Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OBGYN > UWorld > Flashcards

UWorld Flashcards

1
Q

Tamoxifen and Raloxifen have what adverse effects?

A
  • both may induce hot flushes and increase the risk of venous thromboembolism
  • tamoxifen increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary contraindication for Raloxifen?

A

history of venous thromboembolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the primary risk factor for magnesium toxicity during pregnancy?

A

renal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What descriptors are used to describe a mass secondary to fat necrosis in the breast?

A

firm and irregular, often with overlying skin or nipple retraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What features of a breast mass are consistent with a fibroadenoma? What features are consistent with fibrocystic changes? How can the two be distinguished?

A
  • fibroadenoma: a solitary, well-circumscribed, mobile mass with cyclic premenstrual tenderness
  • fibrocystic change: multiple, diffuse nodulocystic masses with cyclic premenstrual tenderness
  • fibroadenomas peak in incidence before age 30 and fibrocystic change peaks after age 30
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the appearance of a TOA on ultrasound along with it’s clinical presentation.

A

a complex, multilocular mass involving the tube and ovary, often in the setting of leukocytosis and fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the appearance of a mature teratoma on ultrasound.

A
  • hyperechoic nodules and calcifications

- they may have solid components but rarely have septations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When should suppressive antivirals be started in pregnant patients with known HSV-2?

A

at 36 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the first line therapy for premenstrual syndrome?

A

SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe oxytocin toxicity, including the pathogenesis and clinical features.

A
  • oxytocin is analogous to ADH and high doses can result in water retention and a dilutional hyponatremia
  • hyponatremia can then present as headaches, abdominal pain, n/v, lethargy, and tonic-clonic seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What treatment options are available for genital warts (condyloma acuminata)?

A
  • podophyllin resin or trichloroacetic acid
  • imiquimod
  • cryotherapy, laser ablation, or excision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the treatment for BV, trichomoniasis, and vaginal candidiasis?

A
  • BV: metronidazole or clindamycin
  • trichomoniasis: metronidazole
  • candidiasis: fluconazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which causes of vaginitis are associated with changes in pH and which are associated with inflammation?

A
  • BV and trichomoniasis are associated with a rise in vaginal pH
  • tichomoniasis and candida are associated with inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name two vaccines that are recommended during pregnancy.

A

Tdap and inactivated influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name four vaccines that are contraindicated during pregnancy.

A

MMR, varicella, live attenuated influenza, HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between symmetric and asymmetric IUGR?

A
  • asymmetric is that which spares the head; it is typically the result of placental insufficiency or maternal malnutrition
  • symmetric is more often caused by chromosomal abnormalities and congenital infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How can uterine rupture be differentiated from placental abruption in clinical presentation?

A

both present with pain, bleeding, and fetal heart rate tracing abnormalities

  • abruption often has low-amplitude, frequent contractions
  • rupture is usually defined by diminishing contractions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does diminished ovarian reserve impact fertility?

A

with age the quantity and quality of oocytes diminishes, so even though menstruation is normal, the woman’s fecundability (conception rate) is often lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List severe features of pre-eclampsia.

A
  • blood pressure greater than 160/110
  • pulmonary edema
  • elevated creatinine or liver enzymes
  • thrombocytopenia
  • CNS symptoms like headache or visual disturbances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

At what point should patients with pre-eclampsia deliver?

A

as soon as they are no longer considered stable; otherwise, 34 weeks with severe features and 37 weeks without severe features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of hydralazine? What is the mechanism of action of labetalol?

A
  • hydralazine is a vasodilator

- labetalol is a beta blocker with alpha blocker activity as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is believed to cause HELLP?

A

abnormal placentation, inducing systemic inflammation and thereby activating the complement system and coagulation cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the obstetric complications associated with post-term delivery?

A
  • fetal: macrosomia, oligohydramnios, dysmaturity, and demise
  • maternal: severe obstetric laceration, c/s, postpartum hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the preferred treatment for confirmed Chlamydial infection?

A

azithromycin alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What would be an indication for suction curettage in a patient with an inevitable abortion?

A

patient preference or hemodynamic instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When should the HPV vaccine no longer be offered?

A
  • age 26 for women

- age 21 for men unless they are men who have sex with men or who have HIV

27
Q

When should RhoGam be given during pregnancy?

A

at 28 weeks and then again within 3 days of delivery if the baby is found to be Rh+

28
Q

Describe the typical presentation of a vaginal squamous cell carcinoma.

A
  • most often seen in women over 60
  • often have a history of smoking, in utero DES exposure, or HPV exposure
  • presents with vaginal bleeding and/or malodorous vaginal
  • visualized as an irregular vaginal lesion, typically a plaque or ulcer in the upper third of the posterior vagina
29
Q

How is vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia treated?

A

wide local excision or topical therapy

30
Q

Where are the bartholin glands of the vagina?

A

in the posterior wall of the introitus, draining into the 4 and 8 o’clock positions

31
Q

Name three conditions associated with an elevated msAFP.

A
  • ventral wall defects like gastroschisis or omphalocele
  • multiple gestations
  • neutral tube defects
32
Q

What is carboprost?

A

a synthetic prostaglandin and uterotonic that is contraindicated in patients with asthma because it may cause bronchoconstriction

33
Q

Methylergonovine is contraindicated in what group of patients suffering uterine atony?

A

those with a history of hypertension

34
Q

What is a Gartner duct cyst and where can it be located?

A

it is a cyst that results from incomplete regression of the Wolffian duct during fetal development, and it can be found on the lateral aspect of the upper anterior vagina

35
Q

How are Bartholin cysts treated?

A
  • if asymptomatic, treat with observation

- if symptomatic, incise and drain the cyst and place a word catheter to prevent recurrence

36
Q

What are the cutoffs for 3-hour glucose tolerance testing during pregnancy?

