Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

USMLE > AMBOSS (3 blocks) > Flashcards

AMBOSS (3 blocks) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

ISP lateral deviation of tongue a sign of lesion to the

A

Hypoglossal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Decrease secretion from the ipsilateral sublingual gland is a lesion the ______ of the facial nerve

A

Chorda tympani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Isplateral vocal cord palsy could occur in a lesion to the

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve which is a branch off the vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Contra lateral deviation of the uvula from what nerve

A

Glossypharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tenofovir used to treat

A

HBV and HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Glimepiride a sulfayura drug stimulates

A

Insulin from pancreatic beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Glimepiride targets

A

ATP potassium Channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acarbose inhibits intestinal brush border alpha glucosidase resulting in

A

Decreased intestinal glucose absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Proliferation of neoplastic cells with cerebirform nuclei is hallmark of

A

Mycosis fungoides. A chronic cutaneous non Hodgkin lymphoma
Cancer T cells form in epidermis and create pautrer microabcesses

Scaly purification demarcated skin plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Glass factory worker with Well defined calcification of the rims of hilar lymph nodes
Scattered nodules in both lung fields

A

Silicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Patients with silicosis are at increased risk of

A

Pulmonary TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cori disease is a glycogen storage disorder with a defeciency in

A

Glycogen debrancher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Symptoms of cori disease

A

Hypotonia, muscle wasting, mild hypoglycemia and ketosis

Infant with failure to thru e, heptomegaly too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Synovial biopsy of RA

A

Proliferation of granulation tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Synovial fluid with calcium pyrophosphate crystals seen in

A

Pseudo gout and OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Atropine can be found in wild berries and can cause

A

Anticholinergjc toxicity

Delirium, hyperthermia, mydrasiss, decreased intestinal activity, and dry skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Symptoms of anklosing spondylitis

A

Pain and stiffness in neck and lower back

Improved with exercise. More common in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ankylosising spondylitis Hla __

A

B27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nucleated cells present antigen to cd8 T cell using Mhc class 1 which consist of an alpha chain and

A

B2 microglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CHF results in organ hypoperfusion causes vasoconstriction of

A

Afferent and more efferent arteriole due to reduced Renal blood flow and activity now of RAAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drug for pin worms, the butt itching kind

A

Mebendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Enzyme in lipid metabolism that us found in liver but not adipose tissue

A

Glycerol kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Independent repeated measures assess a tests

A

Precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Triad of vertigo, tinnitus and sensorineural hearing loss and Weber test showing laterization to unaffected side in

A

Meineres disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Underlying mechanism of meineres disease

A

Endolymohatic hydrops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Albuterol is a ___ agonist

A

Beta 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Severe dehydration shown in urine will be

A

Low urine sodium and hyaline cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Neoplastic small cell produce acth which is not suppressed by high cortisol and is restiistant to

A

High dose dex suppression test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Imbalance of fluid secretion and resorption by tunica vaginalis found in

A

Hydrocele

Painless scrotal mass that transilluminatebs and does not reduce in a supine position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Takayasu arteritis has

A

Granulomatous inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cystic medial generation found in

A

Marfan syndrome and Ehlers danlos and aging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mid systolic click followed by crescendo murmur at cardiac apex

A

Mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Drug used to treat heart block and increase heart rate

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Atropine causes pupillary dilation in eye narrowing anterior chamber and obstructing aqueous humor which can result in

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hypocitrate js risk factor for development of

A

Calcium oxolate stones

A drug that increases urinary citrate would be helpful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Elevated levels of inhibit B aid in diagnostic of

A

Granulosa cell tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

______ is the site of blood flow interruption in 90% of acute mesenteric ischemia cases.

A

SMA
The SMA supplies the derivatives of the embryological midgut, including the small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, and ileum), ascending colon (right colic artery), and first two-thirds of the transverse colon (middle colic artery).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

aspirin decreases ______ elimination therefor is not recommended in gout

A

uric acid elimination in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

_______________An autosomal recessive form of congenital long QT syndrome. Caused by a mutation in genes KCNQ1 or KCNE1, which encode for potassium channels in the heart and inner ear. Cardiac manifestations include dizziness, syncope, torsade de pointes, and sudden cardiac death. Associated with sensorineural deafness

A

Jervel and Langh Nielson

40
Q

__________ secrete both metalloproteinases (e.g., macrophage elastase) and phagocytose foreign materials. Elastase degraded by TIMPs.

A

Alveolar macrophages

41
Q

degrade toxins in lower lungs

A

club cells

42
Q

Opioid analgesics (e.g., morphine) can cause constriction of the sphincter of Oddi, thereby causing or further exacerbating symptoms of _____.

