UWORLD 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Infertility is defined as?

Initial evaluation includes?

A

a couple’s inability to conceive after one year of appropriately timed unprotected intercourse.

Initial evaluation includes a semen analysis, a noninvasive, low cost test to detect male factor infertility.

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2
Q

What is common adverse effect of topical antibotic use?

What does it also increase the risk for?

A

Allergic contact dermatitis

*may range from mild reactions (erythema) to vesiculation or eczematous changes

Antibotic-resistant organisms

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3
Q

Dermatits Herpetiformis

what is it?

Associated with?

What is usually performed?

A

Autoimmune disroder characterized by crusting & vesicles in a widespread distrubtion, primiarly on the elbows, knees, buttocks.

Severe itching

It is assoicated iwth celiac disease.

Skin biopsy is usually performed to differentiate DH from other autoimmeune vesitcular/bullous disorders.

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4
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris characterstic features

A

Flaccid bullae

Soughing of skin

oral lesions

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5
Q

Bullous pemphigold characteristics

A

tense bullae

itching

Erythema & urticaria

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6
Q

LgA bullous dermatosis

A

Group lesions,

linear or annular pattern

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7
Q

Lewy body dementia

A

2nd most common degenerative cause of dementia after Alzheimer disease

chacterized by progessive dementia, visual hallucinations, parkinsonian features, early gait dsyfnction and neuroleptic hypersensitivity.

Prominent flucatations in symptoms are also suggestive of this diagnosis.

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8
Q

Allzheimer disease versus lewy body dementia

A

Parkinsonism is not seen in AD and dementia associated with AD progresses over a much longer period.

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9
Q

Frontotemporal dementia

A

manifests as personality changes that initalily dominate over cogntive dysfunction.

Patients typically present with disinhibition, personality changes, extreme agitiation and urinary incontinence.

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10
Q

Treatment of Lewy Body dementia

What medication can exacerbate the visual hallucination in these patients?

A

tx overlaps with that of both alzheimer disease (AD) and parkinson dementia (PD)

LBD is treatd with cholinesterase inhibitors (also used for AD) and antiparkinson medication such as levodopa and dopamine agonist (also used for PD).

Exacerbated by therapy with dopamine agonists.

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11
Q

Patients who have preeclampsia with severe features

presentation?

What do they require?

A

Blood pressure > or = to 160/110 and signs of end organ damage (ex; headache, visual symptoms)

stabilization with blood pressure control (ex: hydralazine, labetalol) and magneisum sulfate for seizure prophyalxis.

At > or = to 34 weeks gestation, delivery is initated after maternal stabilization is established.

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12
Q

Pre-eclampsia without severe features are delivered at?

what if they have severe features?

A

> or = to 37 weeks gestation

> or = to 34 weeks

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13
Q

What is the strongest known factor for male breast cancer?

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

abnormality caused by an additional X chromosome (47, XXY).

Carries af 50% fold increase in the risk of breast cancer compred to the men in the normal genotype.

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14
Q

Transportation of an amputated part

A

should be wrapped in sterile gauze, moistened withs aline and placed in a sealed, sterile plastic bag.

Bag should be placed in a ice mixed with saline container.

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15
Q

Pregnancy induced pruritis

How does it present?

treatment?

A

common benign condition that typically presents with localized, focal pruritis over the abdomen without an associated rash.

Treatment options include oatmeal baths, UV light exposure and antihistamines.

Not at increase risk for pregnancy complications.

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16
Q

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregancy versus Pregnancy -induced skin changes

A

ICP has similar presentation to pregnancy-related pruritis: pruritus in the absence of a rash.

However, in ICP there is generalized prurutis that is often most intense on the palms and soles.

The diagnosis is confirmed with elevated bile acid levels.

ICP is associated with an increase risk for intrauterine fetal demise and managment includes delivery at 37 weeks gestation.

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17
Q

Pempigold gestationis

what is it?

Inital presentation?

what is characteristic spared?

A

pregnancy related autoimmune disease (antibody reaction to basement membrane)

typically abdominal pruritis.

After the prurtis, the rash develops around the umbilicus and trunk of the urticarial papules and plaques that eventually form tense bualle.

the mucous membranes are characteristic spared.

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18
Q

Treatment of pemphigod gestationis

A

symptom control: relieving pruritis and limiting bullae formation

High-potency topical corticosteroids (ex: triamcionolone)

Antihistamines (ex: loratidine, cetirizine) can be added for pruritis release.

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19
Q

Travel to an endemic region, peripheral eosinophilia and positive fecal occult blood?

What are the common ones?

How is diagnosis made?

What is the treatment?

A

Intestinal helminths

largely a disease of developing world where water and sewage sanitation is poor.

Most common helminhts include Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm), Trichuris Trichiura (whipworm) and Ancylostoma duodenale (hookworm).

Diangosis is made with stool ova and parasite testing

Oral abendazole is typically curative.

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20
Q

Testes that have not descended by what age rarely descend sponstaneously?

What also happens?

Next steps?

A

6 months

spermatogonia degeneration begins in the undescended testicles at this age as well.

Orhiopexy is optimally performed during infancy to improve fertility and testicular growth.

also decreases torion resk as the testis is surgically affixed to the scrotal wall.

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21
Q

Skin conditions and associated diseases

acanthosis nigricans

A

insulin resistance

GI malignancy

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22
Q

Skin conditions and associated diseases

Porphyria cutanea tarda

Cautenous leukocytoclastic vasculitis (palpable purpura) secondary to cryoglobulinemia

A

Hepatitis C

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23
Q

Dermatitis Herpitformis and associated diseases

A

Celiac disease

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24
Q

Sudden osnet severe psoriasis, recurrent herpes zoster and disseminated mollucsum contagiosum and associated diseases

A

HIV infection

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25
Q

Severe seborrheic dermatitis and associated condtions

A

HIV infection, parkinson disease

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26
Q

Pyoderma gangrenosum and associated condition

A

inflammatory bowel disease

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27
Q

What strongly suggests NF-2?

How does it differ frm NF-1?

A

Hypopigmented spots, in combination with family hx of bilateral deafness

NFI has hyperpigmented spots; can also present with acoustic neuroma (typically unilateral) but cutaneous neurofibromas, axillary freckling and other symptoms are usually present.

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28
Q

Tuberous sclerosis

A

hypopigmented maculae (ash-leaf spots)

glial proliferation

several organ harmatomas/cysts

Tuberous - think Tumors

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29
Q

Sturge-Weber syndrome

A

facial port-wine stain and leptomeninngeal angiomatosis

Sturge = Stain

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30
Q

Osler-Rendu-Weber Syndrome

A

multiple telangiceastia and vascular lesions of the CNS

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31
Q

Aspirin toxicity versus Meniere disease

A

Asprin toxicity may manifest as tinnitus and vestibular symptoms, but unilateral hearing loss does not occur with this condition.

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32
Q

Patients found to have aortic root disease and/or family hx of aortic dissection or sudden death should be counseled against

A

any strenous activity.

They can participate in low-to-moderate intensity recreational noncompetitive sports (ex: bowling, golf, doubles tennis)

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33
Q

What is a common precipitant of SIADH through a poorly understood mechanism?

What else has been associated with SIADH?

A

Pneumonia

A number of psychiatric medications (ex: SSRI, carbamazepine, valproic acid)

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34
Q

hyponatremia due to SIADh is characterized by

A

low serum osmolaity (<275),

inappropriately high urine osmolality (>100)

high urine sodium concentration (>40)

in the setting of clinical euvolemia

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35
Q

Pseudohyponatremia versus SIADH

A

pseudohyponatremia describes an artifical lab result that occurs in patients with increased fraction of the nonaqueous component of the serum (ex: paraproteinemia, hypertriglycermeida).

The measured serum osmolaity is normal in patients with pseudohyponatremia

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36
Q

SIADH versus excessive water ingestion

A

In Excessive water ingestion, Urine osmolality is low (<100) as the kidneys attempt to excrete large amounts of free water.

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37
Q

Absolute contraindiaction to OCPS

A

Migraine headaches (increased risk of ischemic stroke due to estrogen in the contraceptives)

Blood pressure > or = 160/100 and

women > or = to 35 who smoke > or = 15 cigarettes per day

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38
Q

Patient has brief and shoot back pain provoked by bending forward and straining, diminishes on lying down, what is it?

What test will you do to confirm?

A

nerve root irritation

Positive straight leg test at 60 or less is usually present

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39
Q

Good confirmatory tests must have high what?

A

specificity

as specifity increases, PPV also increases and the number of FP decrease

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40
Q

Highly _______ tests are useful for screeing; highly ________ tests are useful for confirmation.

A

Highly sensitive tests are useful for screening; highly specific tests are useful for confirmation.

Given a test with high sensitivity, a negative result would help rule out a diagnosis (SnNout)

High specificity, a positive results would help rule in a diagnosis (SpPin)

*For example, Anti-CCP antibodies have some value in patients with a negative RF levels. They carry a higher specificity.

A technietium-99 nuclear scan is highly specific for meckel’s diverticulum

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41
Q

A screening test must have high?

A

Sensitivity.

Sensitivity = TP / (TP/FN)

Probablity of a disease person testing positive

This high sensitivy helps “RULE OUT” the disease by decreasing the number of false-negative results and by increasing the negative predictive value (SnNOut)

NPV = TN/ TN +FN

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42
Q

ACL versus PCL injury

A

ACL injuries are common in atheltic activities.

Unlike patients with ACL, PLC patients do not complain of a typical “popping” sound

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43
Q

CSF analysis

A
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44
Q

The classic dashboard injury results from?

A

posteriorly directed force on the anterior aspect of the proximal tibia with the knee in a flexed position

This results in distruption of the PCLda

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45
Q

Sample size and power realtionship

A

Sample size is related to power, which is the ability to detect a diff between groups in a study.

Larger sample size results in more power.

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46
Q

How do you tell the difference between normal grief from major depressive disorder?

A

Persistent sadness, persvasive anhedonia and functional impairement can help differentiate normal grief from major depressive disorder.

Grieving individuals tend to have intermittent periods of sadness that revolve around reminders of the deceased.

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47
Q

Drug of choice for immediate treatment of metoclopramide-induced acute dystonia?

A

Dihphenhydramine IV

aside from having anithistamine properties, it has anticholinergic properties as well.

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48
Q

Diffuse esophagel spasm

what is it?

Gold standard for diagnosis?

