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OBGYN > Gyn UWise > Flashcards

Gyn UWise Flashcards

1
Q

What are the advantages of colpocleisis?

A

it is fast and can be done without general anesthesia, making it a good option for those who are poor surgical candidates and have no desire for future intercourse

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2
Q

What is danazol and what are it’s downsides?

A

it is an androgenic medication used to treat hormonal disorders including endometriosis but has androgen-baed side effects including weight gain, hair growth, etc

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3
Q

What is the most common indication for a ductogram?

A

bloody discharge from a single breast

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4
Q

How long after discontinuing breastfeeding may a women continue to produce milk?

A

up to two years

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5
Q

Why would you want to repeat prolactin levels in a women with elevated levels and a whitish discharge?

A

because any manipulation of the breast may artificially raise prolactin levels, which should instead be drawn after 24 hours without nipple stimulation

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6
Q

What is the most common cause of cyclic mastalgia in young women?

A

fibrocystic change and the accompanying hormonal responses

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7
Q

What follow up is indicated if a fine needle aspiration biopsy of a breast lesion reveals clear fluid? Bloody fluid?

A
  • clear fluid requires re-examination in two months to ensure there has not been a recurrence
  • bloody fluid requires an excisional biopsy
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8
Q

How is mastitis treated?

A
  • use ibuprofen plus acetaminophen for analgesia
  • begin IV or oral antibiotics depending on the severity
  • continue breastfeeding
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9
Q

What role do fine needle aspiration and excisional biopsies play in the assessment of breast lesions?

A
  • fine needle aspiration is used first because it is less invasive and if clear fluid is drained, there is no need for an excisional biopsy
  • excisional biopsy is the follow up to FNA if there is a bloody aspirate or if FNA results are negative since there is a high false negative rate
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10
Q

Which risk factors are indications for breast MRI screening?

A
  • those with a BRCA mutation or first-degree family member with such a mutation
  • those with a more than 20-25% lifetime risk of breast cancer
  • those with a history of radiation to the chest between ages 10-30
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11
Q

What are the possible risks or complications with a LEEP procedure?

A
  • infection or bleeding
  • cervical stenosis
  • risk for preterm delivery
  • persistent disease
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12
Q

What is considered the definitive treatment for those with endometriosis?

A

hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oopherectomy

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13
Q

Molar pregnancy is more common in which age groups and race?

A

more common amongst Asians and in those less than 20 or older than 40

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14
Q

What is the proper management of a molar pregnancy?

A
  • CXR to assess for metastases
  • uterine evacuation with suction dnc
  • monitoring of B-hCG levels
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15
Q

How is a diagnosis of choriocarcinoma confirmed?

A

by evaluating the patient’s B-hCG levels

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16
Q

How long after a molar pregnancy until it is safe for a patient to become pregnant?

A

they should wait six months after B-hCG levels return to zero

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17
Q

Molar pregnancies are associated with what kind of ovarian cysts?

A

lutein cysts

18
Q

Lichen sclerosis is a risk factor for what kind of vulvar malignancy?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

19
Q

What is the typical appearance of a verrucous carcinoma of the vulva?

A

it has a cauliflower like appearance

20
Q

What is the typical appearance of Paget’s disease of the vulva?

A

it is a white plaque-like lesion with poorly demarcated erythema, not a discrete mass as in squamous cell carcinoma

21
Q

How should VIN III be treated?

A

with wide local excision

22
Q

What is trichloroacetic acid a therapy for?

A

HPV-related condylomas

23
Q

What is imiquimod a therapy for?

A

HPV-related condylomas

24
Q

How would you treat multifocal VIN II?

A

with CO2 laser ablation

25
Q

What is the most common symptom of leiomyomas?

A

heavy menstrual bleeding

26
Q

What kind of leiomyoma is most likely to affect fertility?

A

submucosal

27
Q

If GnRH agonists are withdrawn, what typically happens to fibroids?

A

they will resume their former growth potential

28
Q

What would be an indication for myomectomy?

A

fibroids that are symptomatic to the point of disrupting the patient’s daily living or those that distort the uterine cavity to a sufficient degree as to disrupt fertility

29
Q

Which one hormone level is most likely to support a diagnosis of PCOS?

A

testosterone level

30
Q

What class of medications are known for causing hyperprolactinemia?

A

antidopaminergics, particularly psychotropics

31
Q

What is the most appropriate first step in evaluation of a patient with menorrhagia and no other risk factors?

A

pelvic ultrasound

32
Q

What size threshold indicates active rather than expectant management of a uterine polyp?

A

those more than 1.5 cm should not be simply observed

33
Q

What is mid-cycle vaginal bleeding?

A

that at the time of ovulation, associated with the concurrent drop in estrogen levels

34
Q

What is the best surgical approach when dealing with a submucosal fibroid?

A

submucosal, unlike intramural or subserosal, cannot be accessed laparoscopically and is instead removed hysteroscopically

35
Q

Describe the sequence of sexual maturation during puberty in women.

A

thelarche, adrenarche, growth spurt, menarche,

36
Q

What is the average age of thelarche in girls?

A

age 10

37
Q

What weight must be achieved before menses will typically commence? What two other factors must be present for secondary sex development?

A
  • typically 85-106 pounds

- sleep and optic exposure to light are also very important in the development of secondary sex characteristics

38
Q

Partial deletions of the long arm of chromosome X are associated with what phenotypes/dysfunction?

A

premature ovarian failure

39
Q

What are the main features of Kallmann syndrome?

A

olfactory tract hypoplasia and failure of the arcuate nucleus to secrete adequate GnRH, meaning patients have no sense of smell and no secondary sexual development

40
Q

Mullerian anomalies most often co-occur with what other set of anomalies?

A

renal anomalies

41
Q

What kind of ovarian tumor is known for producing estrogen?

A

a granulosa tumor

OBGYN (21 decks)

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