Uworld Physio 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

a large PO2 gradient between the alveoli (104 mm Hg) and the pulmonary venous blood (70 mm Hg) but pulmonary venous PCO2 is normal (40 mm Hg), indicating incomplete gas exchange most likely due to

A

diffusion impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

propylthiouracil decrease conversion of T4 to triiodothyronine (T3), causing transient neonatal ——–

A

hypothyroidism (ie, low T4, high TSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypopituitarism causes central ———, which is characterized by low TSH, total T4, and free T4. Other midline defects (eg, cleft lip) or hormonal imbalances (eg, hypoglycemia due to ACTH deficiency) are often present.

A

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Neonate with a low total thyroxine (T4) but normal free T4 and normal TSH likely has a deficiency of ——–. Congenital —- deficiency is a benign, X-linked disorder usually identified on newborn screening.

A

thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In primary hyperaldosteronism (ie, Conn’s syndrome), an adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia causes excessive and unchecked aldosterone production that leads to —– renin levels

A

feedback inhibition of renin secretion (ie, low renin level).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In secondary hyperaldosteronism, overproduction of aldosterone occurs secondary to increased renin synthesis, resulting in elevated renin and aldosterone levels. Causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism include

A

renal artery stenosis (typically associated with fibromuscular dysplasia or atherosclerosis)

diuretic use

malignant hypertension (which leads to microvascular damage and renal ischemia)

renin-secreting tumors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Renin-secreting tumors (reninomas) are rare, small, solitary, benign —— cell neoplasms. Reninomas should be strongly considered in patients with marked hyperreninemia and hypertension who clearly do not have renovascular disease.

A

juxtaglomerular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A pituitary tumor (eg, an ACTH-secreting adenoma causing Cushing’s disease) can result in secondary hypertension due to excess adrenal glucocorticoids (increases vascular sensitivity to adrenergic agents). The resulting hypertension suppresses the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis, leading to low levels of ——-

A

renin and aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

LH stimulates the theca interna cells of the ovarian follicle to produce ——

A

androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aromatase within the follicle’s ——- cells converts androgens to estradiol under —- stimulation.

A

granulosa

FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Androgens and progesterone are synthesized from ——- in the theca interna cells under the influence of —– hormone

A

cholesterol

luteinizing hormone (LH).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by oversecretion of parathyroid hormone despite normal (or elevated) serum calcium levels. Parathyroid hormone raises serum calcium and lowers serum phosphorus by increasing bone resorption (freeing calcium and phosphate), increasing renal reabsorption of calcium, and decreasing ——-

A

proximal tubular reabsorption of phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Constipation is particularly common in pregnant patients and is largely due to the effects of —- hormone, which has been shown to reduce —— muscle activity

A

progesterone

colonic smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Progesterone prevents the release of ——-, a hormone responsible for stimulating the fasting migrating myoelectric complex, which normally helps propel undigested food from the small intestines into the colon.

A

motilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common gastrointestinal alterations in pregnancy include reduced —– pressure (promoting gastroesophageal reflux) and gallbladder stasis (increasing the likelihood of developing gallstones).

Hemorrhoids are also common and result from a rise in pressure within the rectal venous system due to the gravid uterus.

A

lower esophageal sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

——– occur when the rectum herniates into the vaginal canal through a thinned rectovaginal septum. They cause constipation, rectoceles typically occur in elderly individuals with a history of multiple vaginal deliveries. Patients often report needing to manually compress the vagina to induce bowel movements.

A

Rectoceles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A water deprivation test with desmopressin (DDAVP) administration can differentiate between central and nephrogenic DI. In patients with central DI and complete nephrogenic DI, the urine osmolality is persistently low despite an increase in serum osmolality with water deprivation. When desmopressin is administered, patients with central DI show a rapid —— in urine osmolality and reduction in urine volume, whereas those with complete nephrogenic DI do not

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease caused by mutations in the CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene. The CFTR protein is a transmembrane —–gated chloride channel

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Congenital long QT syndrome is caused by a mutation in a voltage-gated ——– channel

A

potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During the skeletal muscle contraction cycle, ATP binding to myosin causes release of the ————

A

myosin head from its binding site on the actin filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If—– is not available, the cross-bridge between myosin and actin will persist (rigor mortis).

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Calcium binding to —— shifts tropomyosin away from the myosin binding site on actin. These steps do not depend directly on ATP.

A

troponin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When the endometrium is no longer exposed to ——- hormone, prostaglandin production increases, leading to vasoconstriction of the spiral arteries. —– withdrawal also causes increased secretion of metalloproteases by endometrial stromal cells (causing degradation of the extracellular matrix) and —— of the endometrial epithelium. The net effect is degeneration of the functionalis layer, which sloughs away as menstrual flow

A

progesterone (eg, in a progesterone withdrawal test)

apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The osmotic gradient for water reabsorption is largely established by the active cotransport of —– into the apical end of enterocytes coupled with chloride, glucose, or amino acids. Sodium is then transported out of the basolateral end of the enterocyte (sodium/potassium ATPase), which pulls water down its osmotic gradient from the gastrointestinal lumen through the tight junctions between enterocytes and into the lamina propria (and ultimately the bloodstream).

A

sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Infections that target the small intestine cause watery diarrhea by blocking the active transport of ——— into the enterocyte or by increasing chloride excretion into the gastrointestinal lumen (mediated by elevated intracellular cyclic AMP, cyclic GMP, or calcium)

A

sodium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Children with watery diarrhea should be treated with oral rehydration solutions containing hypotonic, equimolar concentrations of —- & —- to help prevent dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities.

A

sodium and glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Following bilateral orchiectomy, extragonadal androgen sources are inadequate to replace the loss of testosterone, causing a hypogonadal state. Loss of testosterone leads to changes in body composition, including decreased ——, increased ——–, and decreased bone density. Loss of testosterone also leads to a significant decrease in prostate volume.

A

decreased lean body weight

increased subcutaneous fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

—– erectile dysfunction often begins abruptly following severe medical (eg, myocardial infarction) or emotional stressors. The symptoms are often situational, with normal erections at night or during masturbation but impaired with a partner. Libido is often normal.

A

Psychogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

FSH from the pituitary induces the Sertoli cells to produce ——, which concentrates testosterone in the seminiferous tubules and facilitates spermatogenesis.

A

androgen binding protein (ABP)

30
Q

Following unilateral orchiectomy, the drop in testosterone stimulates pituitary LH secretion, which stimulates increased testosterone production in the remaining testis and maintains libido, erectile function, and secondary sex characteristics. However, the loss of sperm-producing tissue (seminephrous tubule) usually causes a drop in —–

A

sperm counts

31
Q

Regardless of the patient’s hydration status, the majority of water reabsorption in the nephron occurs in the —— passively with the reabsorption of solutes

A

proximal tubule

32
Q

The hypothalamus controls thermoregulation by promoting alterations in the autonomic nervous system and the adrenal and thyroid axes. Physiologic adaptations in response to hypothermia include increased —– (SNS/PNS) activity and thyroid hormone release, shivering, and peripheral vasoconstriction. These actions normalize body temperature by reducing heat loss and increasing metabolic rate (promoting thermogenesis).

A

SNS

33
Q

a normal A-a gradient is typically between—— mm Hg, with older individuals having higher normal values due to an age-related decline in O2-diffusing capacity.

A

4 and 15

34
Q

Possible causes of hypoxemia in the setting of a normal A-a gradient include —- & —–

A

low partial pressure of inspired oxygen (PiO2) (ie, high altitude) & alveolar hypoventilation.

Common causes of alveolar hypoventilation include suppressed central respiratory drive (eg, sedative overdose) and diseases that decrease inspiratory capacity (eg, myasthenia gravis, obesity).

35
Q

The majority of CO2 produced in the tissues is transported to the lungs as bicarbonate ion (HCO3−). Within red blood cells (RBCs), the enzyme carbonic anhydrase forms HCO3− from CO2 and water. The excess HCO3− is then transferred out of RBCs into the plasma via exchange with chloride ions (Cl−). This exchange is known as “chloride shift” and is the principal cause of high RBC chloride content in —– blood.

A

venous

36
Q

Anovulation due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is a common form of infertility that can be treated by pulsatile administration of —–

A

GnRH

37
Q

Pulsatile stimulation of pituitary gonadotrophin cells by GnRH leads to upregulation of GnRH receptors and enhanced — & —- secretion

A

FSH and LH

38
Q

In common practice, GFR is estimated using creatinine clearance. However, creatinine is actively secreted by the proximal tubules, so uncorrected creatinine clearance overestimates the GFR by approximately —-%.

A

10%-20%

39
Q

Vasopressin and desmopressin cause a V2 receptor-mediated increase in water and urea permeability at the inner medullary collecting duct. The resulting rise in ——- enhances the medullary osmotic gradient, allowing the production of maximally concentrated urine.

A

urea reabsorption (decreased urea clearance)

40
Q

Defective —– hormone synthesis leads to overt hypothyroidism starting in infancy; symptoms include lethargy, hypotonia, and constipation. Laboratory evaluation shows low T3 and T4 and elevated TSH.

A

thyroid

41
Q

Thyroid hormone resistance is characterized by decreased sensitivity of peripheral tissues to thyroid hormones due to a defect in the —- hormone receptor. Levels of T4, T3, and TSH are increased. Patients classically have goiter and frequently develop attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

A

thyroid

42
Q

A number of changes occur in the liver with aging that can affect drug metabolism. Typical changes include ——,——,——

A

decreased liver mass and blood flow

decreased cytochrome P-450 expression and concentration

reduced hepatic regeneration after injury

43
Q

Despite againg, what does not change in an elderlys liver compared with a younger person?

A
44
Q

In addition to causing lytic bone lesions, multiple myeloma causes diffuse bone loss due to —— induced uncoupling of bone resorption and formation (ie, increased osteoclast activity without a restorative osteoblast action).

A

interleukin-1

45
Q

Hyperthyroidism causes increased bone turnover with net bone loss. The bone loss in hyperthyroidism is driven by ?

— stimulates osteoclast differentiation, increased bone resorption, and release of calcium.

A

triiodothyronine (T3)

46
Q

Ascites in cirrhosis develops from hemodynamic changes related to portal hypertension. Splanchnic vasodilation decreases the splanchnic vascular resistance and lowers the effective ——-blood volume, which causes activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and promotes sodium and water retention. Additionally, low oncotic pressure (ie, hypoalbuminemia due to impaired hepatic function) reduces fluid resorption from the interstitium.

The capillaries remain physiologically normal, so permeability is unchanged.

A

arterial

47
Q

The —— test compares air versus bone conduction (via the mastoid bone). As the vibration of the tuning fork fades, air-conducted sound is normally louder and heard longer than bone-conducted sound. The Rinne test is considered positive (normal) if the sound is heard best at the external auditory meatus (air conduction) and negative (abnormal) if the patient hears the vibration better at the mastoid (bone conduction)

A

Rinne

48
Q

In conductive hearing loss, bone conduction will be greater than air conduction (abnormal Rinne test), and the Weber test will lateralize to the —— ear.

A

affected

49
Q

In sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction will be greater than bone conduction (normal Rinne test), and the Weber test will lateralize to the —— ear.

A

unaffected

50
Q

Adolescents typically have an immature hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis for several years following menarche. During this time, they may have longer menstrual cycles and irregular bleeding patterns due to the presence of ——- cycles.

In the absence of ovulation, the ovarian follicle does not degenerate and become a corpus luteum. As a result, no progesterone is produced and estrogen levels remain persistently high, causing the endometrium to remain in the proliferative phase. Chronically proliferative endometrium becomes disorganized and fragile with unstable venous capillaries, resulting in irregular periods of stromal breakdown with variable, but often heavy, bleeding.

A

anovulatory

51
Q

Reduced aldosterone production in primary adrenal insufficiency leads to renal sodium wasting with consequent hypovolemia, orthostasis, and potassium retention (hyperkalemia). Low cortisol stimulates increased antidiuretic hormone secretion, which leads to water retention and ——

A

hyponatremia

52
Q

Chronic kidney disease is commonly associated with normocytic anemia due to reduced production of erythropoietin by the kidneys. Erythropoietin signal transduction is primarily mediated by the ——– pathway, which promotes erythrocyte precursor survival

A

Janus kinase 2/signal transducers and activators of transcription (JAK2/STAT)

53
Q

Therapeutic hormones that activate a —– second messenger system include antidiuretic hormone (V1 receptor), gonadotropin-releasing hormone, and oxytocin

A

phosphatidylinositol

54
Q

Widely used therapeutic hormones that activate a nuclear receptor include —– hormone, vitamins – & –, and the steroid hormones (eg, glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, sex hormones).

A

thyroid hormone

vitamins A & D

55
Q

Physiologic changes in the respiratory system that occur with exercise include (increased/decreased) minute ventilation, ——- physiologic dead space, increased ventilation-perfusion ratio, and increased extraction of oxygen by skeletal muscle (resulting in ——– mixed venous oxygen content)

A

increased minute ventilation (via both an increase in respiratory rate and tidal volume)

reduced physiologic dead space

decreased mixed venous oxygen content

56
Q

Physiologic renal adaptations during pregnancy include increased —— rate, greater basement membrane permeability, and decreased tubular resorption of filtered protein. As a result, trace urinary protein excretion (ie, <300 mg/24 hr) is a normal finding in pregnancy.

A

GFR

57
Q

A drug that binds to and activates GABA-A receptors (or enhances their activity) will increase the conductance of chloride ions, leading to increased passive transport of chloride into the cell interior. This causes the membrane potential to become —-polarized by approaching or reaching the equilibrium potential for chloride

A

hyperpolarized (more negative than the resting membrane potential)

58
Q

Individuals on a vegan diet are at increased risk for deficiencies in —- & —-. Supplementation is recommended to avoid long term consequences, including osteoporosis and bone fractures. —— deficiency can also occur.

A

calcium and vitamin D

Cobalamin (vitamin B12)

59
Q

—— deficiency can lead to pellagra, characterized by diarrhea, dermatitis, and possible dementia. Deficiency usually occurs in severely malnourished individuals (eg, alcohol use disorder, anorexia nervosa)

A

Niacin

60
Q

Myelin decreases membrane capacitance (reduces the amount of charge stored by the membrane) and —— membrane resistance (reduces charge leakage through the membrane) in axon segments between the nodes of Ranvier; this reduces the time constant and allows the membrane potential to change faster.

A

increases

61
Q

demyelination decreases neuronal signaling velocity both by increasing/decreasing the length constant and increasing the time constant (ie, ↓ velocity = ↓ length / ↑ time)

A

decreasing

62
Q

—— summation refers to the combined effect of sequential impulses from the same neuron over time, whereas —– summation refers to the combined effect of simultaneous impulses from several different neurons.

A

Temporal

spatial

63
Q

The —— phase of the menstrual cycle occurs between ovulation and menses, from days 15-28 of the normal menstrual cycle. Progesterone released by the corpus luteum causes the uterine glands to coil and secrete glycogen-rich mucus in preparation for embryo implantation. The endometrial stroma becomes edematous and completely traversed by tortuous spiral arteries that extend from the deeper layers to the uterine lumen.

A

secretory phase

64
Q

The —— phase is the first half of the menstrual cycle (days 1-14), beginning with the first day of menses and ending with ovulation. During this time, estrogen stimulates proliferation of the stratum functionale. Normal proliferative endometrium consists of nonbranching, nonbudding, uniform glands evenly distributed throughout a uniform stroma

A

proliferative

65
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a hematologic malignancy that is generally associated with a high tumor cell burden and a rapid turnover rate. Therefore, initiation of cytotoxic chemotherapy often leads to massive lysis of tumor cells, which spills intracellular contents into the blood (tumor lysis syndrome), resulting in the following: ——–(increased or decreased) phosphate, potassium, uric acid. lactate dehydrogenous

A

hyperphosphatemia

hyperkalemia

hyperuricemia

elevated lactate dehydrogenase

66
Q

—— chemoreceptors found in the carotid and aortic bodies are the primary sites for sensing PaO2 and are stimulated by hypoxemia.

When supplemental oxygen is administered, the rapid increase in PaO2 can reduce —– chemoreceptor stimulation and decrease the respiratory rate.

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors

67
Q

—– chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, are more involved in the respiratory response to hypercapnia than to hypoxemia. CO2 readily diffuses through the blood-brain barrier and forms hydrogen ions in the cerebrospinal fluid; the resulting decrease in pH is detected by medullary neurons, triggering an increase in respiration. Because the blood-brain barrier is relatively impermeable to hydrogen ions, blood pH itself has little effect on central chemoreceptors.

A

Central chemoreceptors

68
Q

In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the response to —– is blunted and hypoxemia can contribute to respiratory drive. Peripheral chemoreceptors are primarily responsible for sensing arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) and can be suppressed with oxygen administration.

A

response to PaCO2 is blunted

69
Q

A drop in PaCO2 due to hyperventilation causes vasoconstriction. The resulting reduction in cerebral blood volume leads to decreased ICP. Lowering PaCO2 is one of the measures employed to —— in mechanically ventilated patients with cerebral edema.

A

decreased ICP

reduce ICP

70
Q

Induced sedation and therapeutic hypothermia can decrease brain —- demand, exerting a neuroprotective effect and improving ICP by reducing cerebral blood volume.

A

metabolic

71
Q

On initial exposure to high altitude, the administration of a —— can accelerate the decrease in HCO3- reabsorption by the kidneys to help relieve the alkalemia and treat altitude sickness.

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (eg, acetazolamide)

72
Q

At high altitude, the low partial pressure of inspired oxygen (PiO2) leads to hypoxemia with consequent hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. The hypoxemia and alkalemia can cause symptoms of altitude sickness (eg, headache, fatigue, lightheadedness). The kidneys respond by creating a compensatory metabolic acidosis (——- HCO3-reabsorption and H+secretion) and by increasing erythropoietin secretion.

A

decrease HCO3-reabsorption and H+secretion