First line treatment?

A

motility disorder

esophageal manometry - premature contractions of the distal esophagus with normal distal esophagel sphincter relaxation.

Calcium channel blockers (ex: dilitiazem)

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49
Q

Achalsia

is caused by?

Secondary achalsia can be caused by?

What does esophagogram typically reveal?

A

lower esophageal spincter cannot relax due to degeneration of the ganglia in the auerbach plexus

infection with Trypansoma cruzi (Chagas disease)

Dilated esophagus with bird’s beak narrowing of the distal esophagus

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50
Q

Patients with brain death would have absence of reflexes associated with?

A

cortical and brainstem function

(pupillary, oculocephalic, oculovestibulor (calcoric), corneal, gag, sucking, swallowing and extensor pospturing)

Patients with brain death can have reflexes and movement, but these orginiate from peripheral nerves or the spinal cord.

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51
Q

Prophylatic therapy of choice for preventing DVT in patients with hip fracture?

what if the patient is schduled for surgery?

A

LMWH and should be started on admission even if the patient is scheduled for surgery.

This can be stopped 12 hours before surgery.

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52
Q

Non-overlapping confidence interval suggests

A

statistically significant differences between the groups.

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53
Q

What sports are not recommended during pregnancy?

A

scuba diving (risk of fetal decompression sickness from air embolus formation)

expercise associated with a high risk of falling (skiing, sky diving, horsback riding)

and contact sports

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54
Q

Major treatable risk factors for ischmic stroke include?

Most important modifable risk factor for stroke?

A

HTN, diabetes, smoking and dyslipidemia.

HTN

*some sttudies have shown modest benefit with smoking cessation and control of blood sugar and lipids

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55
Q

First line therapy for premenstrual syndrome/premenstrual dysphoric disorder?

What if this is ineffective?

Patients with this is ast an increased risk for?

A

SSRI

Another SSRI or OCP may be tried

psychiatric disoders such as Depression

*80% lifetime risk. This includes primary mood and anxieity disorders

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56
Q

TSH security pituitary adenomas cause?

What may these tumors also secrete?

A

central hyperthyroidism with elevated TSH and thyroid hormone levels.

biologically inactive alpha subunit and other pituitary hormones (ex: GH leading to acromegaly) and can cause mass effect symptoms (ex: headaches, visual field defects)

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57
Q

What are the indications for implantable cardioverter-defibrilator placement in HCM patients?

A

Prior hx of cardiac aarrest or sustained VT

Family hx of sudden death

syncope (recurrent or exertional)

nonsustaned VT on holter monitering

hypotension with exercise

Extreme LVH (>3 cm maximal septal wall thickeness)

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58
Q

First line treatment of HTN in patients with HCM

A

betablockers

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59
Q

Patient suspected of Pagets disese of the bone

what is it due to?

Next step in management of a patient?

Treatment?

A

increased bone turnover

obtain calcium and alkaline phoshatase levels

(elevated ALP and normal calcium).

Bisphosphonates (reduce bone turnover)

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60
Q

Pagents disease of the bone versus Multiple myeloma

A

Serum protein electrophoresis is useful screening test for patients with suspected monoclonal gammopathy, such as in multiple myeloma

MM usually involves bones with scattered lytic lesions or occansionally diffuse osteopenia.

The thickened, sclerotic bone in patients with PDB would not be seen in myeloma.

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61
Q

Hearing loss in patients with Paget disease

A

Hearing loss is a common complication

Treatment with calcitonin or bisphosphonates can slow the progression of hearing loss but is unlikely to reverese hearing loss that has already occured

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62
Q

Indications for IVC filter placements in patients with PE or DVT.

A

patients who have complications of anticoagulation, contraindications to anticoagulation or failure of anticoagulation

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63
Q

What the most common pathogens responsible for acute otitis media include?

What may cause otitis-conjunctiviits syndrome?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae,

Nontypeable Haeomophilus influenzae (may cause otitis-conjuncitivitis syndrome, which is purulent conjunctivitis that occurs the same time as acute otitis media)

Moraxella catarhalis

*M. catarrhalis less common than S. pneumo and H. influenzae and does not cause otits-conjunctivitis syndrome

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64
Q

Uncomplicated acute otitis media should be treated with?

Recurrent AOM?

A

high dose oral amoxicillin

recurrent AOM should raise concern for beta-lactamase resistant and warrants treatment with amoxicillin-clavulanci acid.

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65
Q

HIV lipodystrophy presentation?

What is suggestive of this?

What are closely interrelatd with HIV lipodystrophy?

A

lipoatrophy, fat accumulation or both in different areas.

A pattern with increased fat tissue deposition on the back of the neck and abdomen along with thin extremities and face

Insulin resistance and dyslipedemia

*cause and effect is unclear

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66
Q

Cushing disease versus HIV lipodystrophy

A

Icnreased fat deposition in the neck and abdomen could be confused with cushing’s disease from adrenal hyperplasia.

However, only adrenal insufficiency has a correlation with HIV infection.

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67
Q

Mycotic aneurysms

aka

Can occur due to?

can present as

A

a.k.a infected arterial aneurysm

metastic infection from Infective endocarditis, with steptic embolization and localized vessel wall destruction in the cerebral (or systemic) circulation.

expanding mass with focal neurologic findings or with aneurysm rupture and suarachnoid hemorrhage

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68
Q

consituational pubertal delay is characterized by?

management?

A

delayed puberty

retarded bone age

postive family hx without any evidence of systemic disorder

these patients develop puberty without any intervention

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69
Q

management of patients wth poor response to methotrexate?

What must patients be screened for first?

A

switching or adding an anti-cytokine drug (ex: infliximab, entanercept)

Use of anti-cytokine therapy is associated with higher incidence of opportunisitc infections, particular reactivation of TB; therefore, all such patients hould be screened for latent TB by PPD testing.

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70
Q

Any monoarticular arthritis in patients with RA should be considered as what until proven otherwise?

mgmt?

A

septic arthritis

especialy when accompanied by systemic signs of infeciton such as fever

do joint aspirations

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71
Q

Lung cancer screening by annual low dose CT is recommended for?

A

patients 55-80 who have > or = 30 pack year smoking history and are current smokers or quit within the last 15 years.

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72
Q

Managment of patients with suspected TB menigitis

A

should be initated on treatment prior to bacteriologic confirmation

Treatment involves 2 months of 4 drug therapy with isonaizd, rifampin, pyrazinamide ad eitehr fluoroquinolone or injectable aminoglycoside, followed by 9-12 months of continued therapy with isoniazide plus rifampin.

Patients should also receive adjuvant glucocorticoids to reduce treatment-associaed CNS inflammation

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73
Q

Screening for pheochromocytoma should be considered in paients with?

Biochemical Diagnosis?

What is the next step for localizing a pheochyromocytoma after biochemical confirmation of the tumor?

What if it’s negative?

A

episodic symptoms (headaches, diaphoresis and tachycardia), early onset or refactory hypertension and paraosymal hypertension.

Measuring plasma free metanephrine levels or 24 hour urine collection for measurement of catecholamine and metanephrine.

Abdominal imaging (CT or MRI) to help localize pheochromocytomas, which are usually located in the adrenal glands.

If negative, metaiodbenzylguanine (MIBG) scan, which is a functional scintigraphhy with iodine labled MIBG.

MIBG resembles NE, is taken up by adrenergic tissue and can detect tumors not detected by MRI or CT.

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74
Q

Removal of pheocytomchroma tumor is performed only after what?

A

adrequate prepoperative control of blood pressure for 10-4 days with an alpha blocker, and intravascular fluid volume repletion with liberal fluid and salt.

BB are given only to patients with adequate and complete alpha blockade.

*BB started before alpha blockade can lead to paradooxical increase in BP.

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75
Q

Late neurosyphilis can present with

A

tabes dorsalis (sensory ataxia and lacinating pains) and Argyll Robertson pupils (consriction with accommodation (reduce in size on a near object) but not with light)

Diminished pain and temp sensation, areflexia.

lancinating pains (brielf shooting or burining back in the face, back or extremities)

instability during the Rhomberg test

*Tabes dorsalis is a neurogenative disorder that inolves the poserior spinal column and nerve roots.

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76
Q

HHS versus DKA

A

Both HHS and DKA occur in patients with poorly controlled diabetes.

Patients with Type 2 DM tend to develop HHS as opposed to DKA which is ruled out by patient negative serum ketones.

HHS - has serum bicarbonate near lower limits of normal

DKA - have anion gap acidosis (secondary to ketoacid production)

*Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state is a life-threatening emergency manifested by marked elevation of blood glucose, hyperosmolarity, and little or no ketosis.

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77
Q

Chronic alcohol use, DM and Lyme disease versus Tabes Dorsalis

A

Chronic aclohol use and DM can result in symmetric sensory peripheral nuropahty that presents similarly to Tabes dorsalis.

Lyme disease has high incidence in Mid-Atlantic region of the US and can also have variable neurolgic manifestations.

However, Argyll Robertson puppils are not associated with these conditions.

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78
Q

Standarized incidence ratio (SIR)

A

used to determine if the occurance of cancer in a small population is high or low relative to an expected value derived from a larger comparison population.

It is calculated by dividing the observed cases by the expected cases.

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79
Q

Management of HHS

A

Aggressive volume resuscitation since they are generally severely volume depleted.

IV insulin should be started after the patient has been partially resusciated.

Aggressive management of Hyperkalemia should be avoided in these patients since these patients generally have a total body potassium deficit (that would become unmasked with fluids and insulin).

* Analysis of the physiopathology of the HHS syndrome points to sodium and water deficits as the principal cause of symptoms. A rapid lowering of the blood glucose level may be detrimental, since this leads to an osmotic gradient between the central nervous system and the intravascular space. Treatment should be directed at the rapid replacement of sodium and water with minimal administration of insulin.

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80
Q

Patients who are actively suicidal and refusing treatment should be placed on?

A

1:1 observation and hospitalization under involuntary status.

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81
Q

Patellofemoral pain syndrome

More common in?

Diagnosis?

Treatment?

A

most common cause of knee pain in young adults, especially women

*women have greater angle btw the main axis of the quadriceps and the vertical axis of the patellofemoral grove

Clinical diagnosis

Patients may have a reproduction of pain by extension of the knee with anteior pressure on the patella (patellofemoral compression test)

Treatment is primarily stretching and streghening exercises of the thigh

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82
Q

Hereditary hemochromatosis

Which joints does it common affect?

Joint aspriation will show?

Treatment?

What does the treatment usually not improve?

A

affects the second and third metacarpophalangeal joints, knees, ankles and shoulders.

Joint aspiration can identify calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals in approx. 50% of patients. These crystals have a rhomboid shape and positive birefringence under polarized light.

Treatment: phlebtomy usually does not improve the arthropathy

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83
Q

Gout versus arthropathy in Hereditiary hemochromatosis

A

Gout typically cause episodic, acute inflammatory arthritis affecting the 1st MCP joint (2nd and 3rd in HCC).

Microscopy shows needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals.

(rhomboid shape and positive birefringence in HCC)

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84
Q

Osteoarthritis verus HCC joint aspiration

A

OA synvoivd fluid is typically bland, with less than <2,000 cells, <50% neutrophils and no crystals

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85
Q

RA versus HCC joint aspiration

A

RA causes arthritis in inflammatory synovial effusion, however no crystals are present.

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86
Q

Patients with hereditary hemochromatois have a increased risk for

A

HCC due to associated chronic liver disease.

Treatmetn with phelbotomy can lead to improved HCC function, with reduced progression to cirrhosis and an associated reduction in the risk of HCC.

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87
Q

Thyroglossal duct

PE

How is it formed?

What is needed before subjecting the patient to surgery?

A

midline neck mass that moves with protrusion of the tongue

(thyroid is formed as an outpouching from the base of the tongue and then descends to the base of the anterior neck. The Thyroglossal duct connects the tongue and the thyroid gland and a cyst can develop from the epithelial remnants within the duct.)

Ectopic thyroid tissue is present in a large nubmer of patients within the thyroglossal duct cysts, but sometimes this is the only functional tissue present.

Therefore imaging studies, like thyroid nuclear scan, ultrasound or CT is mandatory before subjecting patient to surgery.

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88
Q

What is the most common adverse event in patients i not undergoing sugery?

A

Most common adverse event not undergoing surgery - adverse drug event

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89
Q

Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea triad?

A

oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea

relative caloric deficiency

decrease bone mineral density

*cayses decrease levels of GnRH resuling int decreased LH and FSH levels, supressed ovarian function and low estrogen levels.

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90
Q

Tick paralysis

what is it caused by?

Manifestations?

Neuroglic examination usually reveals?

WHat is uncommon?

What is required?

A

rare, potentially life threatening disorder caused by neurotoxins found in the tick salivia.

Manifestations typically arise 4-7 days of tick attachment and include rapaidly progressive gait ataxia and ascending paralysis.

Neurologic examination usually reveals absent deep tendon reflexes and normal sensation.

Fever is uncommon.

A teticulous skin examination is required.

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91
Q

Clostridium botulinum toxin versus Tick paralysis

A

Colstridium Botulinum toxin can be found by serum analysis.

Botulism usually causes a afebrile, descending paralysis, starting with the cranial nerves.

This patient with motor weakness of the legs and normal cranial nerves is unlikely to have botulism

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92
Q

Guillian-Barre syndrome versus Tick paralysis

A

Electrodiagnostic studies and CSF (elevated protein with normal leukocytes) are often obtained to support Guillian-barree syndrome.

This syndrome casues ascending paralsysis with absent deep tendon relfexes, but usually follows a GI or respiratory ifection and typically progresses over sveral days or weeks (rather than hours).

This child who recently camped in the woods should first be examined meticulousy for ticks to rule out ticks paralysis.

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93
Q

Treatment of tick paralysis

A

meticulous skin exam. Tick removal usually significally improves symptoms within a few hours.

Most patietns recover completely without further intervention.

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94
Q

Early neurosyphillis may present with?

When does it commonly occur?

Late neurossyphilis presents with?

A

Early neurosyphillis - symptomatic meningitis, ocular syphillis and otosyphillis.

*early neurosyphillis most commonly occur during the secondary stage of syphillis (as indicated by the generalized maculopapular rash and lymphadenopathy)

Late neurosyphilis (tertiary)- General paresis & tabes dorsalis (uncommon)

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95
Q

Disseminated gonococcemia versus early neurosyphillis

A

Disseminated gonoccocemia presents as eitehr a combination of a rash with tenosynovitis and a non-purulent polyarthraiga or lone purulent polyarthritis.

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96
Q

Meningococal infection versus early neurosyphillis

A

Meningococcal infections may present with rash and miningitis, but would progress rapidly (usually over a period of hours rather than days) to severe and life-threaning meningitis.

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97
Q

Patients presumptively diagnosed with prostatitis should first be evaluated with?

A

urinalysis and urine culture

pyuria and positive urine culture are consistent with prostatitis.

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98
Q

What is the mainstay therapy for diabetic patietns with renal failure?

What medications is recommended to stop in diabetic patients with renal failure?

What are alternatives to continue oral therapy.

A

Insulin

Metformin and other sulfonylureas (ex: glyburide) since they are metbolized by the kidney, in order to avoid toxicity and adverse events.

Rosiglitazone, pioglitzone, acarbose or repaglinide are alternatives.

*Rosiglitazone, pioglitzone are metabolized by the liver.

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99
Q

What should you suspect in any individual who has been exposed to smoke or superheated air?

A

airway injury and edema

(ex: supragloggic damage stems from inhaling hot air, steam or smoke).

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100
Q

Intussusception

What is it?

Occurs at what age?

How do they present?

What is the gold standard for diagnosis and treatment?

A

Telescoping of the proximal portion of the intestine into a distal portion.

Children ages 6 months to 3 years

severe, episodic, crampy abdominal pain, emesis and “current” jelly

Air or water soluble enema

*barium contrast enemas are traditionally used for reduction of intussusception, but are no longer preferred given the risk of peritionitis if perforation occurs

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101
Q

Potential complication of enema reduction of intussception?

What should patients with acute pain after reduction undergo?

A

Intestinal perforation

Radiographs of the abdomen to rule out intestional perforation.

*Air (pneumatic) enema is generally preferred for intial reduction as it tends to be fast, thereby minimizing radiation exposure. In addition, perforation from air enemas tend to be smaller than those occuring with water soluble (hydrostatic) or barium enmas.

Air, unlike contrast mediums, is not harmful to the contents of the peritoneal cavity.

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102
Q

Renal cell caricinoma is typically associated with?

Patients usually have?

What paraneoplastic syndrome is common?

What does diagnosis require?

A

Smoking, obesity and hypertension

hematuria, abdominal mass, and/or flank pain.

Paraneoplastic syndrome (ex: erythropoietin secretion) are common

CT of the abodmen to evaluate for renal mass

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103
Q

Eythrocytosis in RCC versus myeloproliferitive disorder (ex: myelofibrosis)

A

myeloproliferative disorder (ex: myelofribrossi) are diagnosed by Bone marrow biopsy and can cause erythrocytosis.

However, hematuria is not a common typical feature of these disorders (unless patients have severe thrombocyopenia).

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104
Q

Eythrocytosis in Polycythemia vera versus RCC

A

PCV is a chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm often associated with JAK2 mutations.

Erythrocytosis is a defining feature, patietns also have aqugenic pruritis, HTN, and arterial or venous thrombosis.

This patient with long-term cigarette use and hematuria is more likely to have erythrocytosis due to RCC

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105
Q

Erythrocytosis in Anabolic steriods verus RCC

A

Anabolic steriods can stimulate erythropoiesis and stimulate erythrocytosis.

THis patietn with hematuria and chronic cigarette use is more likely to ahve RCC

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106
Q

CT imaging of the abdomen for RCC shows?

Management of RCC?

A

enhancing kidney mass with thickened, irregular walls or septa.

If the tumor is localized within the kidney, nephectomy is usually curative.

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107
Q

Simple and complex kidney cysts versus polycystic kidney disease and RCC

A

Simple and complex cysts as well as cyts for PCKD do not enhance with contrast.

RCC mass enhances with contrast.

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108
Q

Cardiac auscultation in patients with MVP

A

nonejection click due to snapping of the mitral chordae as the valves cusps extend into the atrium during systole, followed by systolic mumur of mitral regurg

The timing of the click during systole varies depending on LVEDV.

In the setting of increased venous return (ex: squatting, supine leg raise), LVEDV is relatively high and the critical point at which prolpase occurs is reached late in systole or may not be reached at all (disappearance of the click).

In contrast, maneuvers that decrease venous return (ex: standing, valsalva) result in relatively low LVEDV, earlier reaching of the critical prolapse during systole and an earlier click and murmur.

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109
Q

How does MVP cardiac auscultation differ from Aortic/Pulmonary Stenosis?

A

An ejection click followed by midsystolic murmur is heard in patients with aortic or pulmonic valve stenosis.

The murmor is typically crescendo-decresendo and increases in intensity with increased venous return.

MVP - nonejection click and systolic mumur of mitral regurg. murmur becomes less promiment in the setting of increased venous return

Increased Venous return –> increases LVEDV –> proplase occurs late in systolic or may not be reached at all (disppearce of click)

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110
Q

Most murmurs become more prominent with increased venous return except

A

MVP and HCM

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111
Q

Murmur of mitral stenosis

A

accentuated S1 (mitral valve closure), an opening snap heard after S2 and a low pitched mid-diastic meumur best heard at cardiac apex

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112
Q

The allergen most frequently associated with asthma is

A

house dust mites

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113
Q

Hirschsprung disease causes?

Inital workup typically shows?

What is the gold standard?

A

delayed meconium passage and abdominal distension due to lackof innervation in the rectosigmoid colon

distal bowel obstruction on xray and a transition zone (normal versus narrow) on contrast enema.

rectal suction biopsy - absence of ganglion cells

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114
Q

Midgut volvulus versus Hirschspring

what is used for diagnsos and what does abdominal xray show

A

Upper GI series is the best test for diagnosing malrotaiton of midgut volvulus, which can cuase bilious emesis but is not associated with delayed meconium passage.

In addition, abdominal xray may show a nasogastric tube in a displaced duodenum rather than dilated loops of large bowel.

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115
Q

Vibrio vulnificus

What is it?

where is it found?

How do you acquire the infections?

presentation?

Dx?

A

free living, gram neg. bacteria found in coastal water and marine environments.

infections are acquired primarily through consumption of raw oysters or through wound contamination during recreational activities or raw seafood handling.

Patients with certain characteristics (ex: liver disease or DM) are at high risk for fatal infection, incuding rapidly progressive cellulitis, hemorrhagic bullae and septic shock.

Dx: blood & Wound cultures

Treatment with IV antibotics should not be delayed

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116
Q

Pseudomonas skin infections versus V. vulnificus

A

Pseudomonas skin infections are associated with hot tub exposure and usually result in folliculitis (tender papules or nodules).

Rapidly progressive celluluitis with hemorrhagic bullae after injury in a marine enviroment is more likely to have V. vulnificus.

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117
Q

Staph. Aureaus versus Vibrio vulnificus

A

Staph. Aureus is a common cause of skin abscess and cellulitis.

However this infeciton usually arises over a few days (not hours) and is typically not associated with marine environments.

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118
Q

Classic dengue fever clinical featurs

A

flu-like febrile illness with marked myalgias & joint pains (break bone fever)

retro-orbital pain

rash (white islands in sea of red)

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119
Q

Dengue hemorragic fever clinical features

A

increased vascular permeability

thrombocytopenia (<100,00

Spontatenous bleeding –> Shock

Positive tourniquet test (petechiae after cuff inflation for 5 mins)

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120
Q

Treatment of dengue fever

A

supportive

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121
Q

Dengue shock syndrome

A

Respiratory/Circulatory failure can develop with signficant plasma leakage due to increased capillary permeability.

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122
Q

Plasmodium falciparum malaria versus Dengue Fever

A

Cerebral edema can occur in Plasmodium falciparum malaria, which sually presents with fever, anemia and splenomegaly.

This patietns absence of anemia makes it less likely. In addition, patients that took advised prophylaic medications can rule out malaria.

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123
Q

In an normal bell shaped distribution curve, what is the the standard deviation breakdowns

A

68% lie within the 1st standard deviation of the mean

95% of observations lie within 2 S.D of the mean

99.7 lie within 3 standard deviations of hte mean.

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124
Q

Preventation medicine strategies

Primary

Secondary

Tertiary

Quatenary

A

Primary - before pt. develops disease; prevention

Secondary -halt the progression of a disaease before irreversible change takes place (ex: statins use with hx of angina)

Tertiary - disease has advanced, limit impairments and disabilities (ex: CABG)

Quatenary - set of health activities that limit the conseq. of unncessary or excessive intervention by the health system (ex shared EMR to lmit unncessary repeated cardiac catherization procedures)

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125
Q

Tamoxifen screening

symptomatic versus asymptomatic

A

selective estrogen receptor modulator

increses the risk for endometrial hyperplasia/cancer and uterine sarcoma in postmenopsual women.

However, asymptomatic patients on tomixfien do not rrequire routine screening for these complications.

Endometrial biopsy is indicated only for symptomatic patients

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126
Q

CLL

What is associated with a worse prognosis?

A

monoclonal b-cell leukemia

has significant lymphocytosis

that causes lympahdenopahty, organomegaly (liver, spleen) and anemmia/thrombocytopenia, all of which are associated with worse prognosis

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127
Q

CLL is confirmed by?

A

peripheral smear (smudge cells) and flow cytometry

*LN and bone marrow biopsies are generally not needed!

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128
Q

First line treatment for toxic megacolon

A

medical mgmt to lessen the degree of colitis, with glucocorticoids used for patients with underlying inflammatory bowel disease and appropriate antibotics used for patients with infectious colitis.

5-ASA compounds and opiods should be avoided in patients with toxic megacolon as they can precipitate attacks. 5-ASA can be retarted at a later time after the patient’s condition has improved with glucocorticoids.

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129
Q

Empiric antibotic treatment for catheter related infections

A

Vancomycin with the addition of gram neg. coverage (cephalosporin cefepime) if the patient is neutropenic or septic

Majority of catheeter associated infections are due to coagulaase negative staph and in the majority of cases, the isolates are methicillin resistant.

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130
Q

Imaging modlaity for suspected vertebral osteomyelitis

A

MRI

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131
Q

Management of Suspected epidural spinal cord compression

A

treated as an emergency with empiric high dose corticosteriods

MRI should be ordererd to confirm the diagnosis and assess spine stablilty

Patietns with highly radiosensitive tumors may be treated with radiation.

Patients with radioresistant tumors and those with an unstable spine should undergo surgical evaluation.

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132
Q

Management mof heat stroke

A

naked patient should be spray with tepid water mist or covered with a wet sheet while large fans circulate air to maiximize evaporative heat loss.

Other cooling methodds includie icepacks, ice water lavage or cold IV fluids are helpful adjuncts but not first line

133
Q

Nelson’s syndrome

What is it?

Why?

A

bitemporal hemianopsia and hyperpigmentation following bilateral adrenalectomy for cushing disease

The cause of pituitary enlargement is the loss of feedback by the adrenal glucocorticoids following bilateral adrenalectomy.

134
Q

Diagnosis of nelson’s syndrome

Management

A

MRI - a pituitary microademia with suprasellar extension and extremly high plasma ACTH are diagnositic

Usually these tumors are rapid growing and can be treated withs urgery and/or local radiation

135
Q

Patellar tendon rupture should be suspected when

A

after a strong contraction of the quadriceps (ex: pivot, landing), patients with severe pain, anterior knee swelling and an inability to actively extend the knee or maitain passive extension of the knee

136
Q

Medial collateral ligament (MCL) tears

A

direct impact to the lateral knee causing valgus stress to the joint

laxity of the knee joint occurs when valgus stress is applied

137
Q

Management of ruptured patellor tendon

A

early surgical repair optimizes recovery of normal knee moation to prevent long-term disability.