A

biliary colic

use with caution in patients with a history of biliary tract impairment and/or acute pancreatitis.

43
Q

A relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) typically occurs because of unilateral damage to the retina and/or _______ nerve.
right and left pupils dont constrict when light is shown in left eye but do when shown in right eye

A

optic nerve (CN II)

44
Q

Pagets disease of the bone produces bone pain and hearing impairment. High ALP is shown. And _____ in bone

A

increased rate of bone remolding

45
Q

B ly,phocytes with a single immunoglobin variable domain allele indicate they are _____

A

monoclonal

46
Q

Manitol causes an increase in plasma osmolality, shifting water into intravasular spaces and can cause ____

A

pulmonary edema

although it decreased brain edema

47
Q

symptoms of cushings triad

A

bradycardia, resp depression and hypertension

48
Q

Cushings triad, cranial 6 nerve palsy and brusing of upper eyelids are signs of

A

Increased intercrainal pressure

treat with Mannitol

49
Q

_____is major risk factor for osteopenia and osteoporisis

A

smoking

50
Q

mucin producing glandular tumor cells are characteristics of adenocarcinoma which account from 60-70% of lung cancers that can be produce by a ____

A

scar

lung scar carcinoma tends to be in periphery of lung

51
Q

ECG finding in patient with TOF

A

Right axis deviation

due to right ventricle hypertrophy

52
Q

___________A rare neuroendocrine tumor of δ-cell origin that is typically located in the pancreas or gastrointestinal tract and secretes somatostatin. Usually manifests with abdominal pain and weight loss in addition to the triad of diabetes mellitus/glucose intolerance, gallstones, and diarrhea/steatorrhea.

A

Somastostainoma

53
Q

Hemoglobin C disease is caused by

A

replacement of glutamate by lyesine in the beta globin chain

54
Q

Signs of Hemoglobin C disease

A

hemolytic anemia (jaundice, splenomegaly, fatigue), hemoglobin crystals and target cells

55
Q

____most common lung cancer in smokers. Cause central cavitary lesion in lung. Elevated calcium via Humoral Hypercalcemia of maligency (HHM) by parathyroid hormone related protein

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

56
Q

Cough, weight loss. older age, smoker, manifest in Proximal bronchi as a central nodule (not cavitary). What type of cancer?

A

Small Cell lung carcinoma

57
Q

________is site of protrusion for direct inguinal herinas

US show protrustion of abdominal contents that project medial to the inferior epigastric vessels

A

inguinal triangle

deep inguinal ring is site of protrusion of indirect inguinal hernias and located lateral to epigastric vessels

58
Q

Muscle effected in Stress incontinence is ______ and innervated by what nerves?

A

levator ani

S3-S4 nerve roots innervate pelvic floor muscle levator ani and external urthral spinchter

59
Q

_________promotes empyting of heptobillary tree by stimulating gallbaldder contraction and relaxation of Spinchter of Oddi

A

CCK

60
Q

____cells secrete CCK

A

I cells in jejunum and duodenum

61
Q

___cells produce secretin, which increases bile secretion and neutralizes the acidity of chyme by increasing pancreatic bicarbonate secretion and decreasing gastric acid secretion.

A

S cells

62
Q

___cells secrete glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP), which decreases gastric acid secretion and increases insulin secretion.

A

duodenal K cells

63
Q

___ cells are located in the stomach, small intestines, and pancreas. They produce somatostatin, which decreases gallbladder contraction, gastric acid secretion, pancreatic fluid secretion, and the release of insulin and glucagon. T

A

Pancreatic D cells

64
Q

Patients with _________have an increased risk of developing malignant melanoma.

A

dysplastic nevus syndrome

65
Q

Staining of the ______cells shows epitheloid cells expressing S100 protein and fine granules in the cytoplasm.

A

malignant melanoma cells

66
Q

Pindolol is a ____agonist and will have a lower max drug effect

A

partial

67
Q

hyaline membranes lining the alveli is characteristic of _____

A

NRDS

68
Q

______ is a gastric and pancreatic lipase inhibitor that prevents complete hydrolyzation of dietary triglycerides into monoglycerides and fatty acids. As a result, triglycerides are not absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract, which leads to increased fecal triglyceride excretion and weight loss. Common adverse effects include diarrhea, abdominal distention, and flatulence, as seen in this patient

A

Orlistat

69
Q

_______stenosis leads to elevated left atrial pressure, which can trigger atrial fibrillation and cause increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP). Over time, the increased PCWP leads to remodeling of the pulmonary arteries, increased pulmonary vascular resistance, an S2 split, and right ventricular hypertrophy (seen as right axis deviation).

A

Mitral stenosis

70
Q

opening snap, dilastic murmer. A fib. What type of stenosis?

A

mitral

71
Q

treatment drug for heriditary angioedema

A

Antagonist at bradykinin receptor

72
Q

vertigo, nausea and nystagmus common in:

A

BPPV

73
Q

rhinne test asses for

A

conductive hearing loss

74
Q

_____chemo, a recombination form of interleukin-2 that stimulates the proliferation and activation of T cells, B cells, NK cells, and thymocytes. Can stimulate lymphokine-activated killer cells and tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes. Used to treat metastatic melanoma and metastatic renal cell carcinoma.

A

Aldesleukin

75
Q

hallmark of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

marked noncomplaince of the LV wall and reduced chamber volume

76
Q

Features of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

signigifacnlty reduced myocardial contraction
palpitation, exertional dyspnea, CHF
dilated cardiac chamber with THIN ventricular wall

77
Q

Cushing disease is associated with

A

pathological fractures

78
Q

Ehlers danlos syndrome has defect in

A

Collagen type 3

79
Q

Patients with ______syndrome are at increased risk for osteoporosis and pathologic fractures. Almost all patients with ____ syndrome require exogenous estrogen and progesterone replacement to prevent complications of sex hormone deficiency.

A

Turner Syndrome

80
Q

Infection with ________ can manifest in a localized (e.g., urethritis, pelvic inflammatory disease) or disseminated (arthritis-dermatitis syndrome, purulent gonococcal arthritis) form. The disease is most commonly transmitted during unprotected sexual intercourse. Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome typically presents with migratory, asymmetric arthritis, tenosynovitis, and vesicular, pustular, or maculopapular lesions on the trunk and extremities

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

81
Q

Where do most anal fissures occur?

A

at the posterior midline of the anal canal, distal to the pectinate line (dentate line).

82
Q

________ is Inability to recognize objects by touch using texture, shape, and temperature as cues without visual input. Caused by a lesion in the contralateral ________

A

Tactile agnosia/Astereognosis

parietal lobe

83
Q

symptoms of Community acquired pneumonia

A

Fever, productive cough, crackles, and an infiltrate on chest x-ray

84
Q

first line treatment for community acquired pneumonia

A

Cefepime and levofloxacin

85
Q

The combination of anemia, leukopenia, splenomegaly, and teardrop cells in a older patient with a JAK2 gene mutation indicates impaired hematopoiesis due to a condition associated with increased fibroblast activity such as

A

primary myelofibrosis

86
Q

Pinealoma is a childhood tumor of the ________that compresses the pretectal region, resulting in vertical gaze palsy. Hydrocephalus can occur. The most common type of pinealoma in children is germinoma, which often secretes β-hCG, stimulating testosterone production and causing precocious puberty in boys.

A

dorsal midbrain

87
Q

The _______ muscle, which originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and proximal shaft of the radius, enables flexion of the wrist, metacarpophalangeal joints, and proximal interphalangeal joints.
Impaired flexing of PIP joints, but DIP joints intact.
Isometric weight training can cause rupture of this muscle

A

flexor digitorum superficialis

88
Q

signs of PKU

A

accumulation of phenylalanine in CNS. Can be caused by a defect of phenylalanine hydroxylase (classic PKU) or deficiency in tetrahydrobiopterin (malignant PKU).

Causes psychomotor retardation, seizures, a musty odor, and pale skin/hair (from lack of melanin production).

89
Q

The combination of _______ is used to treat disseminated MAC infection, which manifests with constitutional symptoms ( collection of nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss, fever, chills, night sweats, changes in appetite,), hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy.

A

azithromycin (or clarithromycin) and ethambutol

90
Q

The outer segments of the __ band are the sites where actin and myosin filaments overlap and form cross-bridges via the myosin heads, which bind and hydrolyze ATP.

A

A band

91
Q

Fibrates are a group of lipid-lowering agents used as second-line treatment for dyslipidemia. The mechanism of action involves the activation of PPARα, which results in a more rapid degradation of LDL and triglycerides.
Side effect?

A

Can cause reddish brown urine

92
Q

_______ is caused by activities, like tennis and badminton, that involve repetitive wrist extension and/or repetitive forearm supination/pronation with the elbow nearly fully extended

A

Lateral epicondylitis

93
Q

Astrocyte proliferation and neovascularization. Reactive gliosis, which is characterized by astrocyte proliferation. Seen _____ after ischemic brain injury.

A

1–2 weeks

94
Q

bleeding between dura matter and skull in

A

epidural hematoma

95
Q

flow velocity equals

A

volumetric flow rate/area of valve

USMLE (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions