Gynecology Flashcards

1
Q

Define endometriosis.

A

the presence of endometrial glands and storm in any extrauterine site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Endometriosis

A
  • the presence of endometrial glands and stroma in any extrauterine site
  • thought to arise from retrograde menstruation, vascular or lymphatic dissemination, or coelomic metaplasia
  • more common in women of reproductive age and those who are nulliparous; most commonly found on the ovaries, typically bilaterally
  • presents with progressive, cyclic dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia with deep penetration; chronic pain may arise if endometriosis gives rise to adhesions or pelvic scarring
  • less commonly, there may be GI or urinary symptoms, nodularity of the uterosacral ligaments, fixed and retroflexed uterus, palpable ovarian endometriomas, or an acute abdomen if there is torsion/rupture of an endometrioma
  • diagnosed based on tissue biopsy demonstrating two of the following: endometrial glands, endometrial stroma, endometrial epithelium, or hemosiderin-laden macrophages
  • US, most useful for pelvic or adnexal masses, typically reveals cysts containing low-level, homogenous internal echoes consistent with old blood
  • gross appearance varies widely from small clear, white, dark red, or brown lesions; chocolate cysts; or dark red or blue domes, which are frequently surrounded by reactive fibroses or dense adhesions
  • may be treated expectantly, medically, or surgically
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe three theories for the pathogenesis of endometriosis and one observation that supports each.

A
  • retrograde menstruation, consistent with the occurrence of pelvic endometriosis and its predilection for the ovaries and peritoneum
  • vascular/lymphatic dissemination, which explains distant sites of endometriosis
  • coelomic metaplasia, possibly in response to irritation caused by retrograde menstruation, consistent with endometriosis in some adolescents before the onset of menstruation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the gross appearance of endometriosis.

A

the gross appearance varies widely and can appear as…

  • small, clear or white lesions
  • small, dark red or brown lesions, known as mulberry or powder burn lesions
  • cysts filled with dark red or brown hemosiderin-laden fluid, known as a chocolate cyst
  • dark red or blue domes that may reach 15-20 cm in size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where and in whom is endometriosis most common?

A
  • most common in women of reproductive age who are nulliparous
  • most commonly involves the ovaries bilaterally
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does endometriosis typically present?

A
  • dysmenorrhea which is progressive and cyclical, following the menstrual cycle, which is often unresponsive to oral contraceptives and NSAIDs
  • dyspareunia, especially with deep penetration when endometriosis involves the uterosacral or deep posterior cul-de-sac
  • chronic pelvic pain may arise if endometriosis gives rise to adhesions and/or pelvic scarring
  • pelvic exam may reveal the classic uterosacral nodularity; less commonly, the uterus may be fixed and retroflexed because of extensive adhesions
  • ovarian endometriosis may be tender, palpable, and freely mobile in the pelvis
  • endometriosis may also give rise to infertility, especially if the fibrosis distorts pelvic anatomy
  • GI symptoms such as rectal bleeding and dyschezia may be seen if there is involvement of the bowel
  • may present with an acute abdomen if there is rupture or torsion of an endometrioma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Endometriosis in what location is most often associated with dyspareunia?

A

involvement of the uterosacral ligaments or deep posterior cul-de-sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is endometriosis diagnosed?

A
  • may be suspected based on direct visualization during laparoscopy or laparotomy
  • however, because lesions are highly variable in gross appearance, tissue biopsy demonstrating two or more of the following is required: endometrial epithelium, endometrial glands, endometrial stroma, or hemosiderin-laden macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CA-125 may be elevated by what sorts of conditions?

A
  • ovarian epithelial cancer
  • pelvic inflammation
  • uterine fibroids
  • endometriosis
  • some non-gyn sources such as cirrhosis and pancreatic or lung cancers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What role does imaging play in those with endometriosis?

A

it is typically reserved for cases in which there is a pelvic or adnexal mass and in these cases it usually reveals cysts containing low-level, homogenous internal echoes consistent with old blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the goals when treating endometriosis?

A
  • no treatment provides a permanent cure

- reasonable goals are, instead, reduction of pain, minimizing surgical intervention, and preserving fertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the expectant management of endometriosis.

A
  • it is an option for those with limited disease whose symptoms are minimal or nonexistent and for those who are attempting to become pregnant
  • additionally, older patients with mild symptoms may opt to wait until menopause when there is a natural decrease in sex hormones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the medical management of endometriosis.

A
  • useful for symptomatic patients with more than minimal disease who desire future pregnancy
  • medical management involves drugs capable of inducing atrophy of the endometrial tissue
  • oral contraceptives in conjunction with NSAIDs are first line therapy as they induce decimal reaction; progesterone therapy can also be used as it suppresses the HPO axis and directly affects the uterine endometrium
  • danazol is a medication that suppresses LH and FSH mid-cycle surges, but it has hypoestrogenic and androgenic side effects including acne, spotting, hot flashes, oily skin, facial hair, decreased libido, atrophic vaginitis, and deepening of the voice; some of which don’t resolve with discontinuation; may raise HDL and lower LDL
  • GnRH agonists down regulate the pituitary gland and suppress FSH and LH like danazol without androgenic side effects; the hypoestrogenic side effects of hot flashes, night sweats, and bone density loss persist; add-back therapy consisting of low-dose cOCPs is often used to mitigate the side effects without disrupting the therapeutic benefit
  • does not affect adhesions and fibrosis and recurrence is common
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is danazol?

A
  • a synthetic androgen, which suppresses LH and FSH mid-cycle surges
  • as such, it is often used for the treatment of endometriosis
  • side effects are related to the hypoestrogenic and androgenic effects; this includes acne, spotting, hot flashes, oily skin, facial hair, decreased libido, atrophic vaginitis, and deepening of the voice
  • added benefits are a reduction in LDL and rise in HDL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the surgical management of endometriosis.

A
  • conservative surgery involves excision, cauterization, or ablation of visible endometriosis lesions; normalization of anatomy; and preservation of the uterus and other organs
  • extirpative surgery is reserved for cases in which the disease is so extensive that conservative therapy is not feasible or when the patient has completed her family
  • extirpative surgery involves a total abdominal hysterectomy, salpingo-oopherectomy, lysis of adhesions, and removal of endometriosis implants
  • one or both ovaries may be spared if they are uninvolved but this increases the risk of recurrence; if the oophorectomy is bilateral, estrogen replacement therapy can be initiated with little risk of reactivating residual disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is vulvovaginitis?

A

a spectrum of conditions that cause vaginal or vulvar symptoms such as itching, burning, irritation, and abnormal discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the most common causes of vulvovaginitis?

A

bacterial vaginosis, vulvovaginal candidiasis, and trichomoniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the vulvar and vaginal epithelium.

A
  • both are lined by a stratified squamous epithelium
  • the vulvar epithelium contains hair follicles, sebaceous, swat, and apocrine glands
  • the vagina is non-keratinized and lacks these other specialized elements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What promotes lactobacilli growth in the vaginal tract?

A

estrogen-driven maturation of the vulvovaginal epithelium, which leads to an increase in glycogen levels, which supports this growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why are lactobacilli critical for a normal vulvovaginal ecosystem?

A

because they convert glycogen, produced by mature epithelial cells, to lactic acid, lowering the vaginal pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a normal pre-pubertal and post-pubertal vaginal pH? What is responsible for this change?

A
  • pre-pubertal is 6-8
  • post-pubertal is 3.5-4.7
  • this change is driven by estrogen, which triggers maturation of epithelial cells, leading to an increase in glycogen, which supports lactobacilli, which convert glycogen to lactic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a normal anaerobic to aerobic bacterial ratio in the vagina and why?

A

5:1 anaerobic to aerobic because the vagina is a potential space rather than an open tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the origins of the normal vaginal discharge.

A
  • the majority of the liquid portion consists of mucus from the cervix
  • there is small amount of moisture contributed by endometrial fluid, exudates from accessory glands, and vaginal transudate
  • the white to off-white color comes from exfoliated squamous cells from the vaginal wall
24
Q

What is the purpose of normal vaginal discharge?

A

to prevent dryness and irritation

25
Q

Bacterial Vaginosis

A
  • a polymicrobial infection characterized by a lack of normal hydrogen peroxide-producing lactobacilli and an overgrowth of facultative anaerobic organisms
  • presents with an increase in vaginal discharge which is thin, adherent, gray-white to yellow, and has a musty or fishy odor
  • the vagina has a pH greater than 4.5 and KOH produces a positive whiff test; a wet mount shoe an increase in WBC count, fewer lactobacilli, and many clue cells
  • oral or intravaginal metronidazole or clindamycin are the preferred treatments
  • treatment of women with high-risk pregnancies reduces the incidence of PROM and preterm delivery; there is no indication for treating asymptomatic women or partner’s of women with BV
  • associated with PID and postoperative infections and increases the risk of acquiring HIV and herpes simplex
26
Q

What are clue cells?

A

epithelial cells seen on wet prep with numerous coccoid bacteria attached, indicative of bacterial vaginosis

27
Q

Vulvovaginal Candidiasis

A
  • caused by a ubiquitous airborne fungi, most often Candida albicans
  • risk factors include pregnancy, diabetes, obesity, immunosuppression, oral contraceptive use, corticosteroids, and broad spectrum antibiotics
  • more common in reproductive years because Candidal species tropically require estrogenized tissue
  • typically presents with itching, burning, external dysuria, dyspareunia, irritation, and a thick, odorless, white, “cottage cheese-like” discharge; vaginal pH is normal
  • diagnosis requires visualization of blastospores or pseudohyphae on saline or KOH prep or a positive culture
  • treated with intravaginal synthetic imidazole for seven days or single-dose oral fluconazole; recurrent cases in non pregnant women are most likely to benefit from weekly oral fluconazole for 6 months
  • it is not sexually transmitted and treatment of partners is not recommended
  • complicated cases are those that are recurrent, associated with severe symptoms, non-Candida albicans infections, or found in women with diabetes, severe medical illness, or immunosuppression
28
Q

What role does fluconazole have in the treatment of vulvovaginal candidiasis in pregnant women?

A

although high daily doses of fluconazole have been associated with birth defects, single-dose oral therapy for vulvovaginal candidiasis is safe

29
Q

Trichomonal Vulvovaginitis

A
  • infection with a flagellated protozoan, T. vaginalis
  • transmitted via fomites and through sexual contact
  • presents with itching, burning, dysuria, dyspareunia, postcoital bleeding, edema and erythema of the vulva, and a “strawberry cervix” with numerous petechiae
  • the discharge is often copious, thin, frothy, and yellow-green to grey with a rancid odor
  • associated with PID, endometritis, infertility, ectopic pregnancy, preterm birth, low birth weight, and PROM; it often co-exists with other STDs and bacterial vaginosis and facilitates HIV transmission
  • vaginal pH is greater than 4.5 and a wet mount shows mature epithelial cells, WBCs, and protozoa
  • treat with oral metronidazole or tinidazole; partners should be treated and the pair should avoid intercourse until the regimen is complete and each is asymptomatic
  • metronidazole is used for treatment during pregnancy but may not prevent complications
30
Q

What is the major side effect of metronidazole?

A

it produces a disulfiram-like reaction to alcohol

31
Q

Compare and contrast the findings and treatment for bacterial vaginosis, candidal vulvovaginitis, and trichomoniasis.

A
  • bacterial vaginosis: a thin, white, adherent discharge with a fishy odor; increased WBCs, clue cells, and fewer lactobacilli on microscopy; treat with metronidazole or clindamycine
  • candidiasis: a thick, curdy, white discharge; find hyphae or buds on microscopy; treat with imidazoles or fluconazole
  • trichomoniasis: a yellow-green, frothy, adherent discharge; find normal epithelial cells, WBCs, and trichomonads on microscopy; treat with metronidazole or tinidazole
32
Q

Atrophic Vaginitis

A
  • atrophy of the vaginal epithelium due to diminished estrogen levels, which leads to a loss of cellular glycogen and therefore lactic acid
  • most commonly in postmenopausal women but can be seen in those who are premenopausal
  • leads to a higher pH, thinned epithelium, loss of connective tissue elasticity, shortening, and narrowing
  • presents with decreased vaginal discharge, dryness, itching, burning, and dyspareunia
  • diagnosed on the basis of vaginal pHH and the presence of parasol or intermediate cells on microscopy
  • treated with local water-based moisturizing or topical or oral estrogen therapy
33
Q

Withdrawal of estrogen causes what changes in the vagina?

A
  • leads to a loss of cellular glycogen and therefore lactic acid
  • yielding a vagina that has a higher pH, thinned epithelium, loss of connective tissue elasticity, shortening, and narrowing
34
Q

Desquamative Inflammatory Vaginitis

A
  • seen in perimenopausal and postmenopausal women
  • presents with a purulent discharge and vulvovaginal burning and erythema
  • microscopy shows relatively few lactobacilli and an overgrowth of gram-positive cocci, typically streptococci while vaginal pH is greater than 4.5
  • may be mistaken clinically for trichomoniasis but microscopy shows no protozoans and cultures are negative for T. vaginalis
  • treated with topical clindamycin for 14 days
35
Q

Lichen Sclerosus

A
  • a benign thinning of the epidermis and fibrosis of the dermis of the vulvar skin most common in post-menopausal women
  • presents as a ivory papules or hypopigmentation, with “parchment-like” skin, itching, burning, and often obliteration of the labia minor
  • treatment involves topical corticosteroids
  • carries some risk for squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva (more than Lichen simplex chronicus)
36
Q

Lichen Simplex Chronicus

A
  • a hyperplasia of the vulvar squamous epithelium with an inflammatory cell infiltrate
  • caused by a cycle of scratching, itching, and epidermal thickening
  • presents as a leukoplakia with thick, leathery skin
  • treated with corticosteroids and behavioral changes to break the itch/scratch cycle
  • benign and with no risk for squamous cell carcinoma
37
Q

How does lichen sclerosus compare with lichen simplex chronicus?

A
  • Lichen Sclerosus is a thinning of the epidermis and fibrosis of the dermis that results in thinning of the skin and carries a risk for squamous cell carcinoma
  • Lichen Simplex Chronicus is a hyperplastic thickening of the skin that poses no risk for carcinoma
38
Q

Lichen Planus

A
  • an inflammatory skin condition that can affect the oral cavity, skin, vulva, and vagina
  • may present with burning, itching, insertional dyspareunia, contact bleeding, and profuse vaginal discharge
  • there is often a lacy, reticular pattern on the labia and perineum with or without scarring and erosions
  • overtime adhesions form, the normal architecture is lost, and the vagina may obliterate
39
Q

Squamous Cell Hyperplasia of the Vagina

A

has a pink-red appearance with an overlying white keratin

40
Q

Vestibulodynia

A
  • a constellation of symptoms limited to the vestibule, which include intense pain with touch or attempted entry, tenderness to pressure, and erythema
  • often has an abrupt onset with the pain described as sharp, burning, and raw
  • treated with TCAs to block sympathetic pain loops, topical anesthetics, or pelvic floor rehabilitation
41
Q

Mucopurulent Cervicitis

A
  • defined by a mucopurulent exudate visible in the endocervical canal
  • caused by Chlamydia or gonorrhea, but in most cases, neither organism can be isolated
  • the need for treatment should be based on culture/PCR unless the likelihood of infection is high or the patient is unlikely to return for follow-up
  • treatment is with ceftriaxone and azithromycin
42
Q

For patients with a history of endometriosis who are struggling to get pregnant, what is the appropriate therapy?

A

ovarian stimulation with intrauterine insemination

43
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary dysmenorrhea?

A
  • primary is due to an excess of prostaglandins, leading to painful uterine muscle activity
  • secondary is due to some other clinically identifiable cause
44
Q

How do we define chronic pelvic pain?

A

as noncyclic pelvic pain (not solely associated with menstruation), lasting 6 months or more

45
Q

Primary Dysmenorrhea

A
  • painful menstruation due to an excess of prostaglandins, specifically PGF2a, leading to painful uterine muscle activity
  • most common in women in their late teens to early twenties, becoming more rare with age
  • the pain is usually diffusely located in the lower abdomen and suprapubic region, with radiation around or through the back; the fetal position is often relieving
  • often presents with diarrhea, n/v, headache, or dizziness because the prostaglandins cause smooth muscle contraction outside of the uterus as well; dyspareunia should suggest a secondary cause
  • a diagnosis of exclusion
  • typically responds to NSAIDs, the application of heat, exercise, or psychotherapy and reassurance
  • management may ultimately necessitate use of hormonal therapy including cOCPs or progesterone-based LARCs; rarely do patients require a presacral neurectomy
46
Q

Secondary Dysmenorrhea

A
  • painful menstruation due to some clinically identifiable cause, most often endometriosis, adenomyosis, adhesions, PID, leiomyomata
  • increasingly common with greater age
  • the pain often begins for menstruation, gets worse during menstruation, and persists longer than the menstrual period
  • more likely to be associated with dyspareunia than primary dysmenorrhea
  • endometriosis is supported by finding painful nodules in the posterior cul-de-sac, adenomyosis by an enlarged, boggy uterus, leiomyomata by a rubbery, solid, oddly contoured uterus, and adhesions by limited uterine mobility
  • in many cases exploratory laparotomy is needed to establish a diagnosis
  • NSAIDs, cOCPs, progesterone-based LARCs, and presacral neurectomy are possible therapies
47
Q

Which prostaglandins are responsible for primary dysmenorrhea and primary menorrhagia?

A
  • dysmenorrhea: PGF2a, which causes contractions of smooth muscle
  • menorrhagia: PGE2, a potent vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation
48
Q

What is the normal role of PGF2a in the uterus? What drives production?

A
  • progesterone drives production of PGF2a, reaching a peak around the start of menstruation
  • with the onset of menstruation, formed prostaglandins are released form the shedding endometrium
49
Q

Why is primary dysmenorrhea often accompanied by diarrhea, n/v, headache, dizziness, etc.?

A

because it is mediated by PGF2a, which causes smooth muscle contraction outside of the uterus as well

50
Q

What are the most common causes of secondary dysmenorrhea?

A
  • endometriosis
  • adenomyosis
  • leiomyomata
  • PID
  • adhesions
51
Q

How does the pain associated with primary dysmenorrhea differ from that associated with secondary dysmenorrhea in regards to quality of the pain?

A
  • primary is described as diffusely located in the lower abdomen or suprapubic region; radiates around or through the back; is accompanied by n/v, diarrhea, headache, etc.; and is confined to the menstrual period
  • secondary is more likely associated with dyspareunia than the other symptoms and is more likely to come before and persist after the menstrual period
52
Q

If a patient presents with secondary dysmenorrhea, what exam findings would be consistent with:

  • endometriosis
  • adenomyosis
  • leiomyomata
  • adhesions
A
  • endometriosis: painful nodules in the posterior cul-de-sac and restricted uterine motion
  • adenomyosis: an enlarged, boggy-feeling uterus
  • leiomyomata: a rubbery, solid, consistency to an irregularly contoured uterus
  • adhesions: restricted uterine motion
53
Q

How is dysmenorrhea treated?

A
  • first line therapy is NSAIDs, which tend to be more helpful for those with primary dysmenorrhea
  • second line therapy includes cOCPs or progesterone-based LARCs
  • presacral neurectomy is a treatment of last resort
54
Q

Chronic Pelvic Pain

A
  • the preferred definition is noncyclic pain lasting for more than 6 months that localizes to the anatomic pelvis and is of sufficient severity to cause functional problems
  • most common causes include endometriosis, gynecologic malignancies, PID, history of abuse, depression, interstitial or radiation cystitis, IBS/IBD, abdominal wall myofascial pain
  • treatment depends on the etiology but adding psychotherapy to medical treatment improves outcomes
55
Q

Interstitial Cystitis

A
  • a chronic inflammatory condition of the bladder
  • thought to be caused by a disruption of the glycosaminoglycan layer that normally coats the mucosa of the bladder
  • often presents with pelvic pain, urinary urgency and frequency, and dyspareunia
  • treatment includes dietary modification, agents aimed at decreasing inflammation and pain signals, dimethyl sulfoxide