunctions

A

knee extension and hip flexion

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120
Q

pt with asymmetric t wave inversion in V5-V6 with an increase in glucose, BUN of 90 and creatinine of 5.6 - dx

A

uremic pericarditis - anytime you see chest pain and BUN > 60 that’s what it is

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121
Q

why do you go for rate control and not typical drugs from CHF in someone with tachycardia induced cardiomyopthy

A

tachy induced cardiomyopathy is potentially reversible - the key is to try and get the person back to a normal sinus rhythm

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122
Q

why does cocaine cause ischemia, seizures, agitation

A

it is a potent vasoconstrictor

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123
Q

in a quad screen - decreased AFP, estriol, increased beta hcg and inhibin A

A

downs

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124
Q

treatment for lambert easton

A

guanidine or 3,4-diaminopyridine

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125
Q

drug types (2) that cannot be given to people on PDE5-I. Why?

A

nitratesalpha blockers (-zosin)cause hypotension

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126
Q

treatment for cauda equina and conus medularis syndromes

A

IV glucocorticoids and neurosurgery consult

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127
Q

when would you need to use a catheter during a u/a

A

when the pt is <2 years of age

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128
Q

pt with dementia - presents with trouble walking, urinary incontinence, and dementia

A

NPH

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129
Q

pt presents with +ANA and +anti-Jo-1

A

polymyositis

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130
Q

woman being treated for acne presents, after a day at teh beach, with a rash covering her face, arms, chest and legs - why isn’t this a reaction to benzoyl peroxide

A

benzoyl peroxide would only cause the rash to the face - this is systemic, therefore she is being treated with doxy for acne

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131
Q

pt with no hx of alcohol use but elevated LFTs and acute pancreatitis - dx and tx

A

gallstone pancreatitis - remove gall bladder

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132
Q

woman with UTI and pyelonephritis - what are the U/A findings

A

nitrates and leukocyte esterase

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133
Q

damage to the posterior thigh might damage which nerve

A

tibial nerve

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134
Q

what syndrome can you diagnose by hearing a succession splash 3+ hours after last meal

A

gastric outlet syndrome

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135
Q

most common reason for someone in septic shock to have metaboic acidosis

A

lactic acidosis from organ failure

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136
Q

pt with pain in the eye presenting with photophobia, blurred vision, tearing, redness, corneal vesicles, dendritic ulcers

A

herpes simplex keratitis

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137
Q

pt with recent cold and chronic warfarin use presents with INR of 5.6

why

A

pt was probably taking acetaminophen for the cold symptoms and that increased the amount of warfarin in the system

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138
Q

dysfunctions that cause platelet destruction

A

SLE, heparin use, ITP, TTP-HUS, antiphospholipid syndrome

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139
Q

most common bilirubin disorder of inheritance

A

gilbert syndrome

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140
Q

pt with back pain and breathing difficulties and PFTs showing restrictive respiratory distress

A

ankylosing spondylitis - chest wall motion restriction from spinal spondylitis that causes decreased VC and decreased TLC

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141
Q

pt with negative nikolsky, fever of 6 days in duration, red eyes, bright red tongue, polymorphous rash, desquamation of the palms and soles and cervical lymphadenopathy

A

Kawasaki disease!

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142
Q

what type of cancer is Paget’s disease of the breast

A

adenocarcinoma

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143
Q

pt with myalgias, fever, vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension, diffuse maculopapular rash that looks like a sunburn - dx

A

toxic shock syndrome from s aureus

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144
Q

treatment for uremic pericarditis

A

dialysis - will reduce chest pain and effusion

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145
Q

management of vtach?

A

pulseless vtach - defibrillation

vtach with a pulse - syncronized cardioversion

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146
Q

anti hypertensive that increases natiuresis, decreases serum ATII, and aldosterone

A

direct renin inhibitor

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147
Q

treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

stop the offending agent

bromocriptine or dantrolene

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148
Q

what is the danger of leukoplakia

A

1-20% progress to squamous cell carcinoma

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149
Q

MCC of urinary retention after labor

A

bladder atony

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150
Q

what do nitrates and leukocyte esterase signifiy on a U/A

A

nitrates: enterobacteriacae (shifting nitrates to nitrites) esterase signifies pyuria

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151
Q

how TSST-1 differs from meningococcemia

A

in TSS there are no bullae or necrotic petichiae rash

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152
Q

pt with dementia - early loss of short term memory and decreased hippocampal volume

A

alzheimers

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153
Q

pt on psychoactive medication presents with leukocytosis and elevated CK

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome most likely from a first generation anti psychotic

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154
Q

when is an epidural hematoma treated surgically

A

when its symptomatic

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155
Q

how does the FEV1/FVC ratio change in a restrictive vs obstructive pattern

A

obstructive - FEV1/FVC: <70 of normalrestrictive - FEV1/FVC: >70 of normal

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156
Q

two drugs that are calcineurin inhibitors

A

cyclosporin and tacrolimus

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157
Q

treatment for prerenal AKI

A

IV fluid

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158
Q

MOA of cyclosporine

A

inhibits transcription of IL-2

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159
Q

pt with dementia - visual hallucinations and parkinsons

A

lewy body dementia

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160
Q

contact lens users with conjunctivitis

A

pseudomonal keratitis, tx with broad spectrum abx

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161
Q

pt with middle ear effusion, bulging tympanic membrane - dx and tx

A

acute otitis media tx: amoxicillin or if it doesn’t work after 10 days; augmentin

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162
Q

which nerve deals with adduction of the thigh

A

obturator

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163
Q

what is an elevated CPK level

A

>20,000IU/L

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164
Q

what is a potentially toxic dose of acetominaphen

A

>7.5g

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165
Q

causes of syncope

A

sinus bradycardia, SA block, AV block, sinus pauses, non-sustained vtach, increased or decreased QTc

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166
Q

where is the orthopedic fault in osgood-schlatter disease

A

traction apophysis of the tibial tubercle which causes anterior soft tissue swelling, lifting of the tubercle and fragmentation of the tubercle

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167
Q

most common comorbid condition in meconium ileus

A

cystic fibrosis

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168
Q

treatment for polycythemia vera

A

serial phlebotomy and hydroxyurea

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169
Q

what does nephrosclerosis lead to if untreated

A

glumerulosclerosis

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170
Q

drug OD that causes ↑HTN, seizures, hyperthermia, vertical nystagmus

A

PCP

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171
Q

pt who ingested caustic substances - tests

A

serial CXR/KUB to check for perforationwhen perforation is ruled out - upper GI endoscopy in 12-24 hours

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172
Q

pt presents with hearing loss and frequent discharge; granulation tissue and skin debris is seen in the ear canal

A

cholesteatoma

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173
Q

what kind of IV fluids should you give for hypernatremia

A

intially normal saline

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174
Q

white granular patch on the buccal mucosa in a pt with a hx of alcoholism or smoking

A

leukoplakia

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175
Q

what organ dysfunctions might be seen in a ↑AFP neonate

A

congenital nephrosis and obstructive uropathy

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176
Q

pt with chronic pancreatitis with wt loss and abdominal pain - what sx would lead you to which pancreatic diagnoses

A

jaundice suggests pancreatic head cancer no jaundice suggests pancreatic cancer of the tail or body

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177
Q

treatment for bladder atony lasting more than 6 hours

A

indwelling catheter placement

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178
Q

how to differentiate between uterine atony and retained placenta

A

on u/s if there is a “thin uterine stripe” this means the uterus is empty and cannot have retained products

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179
Q

vast increase in Cr, decreased urine output, BUN:Cr >20:1, oliguria (<500ml/24hrs)

A

prerenal AKI

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180
Q

loss of sensation to the plantar foot - nerve?

A

tibial nerve

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181
Q

vasculidity most similar to IgA nephropathy that presents with purpura

A

HSP

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182
Q

most common causes of acute otits media

A

s pneumo h flu (non typable) moraxella

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183
Q

10 year old girl with chronic ear drainage despite aggressive antibiotic therapy over the last few weeks

A

cholesteatoma

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184
Q

treatment of tachycardia induced cardiomyopathy

A

aggressive rate control with AV nodal blocking agents, antiarrhythmic drugs, catheter ablation of arrhythmia

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185
Q

“soft and boggy uterus” - dx

A

uterine atony

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186
Q

pt who is 6 hours post partum has not voided since labor and is leaking urine

diagnosis

A

bladder atony

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187
Q

pt is pregnant with second child and fetus dies in utero, mother is AB(-), mother is hemodynamically stable. What is the next best course of action

A

give RhoD because the mother is AB(-)

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188
Q

how do you treat a meningioma

A

surgical resection

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189
Q

ectopy and AV block together are basically specific for what diagnosis

A

digitalis toxicity

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190
Q

loss of sensation to the plantar foot? dorsum of foot?

A

plantar loss - tibialdorsum loss - common peroneal

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191
Q

in a quad screen - increase in AFP

A

neural tube deficits

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192
Q

what type of saline should you give in compensated metabolic acidosis

A

if met acidosis is >7.2 give isotonic saline

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193
Q

what would you see on epithelial scraping of herpes simplex

A

multi nucleated giant cells

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194
Q

most likely reason to see an ↑ AFP

A

neural tube defect

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195
Q

pt with gradual onset of severe back pain, bilateral pain, saddle anesthesia, hyporeflexia, bowel/bladder dysfunction and assymmetrical weakness - what is the dx

A

cauda equina syndrome

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196
Q

new diagnosis of polymyositis should be a red flag for what

A

cancer

polymyositis is often part of a paraneoplastic syndrome

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197
Q

why should you give someone in septic shock crystalloid saline

A

because crystalloid is more like albumin and allows for more fluid uptake

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198
Q

disease where rapid growth in adolescent has the quadriceps muscle put traction on the apophysis of the tibial tubercle

diagnosis

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

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199
Q

other name for common peroneal

A

fibular nerve

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200
Q

what is the Uhthoff phenomenon in MS

A

symptoms worsen in hot weather

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201
Q

pt who has recently had an T2 MRI shows: multifocal, oviod, subcortical, inperventricular, juxtacortical, and infratentorial lesions in the spinal cord

A

MS

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202
Q

most common causes of nonbillious impetigo

A

s aureus group A strep s pyogenes

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203
Q

neural tube defects and abdominal wall defects are characterized by what lab result

A

↑AFP

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204
Q

what is this

A

leukoplakia

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205
Q

RUQ pain and tenderness, fever, leukocytosis, +Murphy sign

A

acute cholecystitis

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206
Q

morning stiffness in the shoulders, neck, pelvic girdle

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

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207
Q

pt with progressive weakness, difficulty swallowing and mildly decreased strength in the deltoid muscle; otherwise unremarkable PE

A

polymyositis

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208
Q

pt with recent onset transient visual disturbances, HTN, thrombosis, itching after the shower, facial plethora, splenomegaly, normal oxygen sats and decreased EPO

A

polycythemia vera

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209
Q

what is this?palpable purpura, arthralgias, abdominal pain, renal dysfunction

A

HSP

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210
Q

pt with dementia - white matter change and executive dysfunction

A

vascular dementia

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211
Q

main side effect with early levodopa/carbidopa use

A

hallucination

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212
Q

medical treatment for dermatitis herpeteformis

A

dapsone

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213
Q

which drug should you give in a PCP OD

A

benzodiazapines

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214
Q

patient who initially had an eruption of papules has had a sudden progression to pustules and honey colored crusting around the mouth - dx

A

impetigo

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215
Q

pt with dementia - presents with personality change and disinhibition

A

frontotemporal dementia

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216
Q

difference in treatment between large and small thyroid cancer

A

large - surgery + radioactive iodinesmall - surgery

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217
Q

what age group has the most presenting epidural hematomas

A

children and adolescents

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218
Q

how does TSST-1 differ from SJS

A

SJS has purpura and necrosis and more influenza like symptoms initially

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219
Q

treatment for actinic keratosis

A

cryotherapy for small lesionsfluorouracil for larger lesions

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220
Q

gold standard diagnosis for MS

A

T2 MRI

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221
Q

urine dipstick tests + for blood but no RBCs are seen on microscopy

diagnosis

A

rhabdomyolysis

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222
Q

explain the physiology of the increased resorption of urea in prerenal AKI

A

↓ perfusion → ↓GFR → ↑Cr → ↑tubular resorption of Na/H20 which leads to ↑resorption of urea

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223
Q

what are these lab findings suggestive of: microcytic anemia, and ↑ zinc protoporhyrin

A

acute lead poinsoning

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224
Q

pt with thrombocytopenia without coexisting anemia or leukopenia

A

ITP

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225
Q

what poisoning would you commonly see hyperuricemia

A

lead poisoning

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226
Q

pt with morning stiffness in the neck and shoulders, 10lb weight loss, ESR of 77, ↑CRP, normocytic anemia - dx and association

A

polymyalgia rheumatica - giant cell arteritis!

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227
Q

34 year old woman with T2DM - which vaccines does she need

A

PPSV23 because she is immunocompromised by being diabetic

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228
Q

how does TSS differ from scarlet fever

A

in scarlet fever the pt will be a child and the rash has a flexural pattern

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229
Q

renal microscopy of HSP

A

deposition of IgA in the mesangium

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230
Q

differentiate between pneumothorax and atelectasis

A

if it were atelectasis there would be foreign body aspiration, pneumonia with mucous plug, malignancy and tracheal deviation. Pneumothorax is from a ruptured bleb and rarely is seen with tracheal deviation

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231
Q

how does 3,4-diaminopyridine help pt with lambert easton

A

improves ACh circulation

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232
Q

which imaging modality should you use for pancreatic cancer of the head? of the tail?

A

head - u/stail - CT

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233
Q

most superior drug in treating treatment resistant schizophrenia

A

clozapine

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234
Q

in a quad screen - fluctuation of inhibin A

A

trisomy 13/Patau

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235
Q

treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica

A

glucocorticoids - prednisone 10-20mg

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236
Q

stages of treatment for uterine atony

A

1) bimanual massage2) IVF/O23) oxytocin4) methylgonavine/carboprost (not in asthma!)5) hysterectomy in unstable or heavy blood loss

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237
Q

symptoms of graves disease - differentiate from a paraneoplastic syndrome

A

Graves - wt loss, tachycardia, proptosis, impaired extraocular motion, decreased convergence, diplopia, orbital tissue expansion, lymphocytic infiltrationparaneoplastic: myasthenia gravis/lambert easton would not have occular irritation, painful movement, or proptosis

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238
Q

hypertrophy and intimal medial fibrosis of renal arterioles

A

nephrosclerosis

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239
Q

initial therapy for warfarin associated hemorrhage

A

IV vitamin K

prothrombin complex concentrate (2, 7, 9, 10)

FFP if PCC is not available

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240
Q

most common co-morbid condition with hirschprungs disease

A

downs

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241
Q

pt with HIV and CD4 <50 - prophylacic measures

A

TMP-SMX for PCP pneumoniaazithromycin for MAC

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242
Q

25 year old female pt with fever, joint pain, rash that started on the face and moved rapidly to the body that has spared the palms and soles with posterior auricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy

A

Rubella - German measles

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243
Q

when would you see HIV associated dementia

A

CD4 <200

long standing HIV

poor HIV control

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244
Q

pt with ↑ apathy, ↓ attention, subcortical dysfunction, ↓ smooth limb movement, ↓ number of cortical neurons, ↓ memory

this happened rather quickly (6 months)

A

HIV associated dementia

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245
Q

39 year old female pt presents with heavy periods, dysmenorrhea, chronic pelvic pain, and what was described as “tender, boggy, globular uterus”

dx and tx

A

adenomyosis

hysterectomy

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246
Q

pt with infertility and irregular menses is ______ until proven otherwise

A

PCOS

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247
Q

what hormone pattern will you see in a pt with PCOS

A

imbalance of LH/FSH → leading to failure of follicle maturation

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248
Q

what hormonal pattern will you see in PCOS

A

hyperandrogenism

↑ ovarian steroids

↓ estrone

↓ sex binding hormone

LH/FSH imbalance

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249
Q

treatment for infertile woman with PCOS

A

weight loss

clomiphene

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250
Q

pt with hepatic steatosis, no history of alcohol use at all, AST/ALT <1; u/s of the liver reveals a hyperechoic texture

A

NAFLD

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251
Q

treatment for NAFLD

A

diet/exercise

consider bariatric surgery if BMI ≥ 35

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252
Q

abnormal LFTs + metabolic syndromes + no alchol consumption (ever)

A

NAFLD

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253
Q

hepatic steatosis in the absence of secondary hepatic fat accumulation

A

NAFLD

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254
Q

hepatomegaly + AST/ALT ratio of <1 with hyperechoic u/s texture

A

NAFLD

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255
Q

pt is recently postpartum presents with pain on the lateral side of the wrist and has passive thumb stretching pain

A

DeQuervains tenosynovitis

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256
Q

tendons involved in deQuervains tenosynovitis

A

abductor pollicis longus

extensor pollicis brevis

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257
Q

you suspect your pt has Sjogrens; they also have significant difficulty swallowing solid food lately

how to diagnose

A

even with esophageal motility issues diagnose based on + antiRO(SSA) and + antiLA(SSB)

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258
Q

what is a schrimer test for

A

in the diagnostic process of sjogrens and schirmer test will show ↓ lacrimation on filter paper under the lower eyelid

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259
Q

lymphocytic infiltrate of the salivary glands is most likely part of what disease process

A

sjogrens

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260
Q

most common gyenocological malignancy

A

endometrial cancer

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261
Q

most important risk factor for development of endometrial cancer

A

obesity

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262
Q

explain how obesity contributes to the development of endometrial cancer

A

↑ estrogen (in adipose tissue) ↑ hyperplasia → adenocarcinoma

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263
Q

most likely cause of a retroperitoneal hematoma (especially when the patient has been in the hospital)

A

cardiac catheterization

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264
Q

diagnostic imaging for retroperitoneal hematoma

A

CT non contrast for abdomen and pelvis

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265
Q

acsending flaccid paralysis and muscle weakness with respiratory involvement

diagnosis

A

Guillian Barre

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266
Q

when you suspect Guillian Barre what else should you measure

A

PFTs - 30% of pts will have respiratory failure

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267
Q

gold standard for measuring respiratory failure in GBS

A

FVC

≤ 20mL/kg demonstrates impending respiratory arrest

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268
Q

baby is born 6 weeks premature - when should her vaccines be given

chronologically or gestationally

A

ALL vaccines should be given chronologically

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269
Q

what vaccine cannot be given if a premature baby is <4lbs 6oz

A

Hep B

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270
Q

pt with fever, vomiting, nausea, abdominal pain, jaundice, pruritis, dark urine, pale stools, tender hepatomegaly, AST/ALT >1000 U/L, ↑ alk phos and bilirubin

diagnosis

A

HAV

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271
Q

treatment for HAV

A

self limited, treat supportively

3-6 weeks recovery

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272
Q

when is HAV less likely to be self limited

A

>50

preexisting liver condition

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273
Q

which hepatitises are symptomatic in the acute phase

A

HAV is usually symptomatic (>70%)

HBV/HCV are usually asx

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274
Q

presence of an S3 and ↑BNP is diagnostic of

A

LV dysfunction in CHF

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275
Q

how is BNP created

A

proBNP cleaves into two to create the active BNP and inactive N-terminal proBNP

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276
Q

what lab is elevated in LV systolic dysfunction in CHF

A

BNP

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277
Q

low frequency sound best heard over the cardiac apex

A

S3

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278
Q

99% of people with CHF also have this

A

S3 heart sound

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279
Q

most common precipitating bacterial infection prior to developing GBS

A

c jejuni

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280
Q

2/3 of the time _______ started with a respiratory or GI infection

A

Guillian Barre

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281
Q

circumfrential burn to the esophaagus

A

pill induced esophagitis

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282
Q

main causes of pill induced esophagitis

A

tetracyclines (doxy)

NSAIDs

bisphosphanates

potassium Cl

Iron

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283
Q

difference in mechanisms as to why tetracyclines and NSAIDs cause pill induced esophagitis

A

tetracyclines cause this from the acid effect

NSAIDs disrupt the GI protective barrier

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284
Q

pt presents with a recent onset tremor that is worse with action motions and worse in the upper extremities; pt has no noticible neurological deficits

A

essential tremor

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285
Q

treatment for essential tremor

A

propranalol

2nd line = anticonvulsants like primidone and topiramate or benzodiazepines like alprazolam

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286
Q

most affected brain regions by strokes precipitated by HTN

A

basal ganglia

thalamus

pons

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287
Q

stroke type - atherosclerotic risk factors and fluctuating symptoms

A

ischemic thrombotic type

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288
Q

stroke type - hx of cardiac dz, abrupt but worse at the start, multiple infarcts seen on CT

A

ischemic embolic type

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289
Q

stroke type - uncontrolled HTN, illicit drug use, sx get worse after starting, presents with vomiting and headache, bradycardia and decreased alertness

A

intracerebral hemorrahage

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290
Q

stroke type - pt with hx of berry aneurysm/AVM presents with stiff neck and severe headache

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

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291
Q

left sided weakness and slurred speech

affected area

A

left cerebral hemisphere lesion - motor cortex/Broca’s

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292
Q

pt with painless purple skin on the legs, AKI and occular problems, labs show eosinophilia and hypocomplementemia

A

cholesterol crystal embolism

from disruption of atherosclerotic aortic plaques

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293
Q

most common cause of cholesterol crystal embolism

A

disruption of atherolsclerotic plaques most likely from cardiac catheterization or intraaortic balloon pump

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294
Q

skin finding in cholesterol crystal embolism

A

livedo reticularis

painless purple skin that blanches

also called “blue toe”

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295
Q

1 year old child drinks cows milk more than anything else

A

iron deficiency anemia

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296
Q

most common nutritional deficiency in children

A

iron

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297
Q

2 year old female pt diagnosed as iron deficient

next steps

A

give PO iron

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298
Q

2 year old female pt who was diagnosed as iron deficient has not imporved after 3 months of PO iron

next step?

A

hemoglobin electrophoresis

colonoscopy

serum creatinine

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299
Q

most common urinary tract onstruction in newborn males

A

posterior urethral valves

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300
Q

pt presents for prenatal u/s and results are concerning for bladder distention, bilateral hydroureters, and bilateral hydronephrosis

most likely diagnosis

A

posterior urethral valves

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301
Q

baby is still born at 16 weeks gestation and autopsy finds bilateral hydronephrosis, oligohydramnios, flattened facies, abdominal distention and club feet

diagnosis

A

Oligohydramnios with Potter sequence most likely secondary to posterior urethral valves

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302
Q

most common location of ectopic foci for afib generation

A

pulmonary veins

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303
Q

reentrant circuit around the tricuspid annulus

cardiac sound

A

atrial flutter

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304
Q

female pt with fever, fatigue, wt loss, migratory non deforming arthralgias is also found to have ↓C3/C4

A

SLE

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305
Q

pt with arthralgias and a non tender ulcer of the buccal mucosa and cervical lymphadenopathy

A

SLE

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306
Q

pt with fever, wt loss, pleurisy, athralgias, and proteinuria

A

SLE

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307
Q

pt presents with advanced RA + splenomegaly + neutropenia

A

Felty syndrome

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308
Q

infant pt presents with poor urinary stream, straining with voiding, urosepsis, failure to thrive and renal failure

how to make the diagnosis

A

voiding cystourethrogram and cytoscopy

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309
Q

treatment for posterior urethral valves

A

ablation and urinary diversion

early surgical intervention in utero (permanent kidney damage can occur)

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310
Q

oligohydramnios can cause what

A

pulmonary hypoplasia, postnatal respiratory distress

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311
Q

pt with 15lb weight loss, lower extremity edema, gynecomastia, spider angiomas, distended abdomen with shifting dullness

diagnosis

A

cirrhosis - probably from HCV (more than HBV), chronic alcoholism, NAFLD, hemochromotosis

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312
Q

pt with pedal edema, ascities, bilateral gynecomastia, spider angiomata - why isn’t this cor pulmonale

A

will cause fatigue and leg edema but not gynecomastia or spider angiomata

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313
Q

first suspicion in someone with ascites, spider angiomatas, gynecomatia, splenomegaly

A

cirrhosis - most likely viral hepatitis

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314
Q

reasons you might see early post operative period renal transplant dysfunction

A

uretral obstruction, acute rejection, cyclosporine toxicity, vascular obstruction, acute tubular necrosis

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315
Q

subtypes of systemic sclerosis

A

limited (better)

diffuse (worse)

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316
Q

type of scleroderma interstitial lung disease is associated with

A

diffuse cutaneous - >40%

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317
Q

esophageal dysmotility is seen in what kind of scleroderma

A

both diffuse and limited

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318
Q

what kind of scleroderma is skin thickening seen in

A

diffuse cutaneous

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319
Q

which scleroderma has a worse prognosis

A

diffuse cutaneous because it has organ involvement

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320
Q

systolic-diastolic abdominal bruit + ↑BP

A

renovascular HTN

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321
Q

how can you diagnose RAS

A

renal duplex Doppler u/s

CT angio

MR angiography

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322
Q

pt has resistant HTN with ≥ 3 drugs (1 is a diruetic at max dose)

A

RAS

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323
Q

risk of developing which cancers in cryptorchid gonads

A

dysgerminoma or gonadoblastoma

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324
Q

give the X,Y for a phenotypically female individual with androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

46 X,Y

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325
Q

recomendation for phenotypic female with androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

bilateral gonadectomy after puberty

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326
Q

why is gonadectomy recommended AFTER puberty in androgen insensitivity disorder

A

attainment of full height

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327
Q

pt with cough, wheezing, nasal polyps; current med list: aspirin, atorvastatin, metformin, benadryl

cause of exacerbation

A

aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease

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328
Q

asthma like symptoms and flushing and wheezing 90 mins after taking _______ is ________

A

aspirin

aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease

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329
Q

↑ production of proinflammatory leukotrienes and ↓ production of anti inflammatory prostoglandins and arachodonic acid is diverted to produce leukotrienes via the 5-lipoxygenase pathway

what is this

A

AERD mechanism

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330
Q

non IgE mediated reaction that results in asthma like symptoms or exacerbation of existing symptoms

A

AERD

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331
Q

treatment of AERD

A

desensitization and use of leukotriene receptor antagonists

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332
Q

pt with hx of gout has 3 day hx of progressively worsening pain, swelling, and redness of the knee, no hx of trauma. Fever of 101, HR is 110/bpm, hx is positive for recent travel to New Hampshire for camping

differentiate between septic arthritis, gout and Lyme disease

A

this is probably septic arthritis - you should do a synovial fluid analysis first

could be gout or lyme disease but septic arthritis is far more serious and needs to be ruled out before proceeding!

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333
Q

pt has hx of untreated HTN and DM2, presents with 2 months of left sided weakness, gait dysfunction with frequent falls, and nausea and vomiting

what is this? why isn’t it the other?

A

this is a brain tumor

this is not a lacunar infarct because of the nausea/vomiting because that is the result of ↑ICP which is not involved in chronic results from a stroke

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334
Q

pt with 2 months of left sided weakness, and gait dysfunction presents with this finding - diagnosis

A

brain tumor

that is papilledema suggesting ↑ICP

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335
Q

why would someone in HHS have normal to elevated K

A

total body K is decreased from excessive urinary loss - pseudohyperkalemia

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336
Q

pt with hx of DM2 presents with weakness and blurred vision

K 5.9, glucose 1070, bicarb 22, serum osmolality 480

why is the K normal

A

total body K is being depleted and pushed into cells

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337
Q

what can make things worse for someone in HHS

A

aggressive insulin therapy to correct the hyperglycemia can cause even more total body K depletion

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338
Q

in additon to modafinil, pt with cataplexy narcolepsy should also take what medications

A

antideprresant and sodium oxybate to suppress REM sleep

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339
Q

initial treatment for narcolepsy

A

sleep hygiene, scheduled naps, avoidance of alcohol and drugs that cause drowsiness

if these don’t work move to modafanil

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340
Q

most likely explanation for a pt who presents with recent onset of digital clubbing

A

occult malignancy

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341
Q

conditions commonly assocated with digital clubbing

A

bronchogenic carcinoma, metastatic cancer, malignant mesothelimona, lymphoma

lung absess, empyema, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis, chronic cavitary infections

pulmonary fibrosis, asbestosis, AVM

cyanotic congential heart disease

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342
Q

most common causes of digital clubbing

A

lung malignancies

cystic fibrosis

right to left shunt

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343
Q

mechanism of digital clubbing

A

megakaryocytes skip the normal route because of a lung tumor in the pulmonary circulation and enter systemic circulation getting lodged in the fingers releasing PDGF and VEGF causing hypertrophy of the surrounding tissue

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344
Q

what doesn’t cause digital clubbing

A

hypoxemia

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345
Q

what is often found at the finger tips with digital clubbing

A

enlarged joint capsules (painful)

346
Q

pt with painful pulsatile mass in the groin area

A

femoral artery aneurysm

347
Q

most common peripheral artery aneurysms

A

1) popliteal artery
2) femoral artery

348
Q

gross hematuria with normal appearing RBCs - where is the defect

A

extra-renal

349
Q

17 year old AA male pt presents with one episode of gross hematuria that resolved spontaneously; U/A shows many normal RBCs with no other findings

A

renal papillary necrosis secondary to sickle cell trait

350
Q

pt with dysuria and increased urinary frequency, U/A shows WBCs and bacteria with +nitrate and +leukocyte esterase

A

acute cystitis

351
Q

pt with hematuria and a hx of HTN + U/A shows dysmorphic RBCs and proteinuria

A

acute glomerulonephritis

352
Q

pt with eosiniphilia, increased creatinine, U/A shows increased WBCs, w/o gross hematuria

A

AIN

353
Q

pt with AKI from ischemic insult with elevated creatinine, U/A shows granular casts, hematuria, and renal tubular epithelial cells w/o gross hematuria

A

ATN

354
Q

renal complications of sickle cell trait

A

painless hematuria, urinary tract infections, renal medullary cancer

355
Q

46 year old female pt presents with early satiety and abdominal distention, lab findings indicated an elevation in CA-125

A

epithelial ovarian carcinoma

356
Q

AR mutation of ATP7B

A

wilsons disease

357
Q

25 year old pt with tremors, depression, elevated LFTs

A

Wilsons disease

358
Q

treatment for Wilsons disease

A

copper chelators like D-pencillamine

359
Q

maintenance therapy for Wilsons disease

A

Oral zinc

360
Q

neuropsychiatric symptoms + liver problems

A

Wilsons disease

361
Q

6 year old pt presents with fever, toxicity, pharyngitis, sandpaper like rash, strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever - group A strep

362
Q

treatment for scarlet fever

A

penicillin V

363
Q

preferred medicaiton for ADPKD

A

ACE-I

364
Q

most common reasons for flank pain in someone with ADPKD

A

renal calculi, cyst rupture, hemorrhage or upper urinary tract infections

365
Q

extrarenal features of ADPKD

A

cerebral aneurysms

hepatic and pancreatic cysts

cardiac valve disorders

366
Q

diaphragm that is more prone to traumatic injury

A

Left side

367
Q

pt with fatigue, pruritis, and elevated alk phos and +MPO-ANCA

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

368
Q

pt with elevated alk phos, hx of UC, and fibrous obliteration of bile ducts with an onion skin appearance on bx

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

369
Q

MR cholangiopancreatography shows multifocal narrowing with intrahepatic and extrahepatic duct dilation

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

370
Q

differentiate between perforated PUD and acute cholecystitis

A

BOTH would show upper abdominal pain, fever, leukocytosis

CHOLE would have +Murphy’s sign

PUD perforation would have +stool guaiac test

371
Q

diagnosis for PUD with perforation

A

upright abdominal/CXR showing free intraperitoneal air under the diaphragm

372
Q

pathogenesis of MCD

A

T-cell mediated injury to podocytes causes molecular permeability to albumin

373
Q

3 year old pt with edema, fatigue and NO hematuria

A

MCD

374
Q

4 year old boy with edema around his eyes in the morning and moves to legs/genitals by evening

A

MCD

375
Q

dx for MCD

A

24 hour urine collection - one time level can be used as well

376
Q

treatment for MCD

A

steroids

377
Q

painless loss of monocular vision

hx of DM and HTN

A

central retinal artery occlusion

378
Q

treatment for central retinal artery occlusion

A

occular massage and high flow oxygen

379
Q

explain why you see a V/Q mismatch in pneumonia

A

pneumonia causes hypoxemia due to left to right intrapulmonary shunting and an extreme ventilation/perfusion mismatch

380
Q

why don’t you see alveolar hypoventilation in pneumonia

A

alveolar hypoventilation is a uniform fall in ventilation because of a decrease in tidal volume or respiratory rate

381
Q

when would you see alveolar hypoventilation

A

narcotic overdose and neuromuscular weakness

382
Q

pt with metabolic alkalosis and a urine chloride of 7 - cause?

A

self induced vomiting

low serum Cl- impairs renal HCO3- excretion and further worsens alkalosis

correct with isotonic saline

383
Q

why aren’t you in metabolic alkalosis from diarrhea

A

causes persistant HCO3- loss and leads to non gap metabolic acidosis

384
Q

differentiate between saline responsive and saline non responsive metabolic alkalosis

A

saline responsive is less <20

saline non responsive is >20

385
Q

what is the most beneficial way to stop diabetic neuropathy

A

strict BP control

386
Q

multiple liver lesions

A

metastatic colon cancer

387
Q

cancers that mets to the liver

A

breast, lung, colon

388
Q

left shift leukocytosis

A

more young cells are present indicating an infection

389
Q

most common reason for acute cholecystitis

A

gallstone impaction in the cystic duct

390
Q

pt with left pleural effusion with/out pneumothorax, subcutaneous and mediastinal emphysema, and widened mediastinum. Pleural fluid is exudative with lots of amylase

diagnosis and imaging

A

Boerhaave syndrome/esophageal rupture

CT contrast with gastrografin

391
Q

most effective method post heat stroke to bring temperature down

A

ice bath

392
Q

treatment for osteomyelitis in child with sickle cell

A

cover for s aureus AND salmonella

low likelihood of MRSA - nafcillin/oxacillin or cefazolin

high liklihood of MRSA - clindamycin or vancomycin

PLUS

3rd gen cephalosporin - ceftriaxone or cefotaxime

393
Q

in a pt with a fixed defect on technetium-99 stress test what is the best next step

A

prescribe antiplatelet therapy like aspirin

394
Q

diagnosis of acute liver failure - pick 1/3

A

elevated transaminases >1000

hepatic encephalopathy

INR > 1.5

395
Q

what differentiates acute hepatitis from acute liver failure

A

hepatic encephalopathy

396
Q

acute superinfection with hepatitis D on B carries what risk

A

acute liver failure

397
Q

8 year old child with a 3 day hx of recurrent vomiting. This has happened before where the pt vomits several times over a few days and then not again for months

diagnosis

A

cyclical vomiting syndrome

linked to parents with migraines - may progress to migraines when the child matures

398
Q

pt with hypopigmented patch with tingling and numbness distal to the patch, nerves at the distal end are thickened

A

leprosy

399
Q

treatment for leprosy

A

dapsone and rifampin

400
Q

leprosy with extensive lesions - treatment

A

dapsone + rifampin + clofazimine

401
Q

pt with patch on arm and thickened nerves distal to lesion resulting in decreased sensation - why is this one diagnosis and not the other

A

this is leprosy - not lyme

it is not lyme because the thickened nerves are characteristic of leprosy

402
Q

pt has peripheral nerve involment where the nerves have become nodular, painful, with deformations and diminished sensory activity

A

leprosy

403
Q

what should you suspect when someone with a hx of malignancy develops back pain and motor and sensory abnormalities with possible bowel/bladder dysfunction

A

epidural spinal cord compression

404
Q

pt presents following exercise with knee and calf pain, swelling in the calf and an arc of ecchymosis is often visible distal to the medial malleolus “crescent sign”

A

burst popliteal baker cyst

405
Q

chronic painless bulge behind the knee in the medial popliteal space prominent on extension

A

popliteal baker cyst

406
Q

_______ is converted to _______ during gluconeogenesis

A

alanine, pyruvate

407
Q

how does the liver maintain glucose levels in the blood

A

glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

408
Q

what plays a role in fasting states in the first 12 hours? After 24 hours?

A

glycogen drops dramatically in the first 12 hours, gluconeogenesis picks up after that

409
Q

what are the main substrates for gluconeogenesis

A

gluconeogenic amino acids (from muscle breakdown)

lactate (from anaerobic glycolysis)

glycerol 3-phosphate (from tiacylglycerol in adipose)

410
Q

what is the main gluconeogenic amino acid in the liver

A

alanine

411
Q

what is acute cholecystitis

A

obstruction of the gallbladder due to obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone

412
Q

pt with fever, bacteremia, within one week of surgery

MCC

A

s epidermidis from catheter

413
Q

MCC of blood stream infection post surgerical intervention

A

s epidermidis because of skin disruption

414
Q

infection not contamination

A

fever, hypotension, leukocytosis, tenderness at catheter site, culture within 48 hours is an/aerobic, 2+ cultures grow the same organism

415
Q

simple ovarian cyst and free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac

A

normal effects of pregnancy

416
Q

pain, bleeding, dilated cervix, POC in lower uterus

A

spontaneous abortion

417
Q

bleeding and closed cervix

A

threatened abortion

418
Q

pt with mild scleral icterus after appendectomy with total bilirubin of 3.3

A

Gilberts

419
Q

responsible for bilirubin conjugation in the liver

A

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme

420
Q

increased unconjugated bilirubin with normal liver function

A

Gilbert

421
Q

decreased detrusor tone after labor

A

bladder atony

422
Q

pudendal nerve palsy and pelvic floor injury post labor

A

urinary retention not from bladder atony

423
Q

pt is unable to void 6 hours after vaginal delivery

A

bladder atony

424
Q

diagnosis and treatment of bladder atony

A

try analgesics or ambulation

urethral catheterization

425
Q

someone has a plethoric appearance, what is going on

A

polycythemia

426
Q

heavy menses, constipation, urinary frequency, pelvic pain or heaviness, enlarged uterus

A

fibroids

427
Q

dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, heavy menses, bulky, globular, tender uterus

A

adenomyosis

428
Q

obesity, nulliparity, anovulation, nontender uterus

A

endometrial CA

429
Q

woman with incresaed testosterone and estrogen and there is an imbalance of LH/FSH

A

PCOS

430
Q

most frequent associations with digital clubbing

A

malignancy

cystic fibrosis

R-L cardiac shunt

431
Q

1 day old infant with bilatterally enlarged mammary glands, swollen labia, and blood tinged vaginal discharge

A

normal effects of maternal estrogen

432
Q

imaging for palpable adnexal mass

A

pelvic u/s

433
Q

headache, blurred vision, AMS, RUQ/epigastric pain, SOB, proteinuria, HTN, seizurw

A

eclampsia

434
Q

pathogenesis of Wilson disease

A

AR mutation of ATP7B

hepatic copper accumulatin

leaks from damaged hepatocytes

deposits in tissues (basal ganglia and cornea)

435
Q

decreased ceruloplasmin, increased urinary copper excretion and copper in liver on bx

A

Wilson disease

436
Q

short and long term treatments for Wilson disease

A

D-penicillamine

zinc

437
Q

decreased elasticity in aorta and arterial walls

A

isolated systolic HTN

438
Q

sandpaper rash with gray-white pharyngeal exudates

A

Scarlett fever

439
Q

rash that spares the mouth area (circumferential palor)

A

Scarlet fever

440
Q

early onset HTN with different BP in the arms and abdominal masses

A

ADPKD

441
Q

diagnostic imaging for ADPKD

A

abdominal u/s

442
Q

treatment for ADPKD HTN

A

ACE-I

443
Q

time line of diaphragmic rupture in a child

A

can take months or years to manifest

444
Q

imaging modality if you suspect a diaphragmic rupture

A

CT of the chest and abdomen

445
Q

42 year old man with progressive fatigue, abdominal pain, diarrhea with blood, negative colonoscopy, increased alk phos (816), sed rate is 102, and MPO-ANCA is +

diagnosis

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

(fatigue and pruritis and increased alk phos)

often with comorbid UC

increased IgM, positive MPO-ANCA

446
Q

how to diagnose primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

cholangiopancreatography

447
Q

onion skin fibrosis on hepatic bx

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

448
Q

acute onset severe abdominal pain, fever, tachycardia, peritonitis (guarding, rigidity, reduced bowel sounds)

A

perforated viscus

449
Q

diagnostic imaging for perforated viscus

A

upright XR of the chest and abdomen which will show free intraperitoneal air under the diaphragm

450
Q

pathogenesis of minimal change disease

A

t cell mediated injury to podocytes causes increased molecular permeability to albumin

451
Q

treatment for central retinal artery occlusion

A

occular massage and high flow oxygen

452
Q

first branch of the internal carotid - what does a problem here cause

A

first branch is the opthalmic artery - embolism in this artery can cause CRAO (central retinal artery occlusion)

453
Q

what is the most common cause of retinal stroke

A

embolism to the retinal artery

454
Q

when do you see an acute right to left pulmonary shunt

A

in consolidative pneumonia the alveoli fill with inflammatory exudate leading to impairment of alveolar ventilation in that part of the lung and thus a V/Q mismatch and right to left shift

there will be an inability to corect hypoxemia

455
Q

will increasing oxygen when there is a right left intrapulmonary shunt do anything

A

no

oxygen will not correct hypoxemia from a right to left shunt in V/Q mismatch

456
Q

what is happening here

treatment

A

uneven T99 SPECT stress test at rest and activity shows iscemia of the heart

antiplatelet therapy like aspirin

457
Q

most important risk factor for stroke

A

HTN

458
Q

diagnostic requirements for ALF

A

1) AST/ALT >1000
2) hepatic encephalopathy
3) INR >1.5

459
Q

hepatitis B and D together can cause what

A

acute liver failure

460
Q

most common cause of acute liver failure

A

drug tox

acute viral hepatitis

461
Q

vitamin K dependant clotting factors

A

10, 9, 7, 2 and protein C

462
Q

labs when vitamin K is decreased

A

PT/PTT are both elevated

463
Q

treatment for cyclical vomiting syndrome

A

anti-emetics and IVF

464
Q

recurrent vomiting that is bilious

A

intestinal malrotation with possible hypovolemic shock

465
Q

how to diagnose leprosy

A

skin bx - leprosy is not culturable

466
Q

how is leprosy spread

A

respiratory droplets

467
Q

other non conventional way leprosy is spread

A

armadillos

468
Q

what type of disease is leprosy

A

chronic granulomoatous

469
Q

pt with gradually worsening back pain over 2 months that is worse at night or when he is lying down with bladder dysfunction this week

A

spinal cord compression

470
Q

late findings in spinal cord compression

A

bladder or bowel findings

471
Q

reason for using glucocorticoids in spinal cord compression

A

decrease vasogenic edema

472
Q

how to diagnose spinal cord compression

A

MRI

473
Q

most common time to rupture a popliteal cyst

A

strenous exercise

474
Q

why do a u/s after a ruptured popliteal cyst

A

rule out DVT

475
Q

most common reason for well defined medial knee pain that is subacute

A

pes anserinus syndrome

476
Q

what drops first in first 12 hours of fasting

A

glycogen stores

477
Q

substrates for gluconeogenesis

muscle breakdown?

anaerobic glycolysis?

triacylglycerol in adipose?

A

muscle breakdown - gluconeogenic aa

anaerobic glycolysis - lactic acid

triacylglycerol in adipose - glycerol 3 phosphate

478
Q

main gluconeogenic aa in liver

A

alanine

479
Q

alanine is converted to pyruvate by

A

alanine aminotransferase

480
Q

pt with a hx of gallstones

jaundiced

vs

non-jaundiced

A

jaundiced - stone is lodged in bile duct

non-jaundiced - stone is lodged in cystic duct

481
Q

pt with hx of gallstones

mild increase in alk phos

major increase in alk phos

A

minor - probably stone in cystic duct

major increase - probably in bile duct

482
Q

differentiate

esophagel mucosal tear vs transmural tear

A

mucosal - mallory weiss

transmural - Boerhaave

483
Q

how to diagnose mallory weiss vs boerhaave

A

EGD for mallory weiss

CT or ECG with gastrograafin for boerhaave

484
Q

pt with vomiting, subcutaneous emphysema, increased amylase, widened mediastinum, decreased pH

A

boerhaave

485
Q

how to treat a pt with heat stroke over 104

A

ice bath

486
Q

tx for osteomyelitis

s aureus

vs

salmonella

A

s aureus: nafcillin/oxacillin/clidamycin/vancomysin

s enteridits: that + ceftriaxone

487
Q

timeline for s/p infections with

GAS/c perfringens

others

indolent

A

24hrs to 1 week

1 week to 1 month

>1 month

488
Q

most common cause of spontaneous abortion

A

chromosomal abnormality

489
Q

treatment for inevitable abortion

A

prostoglandin admin

suction and curretage

depands on pts wishes and hemodynamic stability

490
Q

management stages for cancer pain

mild

moderate

severe

severe intractable

A

mild: acetaminophen/NSAIDs
moderate: weak opiates like tramadol, codeine, hydrocodone (NORCO 5/10)
severe: short acting opioids like morphine or hydromorphone

severe intractable: long acting like fentanyl patch or oxycodone

491
Q

age when you reach adult levels of bilirubin

A

2 weeks

492
Q

how long should physiologic jaundice last

A

1-2 weeks

493
Q

treatment for physiologic jaundice

if bilirubin is rising quickly

if >20-25

A

frequent feedings, natural sunlight

phototherapy

exchange transfusion

494
Q

most common reason for drug induced psychosis

A

glucocorticoids

495
Q

if pt cannot be removed from antipsychotics but is having EPS

A

move to clozapine

496
Q

next steps in palpable breast mass by age

<30

>30

A

< 30 = u/s then mammogram

> 30 = mammogram then u/s

497
Q

edema and ulceration on medial malleolus of the foot

A

venous HTN with stasis dermatitis

498
Q

maternal fever with uterine tenderness, m/f tachycardia, malodorous amniotic fluid, purulent vaginal discharge

A

chorioamnionitis

probably from prolonged rupture of membranes

499
Q

treatment for chorioamnionitis

A

broad spectrum abx (clindamycin, gentamicin, or ampicillin)

+ delivery with oxytocin

500
Q

what should you do for someone with prolonged rupture of membranes

A

oxytocin and rapid vaginal delivery

501
Q

is chorioamnionitis an inidication for c section

A

no

502
Q

patient is an elderly male, with agitation, suprapubic tenderness, s/p surgery

A

acute urinary retention

503
Q

liklihood of developing AUR s/p surgery is greatest in what population

A

>80yo males

VERY uncommon in women

504
Q

diagnose AUR?

A

bladder u/s

505
Q

exudative effusion from lymphatic flow disruption

A

chylothorax

506
Q

exudative effusion with increase in triglycerides

A

chylothorax

507
Q

liquid effusion with T-cell lymphocytes, immunoglobulins, chylomicrons

A

chylothorax

508
Q

how to treat a chylothorax

A

thoracentesis (or chest tube), decrease dietary fat, possible thoracic duct ligation

509
Q

exudative effusion labs

A

pleural/serum protein = >0.5

pleural/serum LDH = >0.6

pleural LDH = >2/3 of upper limit

510
Q

causes of exudative pleural effusions

A

empyema, chylothorax, malignancy, TB

511
Q

diagnosis for exudative pleural effusion with PMNs and gram (-)

A

empyema

512
Q

diagnosis for exudative pleural effusion with milky white fluid and increased TGs

A

chylothorax

513
Q

diagnosis for exudative pleural effusion with abnormal cytology

A

malignancy

514
Q

diagnosis for exudative pleural effusion with acid fast bacteria

A

TB

515
Q

pt with DM2, unilateral loss of facial expression and decreased taste sensation

A

MOE from p aeruginosa

516
Q

diagnose a MOE

A

CT or MRI

517
Q

treatment for MOE

A

oral cipro - topical cannot be used

518
Q

treatment for bacterial meningitis in infant >1 month

A

ceftriaxone or cefotaxime for s pneumo and n meningitidis

vanc for resistant s pneumo

519
Q

cefotaxime vs ceftriaxone in infants <1 month

A

use cefotaxime

ceftriaxone increases the risk of kernicterus by displacing bilirubin from albumin

520
Q

decrease the risk of hearing loss in h flu type b meningitis

A

dexamethasone

521
Q

empiric abx vs lumbar puncture in infants

A

lumbar puncture emergently when possible

522
Q

agitation, irritability, psychosis without delirium, chest pain and palpitations, tachycardia, HTN, diaphoresis, mydriasis

A

amphetamine toxicity

523
Q

PAS+ material in lamina propria of small intestine

A

Whipples

524
Q

treatment for whipples

A

ceftriaxone for 1 week

TMP-SMX for one year

525
Q

most common cause of HUS

A

shiga

526
Q

pt presents with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, AKI

A

HUS

527
Q

glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency is also known as

A

type 1 glycogen storage disease

von Gierkes

528
Q

impaired conversion of glycogen to glucose

A

glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency

529
Q

6 month old child with doll like face, thin extremities, rounded cheeks, short stature, hepatomegaly, hyperuricemia, hyperlipidemia

A

glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency

530
Q

how to calculate B cells

A

lymphocytes - CD8 - CD4

531
Q

all Ig levels are decreased, very few B cells

A

Brutons/XLA

532
Q

why do Bruton’s get sick after 6 months

A

maternal IgG wanes

533
Q

16 month old pt with recurrent AOM, pneumo, GI problems

A

Brutons XLA

534
Q

differentiate between SVID and Brutons

A

Brutons has decreased B cells and Ig

SVID has decreased Ig but normal B

535
Q

pt with congenital heart problems, T cell deficiency, and hypocalcemia

A

DiGeorge

536
Q

SCID vs Brutons

A

Brutons has low B cells

SCID has low T cells that leads to low B cells

537
Q

infant with low IgG, normal B cells and spontaneously gets better at 11 months

A

transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy

538
Q

RUQ pain and lower abdominal discomfort

A

PID with Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

539
Q

hyperprolactinemia from antipsychotic use - which pathways involved

A

decreased dopamine in the TI pathway

540
Q

why do you see gynecomastia in men on antipsychotics

A

TI pathway secretes less dopamine and so there is more prolactin release from the anterior pituitary

541
Q

increased prolactin levels, gynecomastia, sexual dysfunction, while on antipsychotic - why

A

D2 antagonism of the TI pathway

542
Q

posterior cervical lymphadenopathy with sore throat and fever

A

EBV - mono

do a monospot test

543
Q

how long do EBV ab last

A

up to one year

544
Q

treatment for bacillary angiomatosis

A

erythromycin

545
Q

what causes bacillary angiomatosis

A

bartonella (gram negative)

546
Q

most common cause of diabetic foot infection

A

polymicrobial by contiginous spread

547
Q

organisms most likely involved in diabetic foot infections

A

mixture of gram positive - s aureus or s pyogenes

and gram negative - p aeruginosa or anaerobic

548
Q

degeneration and atrophy of outer retina, retinal pigment epithelium, Bruch’s membrane, choriocapillaries

A

age related macular degeneration

549
Q

progressive bilateral central loss of vision in pt >50

A

age related macular degeneration

550
Q

best index to measure DKA

A

serum anion gap and BH

551
Q

proper fluid treatment of DKA

A

0.9% saline

D5 when glucose is under 200

552
Q

pt with DKA and K of 5.1

A

give IV K because they’re still depleted

553
Q

what must you do if a pt w/DKA and K of 3.0

A

hold insulin!

554
Q

when should you give bicarb in DKA metabolic acidosis

A

pH <6.9

555
Q

why do you measure the anion gap in DKA

A

when the anion gap is low you lose the ketoacids

556
Q

digital clubbing with sudden onset arthroplasty

A

hypertrophic osteoarthropathy from lung CA

557
Q

how does macular degeneration occur

A

asx

unilateral

bilateral

558
Q

pt with visual disturbance that seems like straight lines are squiggly and opthalmic exam shows drusen deposits

A

macular degenerations

559
Q

pt with hx of liver transplant and immunosuppressive drugs develops pneumonia with elevated lactate and fever

A

PCP

560
Q

how to diagnose PCP

A

bronchiolarlavage because it cannot be cultured

561
Q

gait dysfunction, truncal ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor, impaired alternating movements

A

cerebellar degeneration

562
Q

morning vomiting, nocturnal headaches, recurrent OE

A

possible malignant OE

563
Q

how to diagnose malignant OE

A

use CT or MRI

564
Q

pt has been vomiting and getting headaches recently and now pt now cannot look R out of the R eye

A

malignant OE

565
Q

hypochloremia, hypokalemia, increased bicarb with vomiting

A

gastrointestinal losses

566
Q

what do you treat GI loss vomiting with

A

isotonic NaCl and K

567
Q

nonsmoking pt with chronic cough with purulent sputum

A

bronchiectasis

568
Q

most common etiology of bronchiectasis

A

CF and A1-AT deficiency, hypogammaglobulinemia, RA, sjogrens, lung cancer, recurrent aspiration, chronic lung infection

569
Q

pt with dyspnea, sinus conhection, fever, wt loss, hemoptysis, mucopurulent sputum

A

bronchtiectasis

570
Q

dx for bronchiectasis

A

high res CT

571
Q

intermittent knee pain with catching of the joint and occasional limited ROM

A

meniscal tear

572
Q

pt twisted foot while in a flexed position

A

meniscal tear

573
Q

tests for meniscal tear

A

McMurry and Tressalay tests

574
Q

carotid endarterectomy (CEA) is indicated in pts with stenosis of 70-99%

A

all other pts should be on antiplatelet agent with statins

575
Q

elevated serum Cr and abnormal u/a (proteinura and RBCs)

A

renal parenchymal disease

576
Q

severe HTN (180/120), >55, flash pulmonary edema, increased Cr, abdominal bruit

A

renovascular

577
Q

hypokalemia, hypernatremia, HTN with adrenal incidentaloma

A

primary aldosteronism

578
Q

paroxysmal increase in BP with tachycardia, pouding headache, eccymosis, amenorrhea, HTN with adrenal incidentalomas

A

cushings

579
Q

increased calcium, polyuria, polydipsia, kidney stones, neuropsychiatric issue

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

580
Q

differentiatial HTN with brachial femoral pulse delay

A

coarctation of aorta

581
Q

IE iwth prosthetic valves

with

IV catheter, pacemaker, IVDA

A

s aureus

582
Q

IE with gingival manipulation, respiratory tract incision

A

viridans

583
Q

IE with prosthetic valves, IV catheters, implants

A

s epidermidis

584
Q

IE and nosocomial UTI

A

enterococci

585
Q

IE and colon cancer with IBS

A

s bovis

586
Q

IE and immunocompromised, IV catheter, prolonged abx

A

Fungi/candida

587
Q

health care associated IE

A

s aureus

588
Q

community acquired IE

A

strep

589
Q

most important thing in rib fracture management

A

pain control

590
Q

what can happen if adequate pain control in rib breakage isnt there

A

atelectasis and pneumo

591
Q

tx for extensive rib fracture

A

inpatient with epidural

592
Q

risk of using intercostal nerve block in broken ribs

A

can cause iatrogenic pneumothorax

593
Q

tx for mild rib fracture

A

NSAIDs like ketoralac or ibuprofen or opiods

594
Q

problem with using opioids in rib fracture

A

decreased respiration

595
Q

dumping syndrome happens how often

A

50% of postgastrectomy

596
Q

dumping syndrome cause

A

decrease in normal action of the pyloric sphincter

597
Q

rapid emptying of hypertonic gastric contents into the duodenum and small intestine

A

dumping syndrome

598
Q

pt is s/p surgery presents with nausea diarrhea, abdominal cramps, palpitations, diaphoresis

A

dumping syndrome

599
Q

pt with hx of bipolar disorder presents with immobility and mutism

A

catatonia

treat with lorazepam

can also use ECT

600
Q

when would you do a fetal non stress test

A

at risk pregnancies for fetal hypoxia and demise

601
Q

what is a reactive fetal NST

A

>2 accelerations

602
Q

fetal sleep cycle lasts how long

A

40 mins

603
Q

how long should a fetal NST be

A

20 mins unless no accelerations then 40-120 mins

604
Q

naltrexone is contraindicated in

A

pt taking opiods, acute hepatitis, liver failure

605
Q

first line meds for alchoholism

A

acamprosate

naltrexone

606
Q

difference between acamprosate vs naltrexone

A

acamprosate - after abstinence

naltrexone - still drinking

607
Q

vitiligo is associated with what

A

autoimmune disease like pernicious anemia, primary adrenal insufficiency, alopecia areta, RA, sjogrens

608
Q

nonmalignant reasons for increased CA125

A

leiomyomata and endometriosis

609
Q

how to dx PPROM

A

nitrazine and fern tests with clear fluid emerging

610
Q

complications of PPROM

A

chorioamnionitis, endometritis, cord prolapse, abruptio placenta

611
Q

red velvety rectal mucosal on posterior vaginal wall

A

rectovaginal fistula

612
Q

8yo F pt with precocious puberty

A

granulosa cell tumor

613
Q

pt with recurrent skin infestations and peridonitis with delayed wound healing and leukocytosis with neutrophilia

A

LAD

614
Q

pt with recurrent wound healing and decreased pus

A

LAD

615
Q

lymphopenia, decreased mature B/T lymphocytes, failure to thrive

A

AR adenosine deaminase deficiency

616
Q

pt has recurrent disseminated infection like strep and staph, h flu, n meningitidis

A

complement deficiency

617
Q

sinopulmonary and GI infections with decreased B cells

A

Brutons

618
Q

pt with recurrent catalase positive organisms (s aureus, s marcesans, b cepacia)

A

CGD

619
Q

Human milk contains

A

lactoferin, lysozyme, secretory IgA

620
Q

main source of protein in human milk

A

whey

621
Q

mast cell activation in the superficial dermis which increases the release of multiple mediators (histamine) that causes pruritis and localized swelling in upper layers of skin

A

urticaria

622
Q

mast cell activation in the deeper dermal and subcutaneous tissues

A

angioedema

623
Q

causes of acute urticaria

A

viral, bacterial, parasitic, NSAIDs, IgE, abx, insect bites, latex, food, narcotics, radiocontrast, muscle relaxers

624
Q

causes of chronic urticaria

A

cold, skin pressure, serum sickness, autoimmune, vasculitis, malignancy

625
Q

pt with pruritic, scaly, papules in patches in flexural areas and the face

A

atopic dermatitis

626
Q

erythemetous papules and vesicles that developed over an afternoon

A

contact dermatitis

627
Q

erythematous target shaped lesion with bullae that are painfull and pruritic on extensor surfaces and palms and soles

A

erythema multiforme

628
Q

non pitting, non pruritic, edematous swelling of the subcutaneous tissues

A

idiopathic angioedema

629
Q

pink colored patch 2 weeks after viral illness that is closely followed by eruption of multiple scaly/ovioid plaques on the back and flexar surfaces of UE

A

pityriasis rosacea

630
Q

pt had fever and illness 2 days ago and now has non pruritic erythemetous maculopapular eruptions

A

viral exanthum

631
Q

pt with spontaneous pain, odynophagia, for cold/hot food

A

diffuse esophageal spasm

632
Q

dx for diffuse esophageal spasem

A

EGD

then manometry

633
Q

what might EGD show for diffuse esophageal spasm

A

corkscrew shapes

634
Q

what will esophageal manometry show for spasm

A

repetitive, non peristaltic increased amplitude contractions

635
Q

episodes of dysphagia, regurgitaiton, and or chest pain precipitated by emoitional stress

A

esophageal motility disorder like diffuse esophageal spasm

636
Q

5 yo pt with acute liver failure, encephalopathy, increased AST/ALT, increased PT/INR/PTT, increased amonium

A

Reye’s

637
Q

ASA use in which setting most commonly causes Reye’s syndrome in children

A

influenzza B

varicella zoster vax adn flu A

638
Q

mitochondrial toxin that can cause acute hepatic dysfunction in young individuals

A

ASA

639
Q

what will you see on the liver bx of Reye’s

A

microvesicular steatosis

640
Q

exceptions to ASA use in children

A

Kawasaki

jeuvenile arthritis

641
Q

fundoscopy shows yellow white fluffy hemorrhagic lesions along the vasculature

A

CMV retinitis

tx with valgancyclovir

642
Q

pt complains of blurred vision, floaters, photpsia

A

CMV retinitis

643
Q

mc organisms in “fight bite”

A

s aureus

strep

eikenella corrodens

h flu

644
Q

tx for “fight bite”

A

augmentin

becuase of gram postiive and negative coverage and beta lactamase

645
Q

how should a “fight bite” would heal

A

secondary intention

646
Q

pt with cirrhosis is found to have medium sized non bleeding esophageal varicies

A

non selective beta blocker like propranolol

647
Q

how do non selective beta blockers work on varicies

A

decrease adrenergic tone in mesenteric arterioles which leads to unopposed alpha mediated vasoconstriction and decrease portal venous flow

648
Q

types of prevention in varicies

A

non selective beta blockers

endoscopic ligation

649
Q

treatment with EPO can cause what

A

HTN

650
Q

anemia in ESRD

A

normochromic normocytic from EPO deficiency

651
Q

pt with ESRD and hematocrit <30%

A

treat with EPO

652
Q

tx of EPO caused HTN

A

dialysis and antihypertensives

653
Q

tx for viral conjunctivitis

A

cool compress and antihistamines

654
Q

mcc of viral conjunctivitis

A

adenovirus

655
Q

micro vs macroprolactinoma

A

<10mm vs >10mm

656
Q

when do you treat a prolactinoma

A

>10mm or if less, symptomatic

657
Q

why do you see oligomenorrhea in premenopausal women with sx prolactinoma

A

decrease in GnRH leads to a decrease in LH and a decrease in estrafiol

658
Q

ppl who are less likely to see a prolactinoma

A

men and postmenopausal women

659
Q

tx for prolactinoma

A

cabergoline or bromocriptine

660
Q

medications causing hearing loss or tinitus

A

aminoglycosides

chemotherapy

ASA

loops

661
Q

metabolic states that can exacerbate hepatic encephalopathy

A

hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis

662
Q

pt with hepatic encephalopathy needs what emergent theraputic interventions

A

potassium repletion

intravascular volume repletion

lactulose to decrease amonium levels

663
Q

newoborn with cyanosis during feeding, relieved by crying

A

choanal atresia

664
Q

pt with choanal atresia could be part of what larger syndrome

A

CHARGE

Coloboma

Heart defects

Atresia choanal

Retardation

GU anomalies

Ear abnormalites

665
Q

infant pt with inability to pass catheter through nares

A

cholanal atresia

666
Q

dx a cholanal atresia

A

CT shows narrow at level of pterygoid

667
Q

tx for cholanal atresia

A

surgery or endoscopy

668
Q

peripheral edema is a common side effect of what HTN meds

A

dihydropyridine CCBs (amlodipine)

669
Q

eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions with alpha synuclein protein

A

dementia with lewy bodies

670
Q

tx for lewy body dementia

A

cholinesterase inhibitors

then low dose of 2nd gen antipsychotic

671
Q

goal rate of plasma sodium correction

A

no more than 1mEg/L/hr

672
Q

initial tx for severe hypovolemic hypernatremia

A

normal saline

can move to 1/2 normal saline once volume is restored

673
Q

pts with mild hypovolemic hypernatremic are usually treated with what

A

1/2 normal saline + D5

674
Q

dyspnea, orthopnea, lower limb edema, displaced apical impulse, and bilateral lung crackles

A

CHF from LV systolic dysfunction

675
Q

what is a predictor of severity in CHF

A

hyponatremia caused by increased renin, norepi, ADH

676
Q

tx for CHF induced hyponatremia

A

fluid restriction, ACE-I, loops

677
Q

15 yo F with fever, headache, severe myalgias, nuchal rigidity

A

n meningitidis

678
Q

CSF findings of N meningitidis

A

low glucose <45

high protein >500

neutrophilic leukocytosis >1000

679
Q

is dexamethsone useful in meningococcal meningitis

A

no

680
Q

where will you find aspiration pneumo

A

supine - posterior segments of upper lobes or apical lower lobes

standing - lower lobes

681
Q

tx for aspiration pneumonia

A

clindamycin, augmentin (good anaerobic coverage)

682
Q

In hypovolemic shock what can happen when you start mechanical ventilation

A

acute loss of right ventricular preload, CO, and sudden cardiac death

683
Q

severe hypovolemia leads to decreased CO how

A

hypovolemia → ↓central venous pressure → ↓venous return to RA → ↓CO

684
Q

positive pressure mechanical ventilation can cause what negative effect

A

acute increase in intrathoracic pressure which can colapse the venous system (IVC)

685
Q

drug type that can cause adverse pulmonary reactions in hypovolemia

A

sedatives becuase of acute loss of R ventricular preload

686
Q

pt with erythematous papules that erode into painful penile ulcers with defined borders, purulent exudate, painful, inguinal lympahoid

A

h ducreyi

687
Q

tx for h ducreyi

A

z pack

688
Q

tx for clubfoot

A

if undertaken immediately - stretching, serial casting, manipulatin of the foot

689
Q

hip fracture with increased risk of avascular necrosis

A

intracapsular fracture

690
Q

hip fracture that requires more implants

A

extracapsular

691
Q

when should surgery be done for a hip fracture

A

immediately but can be up to 72 hours to address other issues

692
Q

pt is 80 yo and fell and broke hip but doesn’t recall the incident

A

check cardiac enzymes, CT, EKG, CXR

693
Q

spinal malformation seen in downs

A

atlantoaxial instability

694
Q

downs pt with beahvioural changes, torticollis, dizziness, vertigo, leg spacticity, hyperreflexia and posiitve babinski

A

atlantoaxial instability

695
Q

how to dx atlantoaxial instability

A

lateral radiographs of cervical spine in flexion, extension and neutral

696
Q

tx for atlantoaxial instability

A

C/C2 fusion

697
Q

downs syndrome with UMN sx

A

atlantoaxial instability

698
Q

ASA toxicity metabolic results

A

initial respiratory alkalosis that becomes metabolic acidosis because of this pH will be near 7.4 but CO2 will be low and HCO3 will be low

699
Q

low pH with low CO2 and low bicarb means

A

metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis

700
Q

how does anion gap metabolic acidosis occut

A

uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondrion leading to anaerobic metabolism with resultant HCO3 from acid buildup

701
Q

what does a normal pH in acid disturbance mean

A

mixed respiratory and metabolic acid base

702
Q

pt with increased osmolar gap and increased anion gap with vision loss

A

metabolic acidosis with anion gap from methanol poisning

703
Q

hypokalemia with anion gap metabolic acidosis in pt with alcholism

A

alcholism and vomiting

704
Q

hemodynamically unstable pt after GSW

A

needs laparotomy if FAST is inconclusive or shows you need it

705
Q

what should you do if you dont see a pregnancy with beta hcg of 1000

A

remeasure in 2 days because it will be 1500-2000 by then adn that should be visible on u/s

706
Q

pt who is depressed and sleepy

A

buproprion because it is mildly stimulating

707
Q

contraindication for raloxifene/tamoxifen

A

hx of VTE

708
Q

increased risk of uterine hyperplastia/CA

A

tamoxifen

709
Q

does not increase chance of endometrial CA

A

raloxifene

710
Q

tamoxifene toxicity

A

uterus

711
Q

7yo M with bloody diarrhea 1 week ago now has fatigue, pallor, shistocytes on smear with bruising and edema

A

HUS

712
Q

% of children who get HUS after e coli

A

15%

713
Q

electrolytes you lose from GI from vomiting

A

hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia because GI is rich in H+, chloride, K

714
Q

dx bronchiectasis

A

HRCT

715
Q

lobar or segmental lung collapse

A

atelectasis (decreased lung volume)

716
Q

accumulation of pharyngeal secretions, airway tissue edema, tongue collapsing into pharynx from surgery

A

atelectasis

717
Q

how does pain lead to respiratory alkalsosis

A

pain decreases spontaneous coughing and deep breathing fail and cause atelectasis

718
Q

atelectasis is more common following what kind of surgeries

A

abdominal

719
Q

atelectasis can cause what

A

significant v/q mismatch leading to hypoxemia

720
Q

atelectasis is most severe when

A

days 2-5 post op

721
Q

2 post op pulmonary problems that cause similar ABGs

A

atelectasis

PE

both cause respiratory alkalosis

722
Q

ABG of pt post op day 2 shows hypoxemia, hypocapnia, respiratory alkalosis

A

atelectasis

723
Q

mc reasons for atelectaisis

A

retained airway secretions

decreased lung compliance

post op pain

opioids

724
Q

normal reactive NST (fetal) should have how many accelerations

A

>2, >15bpm above baseline, >15 seconds long within a 20 min period

725
Q

how often should someone have a fetal NST

A

once a week if everything is normal in a high risk pregnancy

726
Q

what score on a fetal NST rules out hypoxia

A

8-10/10

727
Q

mcc of galactorhea is a woman taking antipsychotic

A

risperidone

728
Q

hyperprolactinemia in an antipsychotic use vs prolactinoma

A

antipsychotic - 25-100ng/ml

prolactinoma - >200ng/ml

729
Q

pt with increased MCHC, hemolytic anemia, jaundice and splenomegaly in someone from northern europe

A

hereditary spherocytosis

730
Q

pt with increased MCHC, splenomegaly, RUQ pain, positive murphy’s sign, leukocytosis

A

hereditary spherocytosis with pigment gallstones

731
Q

vitamin ppl with hereditary spherocytosis need

A

folate

chronic hemolysis consumes folate

732
Q

pt with decreased GnRH, FSH, estrogen

A

hypothalamic hypogonadism - everything is decreased

733
Q

differentiate between primary ovarian insufficiency and PCOS

A

POI - hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, increased GnRH, FSH, decreased estrogen

PCOS - increased GnRH, estrogen, normal FSH

734
Q

best way to establish airway with no facial trauma

A

orotracheal

735
Q

when is nasotracheal intubation contrindicated

A

apneic/hypotonic pts

basilar skull fracture

736
Q

pt with parkinsons taking disease appropriate drugs develops acute headache, nausea, conjunctival redness

A

trihexyphenidyl

737
Q

how to increase the murmur of HOCM

A

valsalva because of decreased preload and ventricular cavity size

738
Q

pt has epidural and experiences hypotension

A

symptomatic nerve fibers are blocked and vascular tone decreases and leads to vasodilation

739
Q

persistant hypotension during labor can lead to what

A

fetal acidosis

740
Q

tx for epidural induced hypotension

A

turn mother on her L side

IV fluids or vasopressors

741
Q

1st line treatment for bipolar disorder

A

quetiapine, lurisadone, lamotrigine

742
Q

pt is dx with gastric adenocarcinoma next step

A

CT scan to stage

743
Q

differentiate between primary and secondary hyperthyroidism

A

primary - TSH decreased, T3/T4 increased

secondary - TSH/T3/T4 increased

744
Q

pt presents with nodular uptake on thyroid scan

A

toxic adenoma

745
Q

pt presents with diffuse uptake of thyroidism

A

Graves

746
Q

pharyngitis and fever and decreased abdominal pain

A

h meningitidis

747
Q

pt is 67 yo male with hx of BPH, increased Cr

A

dx u/s renal for hydronephrosis

748
Q

only IV fluids recommended for children

A

normal crystalloid

749
Q

mc association bt eikenella corrodens and IE

A

dental problems (gram neg anaerobe)

750
Q

pericardial effusion shows on EKG

A

electrical alternans

751
Q

precocious puberty, cafe au lait spots, polyostotic fibrosis dysplasia

A

McCune Albrights

752
Q

pt with precocious puberty, hyperthyroid, adrenal hypercortisolism with a defect in the G protein cAMP-kinase function in affected tissue

A

McCune Albright

753
Q

McCune Albright vs NF1

A

MA - the cafe au lait spots are large with irregular borders

754
Q

16 month old pt with recurrent severe sinopulmonary infection with increased IgM and decreased IgA and IgG

A

CD40 ligand dysfunction (hyper IgM)