A
  • 95 fasting
  • 180 at 1 hour
  • 155 at 2 hour
  • 140 at 3 hour
37
Q

Apart from their size, describe neonates who suffered from IUGR while in utero.

A

they typically have loose skin, a thin umbilical cord, and an enlarged anterior fontanelle

38
Q

How is IUGR evaluated in the postpartum period?

A
  • the placenta should be sent to histopathology
  • a urine toxicology screen and serology for applicable TORCH infections should be performed
  • if there are suggestive traits, a karyotype should also be performed
39
Q

Describe three contributors to normal low back pain during pregnancy?

A
  • an enlarged uterus exaggerates lordosis
  • progesterone and relaxin-induced laxity of joints and ligaments
  • weak abdominal muscle lend less lumbar support
40
Q

Describe benign back pain associated with pregnancy.

A

it is usually described as radiating down the legs in addition to being exacerbated by use and relieved by rest

41
Q

What are the two most accurate means of dating a pregnancy?

A
  • crown rump length during the first trimester is most reliable
  • gestational sac diameter during the first trimester is second most
42
Q

Who should receive an endometrial biopsy for abnormal uterine bleeding?

A
  • those over 35 with a Pap finding fo AGC
  • those less than 45 with AUB plus either an unopposed estrogen source, failed medical management, or lynch syndrome
  • those over 45
43
Q

What role does diazepam play in the treatment of eclampsia?

A

it is a second line agent, used only when magnesium sulfate is unable to control seizure activity

44
Q

What is required to achieve a perfect score on BPP?

A
  • a reactive fetal heart rate tracing
  • amniotic fluid pocket measuring more than 2x1 or an AFI of greater than 5
  • at least 3 general body movements
  • at least 1 episode of flexion/extension
  • at least 1 episode of breathing for at least thirty seconds
45
Q

A BPP is used to exclude what?

A

fetal hypoxemia, a poor score is suggestive of chronic hypoxemia and an imminent risk of fetal demise

46
Q

Describe the risk factors and appearance of a rectovaginal fistula.

A
  • risk factors include a 3rd or 4th degree laceration, inadequate wound repair, or infection
  • seen as dark red, velvety rectal mucosa on the posterior vaginal wall
47
Q

How should uterine inversion be managed?

A
  • replace the uterus first
  • remove the placenta if still attached
  • then administer fluids and uterotonics
48
Q

What change is expect in the prolactin, FSH, and LH levels in a woman with a prolactinoma?

A
  • elevated prolactin

- decreased FSH and LH

49
Q

How is HIV+ pregnancy managed in the intrapartum period?

A
  • avoid AROM, scalp electrodes, operative vaginal delivery
  • ART + vaginal delivery if viral load < 1000
  • ART + zidovudine + c/s if viral load > 1000
50
Q

How is HIV+ pregnancy managed in the postpartum period?

A
  • continue mother on ART
  • start baby on zidovudine if maternal viral load < 1000
  • start baby on multi-drug ART if maternal viral load > 1000
51
Q

Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a risk factor for what obstetric complications?

A

acute pyelonephritis, low birth weight, and preterm delivery

52
Q

Why is epidural-induced hypotension problematic during labor? How is it treated?

A
  • it can lead to poor uterine profusion and fetal acidemia

- treat with IV fluids, pressors, and left lateral positioning to improve venous return

53
Q

Pre-eclampsia is a risk factor for what neonatal and maternal problems?

A
  • chronic placental insufficiency leading to IUGR and low birth weight
  • abruption with maternal hemorrhage, DIC, or eclampsia
54
Q

What are the first and second line therapies for cord compression?

A
  • maternal repositioning

- amnioinfusion

55
Q

Describe the typical presentation of adenomyosis.

A
  • dysmenorrhea with heavy menstrual bleeding beginning later in the reproductive years with progression to chronic pelvic pain
  • the uterus is typically soft/boggy, tender to palpation, and uniformly enlarged
56
Q

Describe the typical presentation of a uterine rupture.

A
  • patients almost always have a history of c-section
  • presents with intense, abrupt, localized pain, relieved by the rupture but then returns in a more diffuse pattern
  • often the fetal station regresses
57
Q

How is hyperemesis gravidarum differentiated from normal n/v of pregnancy?

A

those with hyperemesis gravidarum typically have a risk factor associated with elevated B-hCG, weight loss from prepregnancy weight, and urinary ketones

58
Q

In which population is CA-125 a more specific marker for epithelial ovarian cancer and why?

A

in postmenopausal women because the other things that may elevate CA-125 are more common in premenopausal women

59
Q

What are the two most important modifiable risk factors for breast cancer?

A
  • alcohol consumption

- use of hormone replacement therapy

60
Q

Describe each of the following types of abortion:

  • threatened
  • inevitable
  • incomplete
A
  • threatened: closed cervix, vaginal bleeding, continued fetal cardiac activity
  • inevitable: open cervix, vaginal bleeding, products of conception noted in the lower uterine segment
  • incomplete: open cervix, vaginal bleeding, some products of conception expelled and some still retained
61
Q

What are the risks associated with using cOCPs?

A
  • venous thromboembolism
  • stroke or MI
  • cervical cancer risk
  • hepatic adenoma
  • hypertension
62
Q

How does an amniotic fluid embolus present?

A

with cariogenic shock, hypoxemic respiratory failure, DIC, and seizures or coma

63
Q

Paget’s disease of the nipple is almost always associated with what other condition?

A

adenocarcinoma

64
Q

What action should be taken based on BPP score?

A
  • 0-4: urgent delivery
  • 6: repeat in 24 hours
  • 8-10: rules out hypoxia

OBGYN (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions