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STEP 2 > STEP 2 - UWORLD part 2 > Flashcards

STEP 2 - UWORLD part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

normally aldo does what

A

acts on the DCT/CD to reabsorb Na and secrete K/H into urine

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2
Q

common infections in cushings

A

nocardia, PCP, fungal

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3
Q

primary vs secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

primary - hypercalcemia

secondary - hypocalcemia

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4
Q

MC presentation of hyperparathyoidism

A

asymptomatic hypercalcemia

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5
Q

MCC of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

CKD

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6
Q

increased phos, low ca, low vitamin d

A

tertiary hyperparathyroidism

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7
Q

how to stimulate PTH normally

A

if you have elevated phos, low ca, and low calcitriol

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8
Q

CKD and increased PTH

A

restrict dietary phos, Ca based phos binder, vitamin D

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9
Q

labs in primary hyperparathyroidism

A

increased Ca and hypercalciuria
increased or NL PTH
hypophosphatemia

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10
Q

multifocal subperiostal bone reabsorption in distal phalanges on radiograph

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

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11
Q

> 50000 WBC on joint tap

A

septic joint

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12
Q

cloudy jiont tap, >2000WBC, 50% PMNs and +/- crystals

A

inflammed joint

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13
Q

antismooth muscle antibody

A

Lupus

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14
Q

11 things you need to have lupus (only need 4 of them)

A

Malar
Discoid

Serositis
Oral ulcer
Arthritis
Photosensitivity

Blood decreaed Hgb and pH
Renal failure
ANA+
Immunologic
Neuro
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15
Q

decreased C3/C4 in someone with a malar rash and fever

A

SLE

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16
Q

SLE tx

A

hydroxychloroquine
steroids during a flare
IV cyclophosphomide at beginning of nephritis
mycophenelate for nephritis after

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17
Q

MCC of drug indiced SLE

A

hydralazine

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18
Q

dsDNA

A

lupus nephritis

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19
Q

do you need to bx a suspected lupus nephritis

A

yes

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20
Q

first test for lupus

A

ANA

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21
Q

what joints does RA go for

A

RAlly small ones but never DIP

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22
Q

Arthritis that covers >3 joints, spares the DIP joints, morning stiffness lasts for >60 mins

A

RA

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23
Q

cholesterol nodules on fingers

A

RA

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24
Q

periarticular osteopenia on radiograph

A

RA

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25
Q

alternatives to MTX in RA

A

leflunimide unless pregnant then hydroxychloroquine

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26
Q

RA + splenomegaly + neutropenia

A

Felty’s

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27
Q

hands and face are tight, pt has GERDq

A

CREST (limited scleroderma)

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28
Q

tight face + GERD + constrictive pericarditis + renal problems

A

diffuse scleroderma

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29
Q

treatment for calcinosis and raynauds parts of CREST

A

CCBs

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30
Q

treatment for esophageal part of CREST

A

PPI

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31
Q

treatment for sclerodactyly part of CREST

A

penicillamine

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32
Q

never give what in renal crisis in scleroderma

A

steroids!

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33
Q

anticentromere

A

CREST

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34
Q

antiscl70/topoisomerase

A

sceleroderma

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35
Q

dry eyes, dry mouth (cavities), parotid swelling

A

sjogrens

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36
Q

Ro/La

A

sjogrens (check ANA/RF first)

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37
Q

myosities types

A

inclusion body - t-cell
polymyositis - t-cell
dermatomyositis - complex deposition

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38
Q

heliotrope rash
gottron’s papules
shawl sign

A

myosities

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39
Q

increased CK, EMG positive

A

myosities - bx will show which one

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40
Q

Anti Mi/Anti Jo

A

myosities

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41
Q

tx for renal problems in scleroderma

A

ACE

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42
Q

tx for poly/dermatomyositis

A

steroids

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43
Q

positive birefringeance with rhomboid shaped crystals

A

pseudogout

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44
Q

negative birefringeance with needle shaped crystals

A

gout

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45
Q

use which drugs in gout/pseudogout flare/prophylaxis

A

cochicine (unless CKD)
NSAIDs (unless bleeding)
steroids (if the other two are contraindicated)

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46
Q

when is probenicid used

A

when a person has gout and NO risk factors

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47
Q

prevent tumor lysis

A

IVF + allopurinol

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48
Q

fix tumor lysis

A

rasburicase

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49
Q

keep uric acid below what in gout

A

<6

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50
Q

Septic knee, suspect MSSA vs MRSA

A

nafcillin vs vanc/linezolid

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51
Q

shock with decreased breath sounds and trach deviation

A

hemothorax

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52
Q

hyperprolatinemia can also give what s/e in antipsychotics

A

sexual dys

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53
Q

unilateral cavernous hemangioma on trigeminal nerve and tramline intercranial calcifications with seizures

A

sturge-weber

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54
Q

depression symptoms within 3 months of a life change (school starts, breakup, move)

A

adjustment disorder

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55
Q

treatment for adjustment disorder

A

psychotherapy

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56
Q

diagnose lichen sclerosis

A

punch bx

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57
Q

treatment for lichen scleorisis

A

topical corticosteroid - clobestol

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58
Q

pH of BV

A

5-6.5

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59
Q

thin, loose skin, thin umbilical cord, wide anterior fontanelle, also meconium staining

A

fetal growth restriction

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60
Q

mouth blisters with large flaccid bullous lesions

A

pemphigus vulgaris - vulgar flaccid lesions

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61
Q

pemphigus vulgaris - which abs

A

autoantibodies against desmoglein

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62
Q

tx for polymyalgia rheumatica

A

steroids - no other diagnostic step is necessary

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63
Q

when is supplemetnal iron needed in an infant

A

prematurity
materal iron def
cows milk before 1 year

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64
Q

all exclusively breast fed infants need what supplemented

A

vitamin D

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65
Q

increased alk phos out of proportion to LFTs

A

biliary obs or intrahepatic cholestasis

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66
Q

conjugated bili increase + increased alk phos + painless jaundice + weight loss

A

cholangiocarcinoma or pancreatic carcinoma

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67
Q

hypovolemia (renin and Na)

A

renin increases and urine sodium decreases becuase the body is trying to hold onto water so it also holds Na

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68
Q

low volume bloody diarrhea with low fever in HIV pt with CD4 ct <5

A

CMV

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69
Q

microsporidium vs cryptosporidium in HIV

A

micro - watery diarrhea without fever

crypto - severe watery diarrhea with low fever

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70
Q

treat >1cm or symptomatic prolactinoma with what

A

dopamine agonists - cabergoline

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71
Q

acyclovir IV can cause what if not pretreated

A

crystaline nephropathy if not hydrated

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72
Q

decreased LV preload, CO, systemic BP
increaed HR

CVP and PCWP are decreaesd because of intravascular blood volume

A

hypovolemic shock

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73
Q

tx for tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

remove the parathyroids

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74
Q

labs seen in cushings

A

hypoK, hypercalciuria, met alk

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75
Q

HLA in hashimotos

A

HLADR3/5

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76
Q

which imagining helps diagnose primary hyperaldo

A

adrenal CT

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77
Q

adrenal CT helps distinguish what in primary hyperaldo

A

Conn (adenoma) and idopathic

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78
Q

are germinal centers normal in thyroid tissue

A

no, this is graves disease

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79
Q

pale colloid with scalloped edges in the thyroid

A

graves disease

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80
Q

toxic strains of cholera

A

01 and 0139

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81
Q

hypotension , salt wasting, and ambiguous female genitalia at birth

A

21-OH CAH

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82
Q

Hurthle cells are associated with what

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis

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83
Q

deeply eosinophilic tissue in thyroid

A

Hurthle cell metaplasia from hashimotos

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84
Q

MC heart problem in cushings

A

diastolic failure

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85
Q

MC drug used in cushings to treat symptoms

A

ketoconazole (blocks steroid synthesis)

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86
Q

secondary adrenal insufficiency presents with

A

profound hypoglycemia and low testosterone

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87
Q

in exogenous thyroid hormone use what will happen to RAUI scan

A

decreased uptake

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88
Q

nodular lymphatic growth pattern without normal germinal centers

A

NHL

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89
Q

hyperthyroid treatment in pregnancy

A

PTU in first trimester, Methimazole thereafter

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90
Q

congenital, extravascular, Coombs-negative hemolytic anemia should also be tested for

A

pyruvate kinase deficiency

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91
Q

RPGN with anti GBM abs

A

type 1

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92
Q

RPGN with immune complex abs

A

type 2

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93
Q

RPGN with no immune complex deposition

A

type 3

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94
Q

type of RPGN of goodpastures syndrome

A

type 1

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95
Q

type of RPGN involved in PSGN, lupus nephritis, HSP or IgA nephropathy

A

type 2

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96
Q

type of RPGN in wegners granulomatosis or microscopic polyangitis

A

type 3

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97
Q

elevated labs in AIN

A

eosinophilia and creatinine

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98
Q

what is seen in the CSF of AIDS dementia

A

B2 microglobulin

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99
Q

pt with rbc casts, increased ESR/CRP and positive C-ANCA

A

Wegners granulomatosis (granulomatosis with polyangitis)

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100
Q

Pleural fluid protein / serum protein ratio of 0.3, pleural fluid LDH / serum LDH ratio of 0.5, and a pleural fluid LDH of 150 U/L would indicate what etiology in a pt with new onset SOB, and orthopnea

A

CHF

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101
Q

pt with tremors and confusion, low blood glucose (<50), and is at normal baseline when glucose is normal - triad?

A

whipples triad

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102
Q

increased insulin with decreased c-peptide

A

serreptitous hypoglycemia - theyre faking it

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103
Q

Non-suppression of serum insulin levels in the setting of hypoglycemia

A

insulin secreting tumor

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104
Q

Whipple’s triad suggests what etiology of hypoglycemia

A

insulinoma

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105
Q

if pt cannot have surgical removal of insulinoma - treatment?

A

diazoxazide

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106
Q

elevated c-peptide in someone with hypoglycemia

A

sulfonyurea tox or insulinoma

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107
Q

what syndrome are insulinomas assoc with

A

MEN1

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108
Q

treatment for hypoglycemia from sulfonyurea OD

A

octreotide

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109
Q

hypopartahytoidism results in what defi

A

hypocalcemia

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110
Q

hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia and low serum PTH

A

hypoparathyroidism

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111
Q

> 6/<1mg mag can impair what hormone

A

PTH

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112
Q

somatostatin inhibits what

A

GH

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113
Q

which hormone conserves water

A

ADH by increasing water reabsorption at the collecting duct

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114
Q

MEN2a and 2b ALWAYS get what

A

medullary thyroid ca

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115
Q

PTH is secreted in response to

A

hypocalcemia

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116
Q

what effect does calciton have

A

tones down the calcium - opposes PTH by inhibiting bone reabsorption

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117
Q

PTH function in the kidneys

A

increase DCT reabsorption of Ca to increase serum calcium levels
increase Vitmain D
decrease phosphate reabsorption

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118
Q

stimulates bones to produce RANK-L and G-CSF which causes osteoclast proliferation

A

PTH

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119
Q

which hormone regulates T4 levels

A

TBG

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120
Q

which tyroid casues short lived metabolic effects

A

T3, shorter half life

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121
Q

woman <40 with unpalpable pulses

A

takayasus

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122
Q

antibodies to desmoglein (desmosomes) and nikolsky + and ruptures easily

A

pemphigus vulgaris - vulgar, it’s life threatning, there’s blisters in the mouth and is super gross

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123
Q

bx of blister showing thin walled blister with cells askew and IF throughout the whole slide

A

pemphigus vulgaris

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124
Q

treatment for vulgaris

A

steroids

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125
Q

round blisters in older person with -nikosky sign with no mouth lesions

A

pemphigoid (O for ROUND blisters)

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126
Q

only IF at the bm in blistering disease

A

pemphigoid

127
Q

neutrophlic abscess in someone with herpetic like lesion on the buttocks

A

dermatoformis herpetaformis - celiac

128
Q

treatment for DH

A

avoid gluten - dapsone for DH

129
Q

blisters on someone in sunexposed areas in a hairy person

A

PCT - diagnose with wood lamp (urine) - look for HepC or recent contraceptive start

130
Q

rash on the hairy parts ofa persons face

A

sebbhoreic dermatitsi - tx with selenium shampoo

131
Q

nail with pits in it

A

psoriasis

132
Q

1st line therapy for psoriasis

A

UV light

133
Q

CA that is increased in psoriases

A

lymphoma

134
Q

purple papule with lacy white network

A

lichen planus

135
Q

new medication with purple papule

A

ACE, thiazides, etc casued lichen planus

136
Q

drug that causes hyperkalemia from sodium channel blockade in the collecting tubule

A

trimethoprim

137
Q

gas showing in the gall bladder

A

emphysemetous cholecystitis

138
Q

possible complications of mumps

A

aseptic meningitis and orchitis

139
Q

drug that can increase digitoxin levels

A

amiodarone

140
Q

heart pt with sudden onset of weakness, fatigue, anorexia, n/v and abdominal pain

A

digoxin toxicity

141
Q

abrupt cessation of alprazolam can cause

A

seizures

142
Q

where is intussuception most likely to occur in HSP

A

ileo-ileal

Ileo-colic in normal children

143
Q

difference between ileocolic and ileoileal intussuception

A

iliocolic can be treated with air enema, ileoileal cannot and requires surgery

144
Q

Turner’s also has what lymphatic abnormality

A

dysgenesis of the lympahtic system and edema

145
Q

HIV patient with headaches, papilledema and fever increasing over the last 2 weeks

A

cryptococcal meningitis

146
Q

acute unilateral lymphadenitis in children

A

s aureus followed by GAS

147
Q

treatment for cocaine associated chest pain

A

benzos

148
Q

medication that is contraindicated in acute cocoaine tox

A

beta blockers

149
Q

MCC of death after SAH, 24 hours? 5-10 days?

A

24 hours - rebleeding

5-10 days - vasospasm leading to CVA (treat with nimodipine)

150
Q

first step after adnexal mass is found in elderly woman

A

U/S and CA125 level

151
Q

torus paletinous

A

congenital bony growth on hard palatte

152
Q

chronic cough from increased circulating substance P, kinins, prostoglandins and thromboxane

A

ACE inhibitors

153
Q

reason diphenhydramine causes urinary retention

A

detrusor hypocontracitbility

154
Q

abs in antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Lupus anticoagulant, anticardiolipin, and anti-beta-2 glycoprotein

155
Q

cystic fibrosis involves which chromosome

A

7

156
Q

TMP-SMX prophylaxes for what AIDS defining illneses

A

Toxo and PCP

TMP-SMX - T for Toxo and all the letters TMP, SMX, PCP

157
Q

someone with rheumatic fever caused mitral stenosis - medical therapy

A

prophylax with pcn

158
Q

how does hypophosphatemia results in hypoxemia of the tissue

A

decreased ATP formation as well as decreased 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, the latter resulting in increased hemoglobin affinity for oxygen and a concomitant decrease in oxygen release in hypoxic tissues

159
Q

treatment of hypovolemia with acidosis

A

D5 or lactated ringers with NaHCO3

160
Q

4 infections at CD <100

A

JC, bartonella, toxo, aspergillus

161
Q

treatment for epiglottitis

A

10 days ceftriaxone

162
Q

elevated free plasma hemogloin, elevated urine free hemoglobin, urinary hemosiderin

A

intravascular hemolysis

163
Q

if pt is hypokalemic how much K should they excrete in a day

A

<25 if the kidneys are responding properly

164
Q

what can long term sideroblastic anemia cause

A

leukemia/myelodysplastic syndrome

165
Q

DDAVP does what for SIADH and DI

A

causes SIADH and treats central DI

166
Q

treatment for DIC pt with tissue thrombosis and necorisis

A

IV protein C

167
Q

pt has a dysfunctional PK-LR gene

A

pyruvate kinase deficiency

168
Q

normal way the body keeps pH normal

A

chemical buffering by HCO3- in the ECF and by proteins and phosphate in the ICF

169
Q

anticoag after HIT - normal renal/liver

A

argatroban

170
Q

anticoag after HIT - renal failure

A

argatroban

171
Q

anticoag after HIT liver failure

A

fondiparineax

172
Q

anticoag after HIT liver failure

A

fondiparineax

173
Q

anticoag after HIT liver and renal failure

A

bivalirduin or argatroban at reduced dose

174
Q

male pattern hair loss

A

5-DHT

175
Q

treatment for male pattern hair losq

A

minixodil and finasteride

176
Q

treatment for tinea capitus

A

oral griseofulvin - if you don’t treat quickly you could lose your hair permanently

177
Q

baby born at 39 weeks with some grunting and hyperextended wet lungs on CT

A

TTN

178
Q

baby born at 29 weeks with hypoextended and atelectasis lungs on CT

A

RDS

179
Q

tx for RDS

A

intubation and surfactant

180
Q

tx for TTN in baby

A

PPV

181
Q

compartment syndrome has what underlying pathology

A

vascular comprimise and not myonecrosis

182
Q

second generation antipsychotic with the best s/e profile

A

ziprasidone

183
Q

rapid onset of periumbicila pain w/nausea vomiting

A

mesenteric ischemia

184
Q

thiazides can do what to glucose

A

increase it especially in DM pts

185
Q

treatment for hyponatremia

A

fluid restriction and hypertonic saline

186
Q

high levels of insulin do what to phosphate

A

push phosphate into cells

187
Q

HIV medication type that is highly resistant to resistance

A

PROTease inhibitiors PROTect from resistance

188
Q

first sign of hypermag

A

hyporeflexia

189
Q

causes of nephrogenic DI

A

lithium, demeclocycline, hyperCa, hypoK, PCOS, obstructive uropathy

190
Q

how to make a clincial diagnosis of TTP/HUS

A

MAHA and thrombocytopenia

191
Q

kidney stones that are radiolucent

A

uric acid

192
Q

treatment for uric acid induced platelet dysfunction and bleeding

A

estrogen

193
Q

tx for bleeding from dental extraction

A

antifibrinolytic agents

194
Q

insulin deficiency does what to phos

A

shifts from ICF to ECF, will look like hyperphos

195
Q

phosphate derangement seen in DKA why

A

hyperphosphatemia becuase lack of insulin forces phos to move from ICF to ECF

196
Q

what stimulates intercalated cells in collecting duct

A

aldosterone

197
Q

lytic bones lesions - what mets

A

lung, thyroid, renal

198
Q

blastic lesions on xray - what mets

A

breast, prostate

199
Q

brachial plexus injurty associated with horners

A

klumpky’s (klutzy)

200
Q

MC injury that leads to ulnar claw hand

A

medial epicondyle fractures of the humerus

201
Q

MC location of compartment syndrome

A

closed tibial fx

202
Q

ground glass opacities on XR in a premature infant in the NICU for 35 days

A

BPD from RDS

prevent with surfactant and steroids to mom antenatally

203
Q

IVH cause

A

highly vacualr lining of ventricles still around before 34 weeks

204
Q

bloody bowel movement in premie in the NICU

A

NEC

205
Q

how to diagnose imperforate anus

A

cross table XR

206
Q

what syndrome should you suspect in imperforate anus

A

VACTERL

vertebral, anus, cardiac, te fistula, esophageal atresia, renal, limb

207
Q

failure to innervate distal colon

A

hirscprungs

208
Q

bx shows no mesenteric plexus in a 3 year old boy

A

Hirschprungs

209
Q

tx for meconium ileus

A

water enema

210
Q

mtoher treated with mag for preeclampsia in labor can cause what in the newborn

A

meconium ileus

211
Q

first steps after finding an imperforate anus

A

ECG and pass an NG tube

212
Q

do what before repairing an imperforate anus

A

assess for VACTERL

213
Q

diagnostic steps for hirschprungs

A

1) KUB
2) contrast enema
3) rectal suction bx
4) resection

214
Q

first step in meconium ileus after KUB

A

contrast enema

215
Q

intestinal atresia cause

A

mom does some kind of vaoconstrictor like cocaine

216
Q

double bubble with no gas after vs gas after

A

annular pancreas, malrotation, DA - normal after

intetinal atresia - multiple air fluid levels

217
Q

MC type of TE

A

type E

218
Q

how to diagnose TE

A

NG tube that coils in esophagus

219
Q

3 weeek od male that was feeding and stooling fine but suddenly had non bilious emesis after each meal

A

pyloric stenosis

220
Q

5 week old baby with hypocholemic hypokalemic metabolic alkalsosis after projectile vomitning all feedds for the past week - next step

A

fix electrolyte disturbance then surgery for pyloric stenosis

221
Q

if a yellow baby has conjugated bili what does that mean

A

pathologic jaundice

222
Q

physiologic jaundice with positive coombs

A

isoimmunization

223
Q

coombs negative jaundice with low hemoglobin

A

likely cephalohamtoma

224
Q

coombs negative jaundice with high hemoglobin

A

transfusion (twin-twin), materal transfusion

225
Q

coombs neg jaundice with normal hemoglobin

A

check reticulocytes, Hemoglobin SS, G6PD, PK

226
Q

physiologic vs pathologic jaundice

A

phys - unconjugated/indirect

pathologic - direct/conjugated

227
Q

jaundice that causes kernicterus in babies

A

UNconjugated is very UNfortunate for babies brains

228
Q

suspect what in a baby with high direct bilirubin

A

obstruction, sepsis, metabolic disorder

229
Q

sdie you find gastroschisis on

A

right

230
Q

worsening jaundice at 2 weeks with hyperbilirubinemia

A

biliary atresia, give pheno barb for 5 days and then do HIDA scan

231
Q

quad scrren with increased AFP

A

spinabifida

232
Q

double bubble with no gas beyond

A

duodenal atresia

233
Q

respiratory acidosis in asthma patient

A

ominous sign, intubate

234
Q

dilated loops of bowel with no transition pt in a patient who has not passed gas/BM since surgery 4 days ago

A

postoperative ileus

235
Q

next step after clavicle fraxture

A

angiogram and neurovascualr workup because of proximity to brachial plexus and subclavian artery

236
Q

hypothyroid pt on levo starts taking oral estrogen, what happens now

A

increase levo most likely

237
Q

best way to prevent ARDS damage

A

lung protective strategies like decreased TV which prevents overdistention of alveoli

238
Q

pt has suicide attempt, unknown substance, with urinary retention and a fever

A

diphenhydramine or other anticholinerigc medication

239
Q

pericardial effusion - what EKG finding

A

fucking electrical alternans FUCKING ELECTRICAL ALTERNANS

240
Q

MC type of urinary incontinence in pregnancy

A

stress incontinence beucase babies stress you out

241
Q

watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, flushing, muscle cramps, weakness

A

check a VIP level this is a VIPoma

242
Q

white nodules on hands or feet

A

gout

243
Q

pagets disease’s other name

A

osteitis deformans

244
Q

non genetic basis for pagets disease

A

paramyxovirus or respiratory syncytial virus

245
Q

complications of pagets disease

A

secondary osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma, or chondrosarcoma

246
Q

nonosteo s/e of pagets

A

high output cardiac failure due to the increased vascularity

247
Q

elevated levels of what in of pagets

A

elevated serum alkaline phosphatase and urine hydroxyproline (a marker of collagen breakdown)

248
Q

imaging for pagets

A

bone scan will pick up hot lytic lesions

249
Q

what size vasculitis is polyarteritis nodosa

A

medium

250
Q

co-occuring diseases in PAN

A

hepB, hepC, hair cell leukemia

251
Q

vasculitis which spares the lungs

A

PAN

252
Q

other vasulitis with palpable purpura that is not HSP

A

PAN

253
Q

you suspect PAN and get a +ANCA

A

it’s not PAN - only vasculitis w/o ANCA

254
Q

only vasculitis without ANCA+

A

PAN

255
Q

vasculitidi that is most associated with abdominal paina nd post prandial abdominal ischemia

A

PAN

256
Q

non-biopsy diagnosis for PAN

A

arteriography showing strictures

257
Q

part of muscle affected in dermatomyositis

A

perimysial and perifascicular inflammation and atrophy

258
Q

part of muscle affected in polymyositis

A

endomysial inflammation; the necrotic and regenerating muscle fibers are scattered throughout the fascicle and not limited to the fascicle periphery

259
Q

short-duration, low-amplitude, polyphasic motor potentials on EMG

A

myosities

260
Q

chondrocaldcinosis - gout vs pseudogout

A

pseudogout

261
Q

MC afflicted in pseudogout

A

knee and wrist

262
Q

Egg allergy, which vax can’t you have

A

yellow fever

263
Q

what do you give for diptheria

A

IVtoxin and IV abx

264
Q

treatment for pertussis

A

erythromycin

265
Q

ARDS is associated with

A

decreased lung compliance, alveolar infiltrates, hypoxemia and PAH

266
Q

esosinophilia (>20%) in someon ewith recent travel to south america

A

trichinellosis

267
Q

what distinguishes peritonsilar abscess from epiglottitis

A

deviation of the uvula and unilateral lymphadenopathy in PA

268
Q

treatment difference for Type A vs B aortic dissection

A

type A - Angiography

type B - Beta blocker

269
Q

medical treatment of HOCM

A

beta blocker, disopyramide and verapamil

270
Q

testosterone secreting tumor

A

leydig

271
Q

inhibiton of LH and FSH in a testicualr tumor

A

leydig

272
Q

MC congential cardiac cyanosis in newborn

A

transposition of the great vessels

273
Q

cyanosis in a few hour old infant with single second heart sound

A

transposition of the great vessles

274
Q

what happens to ca during respiratory alk

A

more ca ninds to albumin and thus leads to hypocalcemia

275
Q

methylmalonic vs homocysteine in folic acid vs B12 def

A

When folic acid or B12 are absent there are increased level of serum homocysteine. However, only B12 is involved in the conversion of methylmalonic acid to succinyl CoA. Therefore, in folate deficiency methylmalonic acid levels are normal

276
Q

measles is caused by

A

parvomyxovirus

277
Q

measles rash

A

fever and a rash, starts on face, works its way down

278
Q

cough, coryza, koplik spots

A

measles

279
Q

rash on the face that spreads to the trunk with generalized and tender lymphadenopathy

A

rubella

280
Q

rash on the face with fever - one kid has white spots in the mouth and one has tender lymphadenopthay

A

spots - measles

lymph - rubella

281
Q

high fever then rash in a chidl with rash on the trunk that moves to the face

A

roseola

282
Q

treat a really high fever n baby

A

acetaminophen

283
Q

vesicular rash in different stages of healing without fever in a child

A

chicken pox

284
Q

treatment for chicken pox

A

none - supporttive

285
Q

vesciles on the hands, feet, mouth

A

hands foot mouth disease

286
Q

rubeola is also known as

A

measles

287
Q

pt has impaired calcification - what to give

A

clcium

288
Q

someone with angioedema and they have C1 esterase def what to give

A

FFP

289
Q

croup is caused by

A

parainfluenza virus

290
Q

diagnosis for croup

A

racemic epi

291
Q

croup that doesn’t react to reacemic epi

A

bacterial tracheitis

292
Q

pat of epiglottitis

A

h flu

293
Q

rapid onset of high spiking fever with drooling and hot potato voice that looks very toxic

A

epiglottitis

294
Q

thumb print sign

A

epiglottitis

295
Q

difference between epiglottitis and retropharyngela abscess

A

both have high fevre, quick onset with hot potato voice with neck extended
RPA - unilear anterior chain lymphadenopathy - get CT scan

296
Q

difference between retropharyngeal abscess and peritonsilar abscess

A

PA - older child/adolescent with drooling, hot potato voice with uvular deviation

297
Q

path of peritonsilar abscess

A

oral flora

298
Q

gait ataxia, frequent falling, and dysarthria in a 17 year old male

A

freidrich’s ataxia

299
Q

MCC of death in FA

A

cardiomyopathy

300
Q

19 year old male patient is progressively having more difficulty walking, has odd looking feet, and large heart on XR

A

freidrichs ataxia

301
Q

new onset psychosis after a new drug added - whats the drug

A

glucocorticoids

302
Q

MCC of urogenital fistula

A

pelvic surgery

303
Q

only reason to use hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal woman

A

vasomotor symptoms

304
Q

abrupt onset of CVA symptoms

A

cranial bleed

305
Q

MC locations of intercranial bleeds

A

BG, thalamus, pons, cerebellum

306
Q

vitamin def associated with diarrhea, skin rash, beefy red tongue, cognitive problems

A

niacin

307
Q

adrenal insufficiency secondary to glucocorticoid cessation - hormone levels

A

low ACTH, low cortisol, normal aldosterone

308
Q

hormone and electrolyte derangements in primary adrenal insifficiency

A

elevated ACTH, low aldosterone, hypoNa, hyperK

309
Q

diagnostic test for Zenkers

A

contrast esopagram

310
Q

best treatment for cachexia in terminally ill patient

A

progesterone analog and/or corticosteroids

311
Q

how do nitrates work to reduce anginal symptoms

A

systemic vasodilation which leads to lower LVEDV and preload and reduces wall stress

312
Q

primary prevention for statin therapy

A

10 year ASCVD of >7.5%

313
Q

failure to thrive in infancy with chronic non-gap metabolic acidosis

A

Renal tubular acidosis - tx with bicarb

STEP 2 (5 decks)

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