755
Q

genetic problem with CD40 ligand dysfunction

A

X-linked

756
Q

why does CD40 ligand deficiency casue immunocompromise

A

prevents class switching and inhibits B cell and plasma cell maturation

757
Q

types of infection CD40 ligand deficiency is at risk for

A

viral

PCP

acute otitis media

pneumonia

758
Q

pt became severely dyspneic after ingesting naproxen and has seasonal allergies

A

AERD

759
Q

AERD is commonly associated with which physical problem

A

nasal polyps

760
Q

pt cant taste food well and has constant nasal drip

A

AERD with nasal polyps

761
Q

pH of trichomonas

A

>4.5

762
Q

how to calculate anion gap

A

Na + bicarb - chloride

763
Q

worst colonic polyps

A

sessile and villous

764
Q

10 yo boy with headache, vomiting, limited upward gaze

A

pinealoma

765
Q

pt is found to have a back up of CSF into the aqueduct of sylvius because of a mass

A

pinealoma

766
Q

limitation of upward gaze, bilateral eyelid retractions, light-near dissociation

A

parinauds - pineal gland tumor

767
Q

pt is experiencing pericarditis following infarction 1 week ago

A

Dresslers

tx with NSAIDs

768
Q

what should you not give in Dresslers

A

anticoagulation because it can cause hemorrhagic pericardial effusion

769
Q

heart condition association with acromegaly

A

concentric myocardial hypertrophy

770
Q

acromegaly causes

A

concentric hypertrophy, diastolic dysfunction, LV dilation, global hypokinesia, valvular heart disease

771
Q

pt with alarm systems with GERD

A

EGD with bx

772
Q
A
773
Q
A
774
Q

pt with post surgical atelectasis would should what kind of ABG and why

A

respiratory alkalosis

lobar or segmental collapse and pharyngeal secretions taking up room and leading to V/Q mismatch

775
Q

when is atelectasis the most severe

A

second s/p night

776
Q

when pts become hypoxemic from atelectasis what happens

A

hyperventilation leading to respiratory alkalosis with a >pH,

777
Q

what has similar blood gas readings to atelectasis

A

PE

778
Q

prevention techniques for atelectasis post surgery

A

breathing exercises, incentive spirometry, forced expiration techniques

pain control, CPAP, chest physical therapy

779
Q

MC surveillance modality in high risk pregnancies

A

biophysical profile

780
Q
A
781
Q

best initial test in squamous cell head and neck CA

A

panendoscopy - esophageal, bronchial, laryngeal

782
Q

pt with difficulty climbing stairs and combing hair

differentiate bt myasthenia gravis and polymyositis

A

MG - can involve bulbar symptoms and occular

Polymyositis - increased CK, symmetric proximal muscle weakness

783
Q

MCC of lower extremity edema

A

venous insifficiency

784
Q

pt with headaches (holocranial and pulsating), blurry vision when looking sideways, obesity, empty sella

A

pseudotumor cerebri

785
Q

associated meds with pseudotumor cerebri

A

isotretoin, tetracyclines, growth hormon, increased vitamin A

786
Q

present in 70% of pts with pseudotumor cerebri

A

empty sella

787
Q

pt with opening CSF pressure of >250

A

diagnostic for IIH/pseudotumor cerebri

788
Q

breast mass in pt <30 - tender, mobile, posterior acoustic enhancement

A

simple breast cyst

789
Q

what does a biophysical profile show

A

NST + amnionic fluid volume, fetal breathing movement, fetal movement, fetal tone

790
Q

when shouldnt you use a CST

A

placenta previa, myectomy

791
Q

normal amniotic fluid on fetal NST

A

single pocket of >2x1cm or amnionic fluid index >5

792
Q

score of 4/10 on biophysical profile

A

fetal hypoxia

793
Q

risk factors for placental insufficiency

A

tobacco, age, HTN, DM

794
Q

watery diarrhea in HIV +

A

cryptosporidium - +low grade fever

microsporidium - +no fever

MAC - +high fever

795
Q

pt with HIV presents with fatigue, low grade fever, wt loss, frequent low volume stools with blood colonoscopy shows eosinophilic intranuclear and basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions

A

CMV diarrhea

796
Q

pt with TB, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, fever, cough, eosinophilia

A

primary adrenal insufficiency - Addisons disease

797
Q

what happens to kidney if aldosterone is deficienct

A

decreased Na

increased K

increased H+

metabolic acidosis, normal anion gap

798
Q

pt with TB and metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap

A

Addisons

799
Q

21 year old pt with diagnosis of chorioretinitis was likely asx for what as a neonate

A

toxoplasmosis

800
Q

5 day old infant with intracerebral calcifications and ventriculomegaly

A

toxoplasmosis

801
Q

pins and needles ascending pain

A

GBS

802
Q

3 components of the glascow coma scale

A

eye opening

verbal response

motor respose

803
Q

Glascow coma scale tells you

A

severity and prognosis

804
Q

risk factors for febrile seizures

A

influenza, adenovirus, HHV6, bacterial, immunizations, family hx

805
Q

work up needed for febrile seizures

A

none

806
Q

pt with suspected bladder cancer - next step

A

CT with contrast and cytoscopy

807
Q

MC helminth infection in the US

A

enterobius

808
Q

tx for enterobius

A

albendazole

pyrantal pamoate

809
Q

what you see on peripheral smear of someone with sickle cell >5 yo

A

Howell Jolly bodies

810
Q

blunt abdominal trauma - what first

A

alert? FAST scan

not-alert? CT

811
Q

if FAST is limited or equivocal what is next

A

DPL

812
Q

unstable pt with postive FAST

A

laparotomy

813
Q

indications for corticosteroid use in PCP

A

PaO2 <70

A-a >35

814
Q

massive PE can casue what cardiac malfunction

A

decreased RV output and increased O2 demand/wall tension

815
Q

differentiate PE from RVMI

A

RVMI won’t have dyspnea

816
Q

acute increase in pulmonary resistance

A

PE

817
Q

when would you give an RH(-) woman RhoD

A

2nd pregnancy

OR

in a first pregnancy: hemorrhage or abortion

818
Q

tx for croup

moderate-severe?

mild?

A

moderate to severe - racemic epi

mild - dexamethasone

819
Q

medications that should be held for 48 hours before a stress test

A

beta blockers

CCBs

nitrates

820
Q

medications that cause UTI in elderly

A

alpha adrenergic

anticholingergic

opiates

CCBs

diuretics

821
Q

which tests at initial prenatal exam

A

RhD, hemoglobin/hematocrit, HIV, VDRL, rubella, chlamydia, urine culture/protein

822
Q

which prenatal tests at 24-28 weeks

A

hemoglobin/hematocrit, antibody screen in Rh(-), 50g glucose tolerance test

823
Q

which prenatal tests at 35-37 weeks

A

GBS

824
Q

herpes zoster that causes bells palsy

A

Ramsay Hunt

825
Q

occipital headache, neck stiffness, nausea, vomiting, nystagmus, hemataxia on the R side

A

L intraparenchymal hemorrage

826
Q

fatigue, weight loss, malaise, nausea, vomiting, patchy hyperpigmentism, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia

A

Addisions

827
Q

what causes syncope in Addisons

A

volume depletion from hyponatremia

828
Q

reason for hyperkalemia in Addisons

A

mineralocorticoid deficiency

829
Q

reason for hyponatremia in Addisons

A

renal Na loss and increased ADH

830
Q

what do you always give after premature preterm rupture of membranes

A

antibiotics

831
Q

what drug should you give in PPROM at 34-37 weeks

A

penicillin if the mother hsn’t had the GBS test yet

832
Q

pulsatile tinnitus, neck pain, flank pain, TIA, abdominal bruit, subauricular systolic bruit

A

fibromuscular dysplasia

833
Q

if FAST is postiive or DPL is positive what next

A

lapartotomy

834
Q

indiciation on FAST for a laparotomy

A

intraperitoneal fluid

835
Q

what symptoms does estrogen cause in cirrhosis

A

spider angiomatas, palmar erythema, gynecomastia, testicular atrophy

836
Q

what effects vascular wall dilation in cirrhosis

A

estrogen

837
Q
A
838
Q

muscle bx that shows infiltrates scattered throughout the muscle

A

dermato/poly myositis

839
Q

pt has sensory deficits and numbness and tingling in the foot

A

tarsal tunnel syndrome

840
Q

celiac disease is found on the same gene locus as what other AI disease

A

T1DM

841
Q

which test for celiac is no longer done because of poor sensitivity

A

anti gliadin

842
Q

intestinal bx of someone with chronic diarrhea showing increased epithelial lymphacytes, epithelial apoptosis, crypt hyperplasia

A

gluten intolerance celiac disease

843
Q

what virus is kaposi sarcoma the result of

A

HHV8 - herpes virus

844
Q

HIV + person with purple papules - distinguish between causes

A

kaposi sarcoma (from HHV8)

bartonella henselae - from cats

845
Q

medication that inhibits the H/K ATPase of the parietal ceclls

A

PPI

846
Q

pt on chemo for leukemia has lung infiltrates, fever, dyspnea, with decreased TLC

A

bleomycin induced pneumonitis

don’t forget this can cause FEVER!

847
Q

correct procedure after finding a testicular tumor

A

inguinal orichectomy - NEVER simple becuase you could seed the tumor

848
Q

first step in diagnosis with hypernatremia

A

urine osmalarity

849
Q

urine osmolality >700

A

hypernatremia from dehydration

850
Q

urine osmolality test <700 in someone with hypernatremia

A

water deprivation test with desmopressin to look for DI

851
Q

first sign of phenytoin toxicity

A

vertical nystagmus

852
Q

what can you use in place of ceftriaxone for n meningitidis

A

cefotaxime

853
Q

pharmacological therapy for frontotemporal dementia

A

none

854
Q

AI renal disease with no deposits

A

Wegners granulomatosis/granulomatosis with polyangittis

855
Q

renal disease associated with hemoptysis

A

GPA and goodpastures

856
Q

anti proteinase 3 antibodies and no glomerular deposits

A

GPA

857
Q

pt with afib and bilateral crackles with ground glass appearance

A

amiodarone induced restrictive lung disease

858
Q

pt with SOB, dyspnea, orthopnea, FEV1/FVC >80%, decreased TLC, cough, crackles

A

restrictive pattern of interstitial lung disease

859
Q

diagnosis for pulmonary HTN

A

right heart cath

860
Q

what else is elevated in pagets disease

A

urine hydroxyproline

861
Q

tx for pagets disease

A

bisphosphanates

862
Q
A