138
Q

Suspected HIT requires?

A

immediate cessation of all forms of heparin, lab testing to confirm the diagnosis and starting alternate anticoagulants (ex: direct thrombin inhibitors) even if thrombosis has not occured.

Warfarin is suallys tarted after treatment of non-hepatrin anticoagulant and platelet count recovery to > or = 150,000

139
Q

Sarcodosis when do you treat?

A

Asymptomatic pulmonary sarcoidosis generally do not require treatment.

Hilar adenopahty assocaited with erythema nodosum represents a favorable variant of sarciodosis that is associated with a high rate of spontaneous remission and good prognosis

Fever, hypercalemia means systematic manifestations, and extra pulmonary manifestations (including cutaneous) require corticosteroid therapy, except erythema nodosum is an exception

140
Q

Tibial stress fracture

common in?

clnical features?

What will xray show in the first 2-3 weeks after onset of symptoms?

A

common in atheletes and nonatheletes who suddenly increase their physical activity

pain, localized tenderness and swelling

Plain x-ray is <50% sensitive for stress fractures, especially in the first 2-3 weeks after onset of symptoms - will often show no bone abnormalities in the first 2-3 weeks. (MRI is preferred if definitive diagnosis is needed)

141
Q

management of tibal stress fracture

A

splinting, reduced weight bearing and graudated exercise program.

Most paients may resume full intensity exercise within 12 weeks, but the program may need to be delayed if the patient develops recurrent pain

142
Q

Treatment of Clostiridum difficile-associated colitis - oral metronidazole versus oral vancomcin

A

Oral metronidazole is recommented first line for treatment of mild to moderate C. diff associated colitits.

Oral vanco is recommened for severe C. Diff colittis (systemic toxicity such as high fever, WBC >15,000 and creatinine >1.5 baseline)

143
Q

most common side effect of combined oral contraceptive pill

A

unscheduled bleeding

occurs due to a thin atrophic unstable endometrium that sheds erratically (occurs when oral contraceptives do not contain enough estrogen)

Oral contraceptives do not cause weight gain or impaired fertility.

144
Q

Anticholinergic toxicity versus stimulatant toxicity

A

Diphenhydraine has anticholinergic properties and some symptoms of anticholinergic toxicity (ex: mydraiasis, tachycardia) overlap with those of stimulatant intoxiciation.

Anticholinergic toxicity is differentiated by presence of dry skin (as opposed to diaphoresis) and other classic anticholinergic manifestations, such as ileus and urinary retention.

145
Q

Negative likelihood ratio

the smaller the LR, means?

A

represents teh value of a negative test result

the smaller the LR, the less likely it is that the disease is actually present.

NEgative result on a highly senstive test helps rule out the disease

146
Q

What is needed for the diagnosis of pancreatitis?

A

confirmed initally with elevated levels of serum amylase or lipase in teh setting of acute characteristic epigastric pain.

Advanced imaging (ex: MRI or CT) may be pursued if basic labs results and Ultrasound fail to provide a diagnosis

147
Q

Patients with severe acute pancreatitis, signs of sepsis or evidence of deteroritation greater or = to 72 hours after presentation should undergo?

A

Abdominal CT scan with contrast to evaluate for potential complications or evidence of infection

148
Q

long term PPI use may increase the risk of?

A

osteoporosis and hip fracture.

PPIS possibly decrease calcium abosprtion, inhibit osteoclastic activity and eventually reduce bone mineral density.

149
Q

Relative risk formula

A

risk of the exposed divided by the risk of the unexposed group

150
Q

Attributable risk percent (ARP) is a measure of?

What does it estimate?

What is the formula?

A

excess risk.

it estimates the proportion of the disease in exposed subjects that is attributed to exposure status.

ARP = (Risk in exposed-risk in unexposed)/Risk in exposed

151
Q

Population attributable risk percent (PARP) estimates?

How does it differ from Attributable risk percent?

A

the proportion of disease in the population that is attributed to the exposure.

PARP = (Risk in the total pop-risk in the unexposed)/Risk in the total population.

Unlike attributable risk percent, PARP is the measure of excess risk in the total population, not only in exposed subjects.

152
Q

Rapid sequence intubation

A

rapidly acting sedative (etomidate, propofol, midazolam) and a paralytic agent (ex: succinylcholine, rocuronium) to facilitate emergent intubation while preventing aspiration).

153
Q

Bedside echo finding of massive PE

A

PE causes pulmonary HTN, which can lead to acute RV dysfunction, Tricsupid annulus dilation and functional tricuspid valve regurg.

Bedside echo can aid in teh diagnosis of acute, massive PE

154
Q

After appropriate treatment of an acute epsiode of otitis media, what may persist in the middle ear for up to 3 months?

What is the management?

A

serious fluid otits media

generally resolves spontaneously within 3 months; therefore watchful waiting is the recommended mgmt, unless there are persistant symptoms of infection, the effusion is bilateral or >3 months have lapsed since inital episode

155
Q

Management of patients with positive stress testing results

A

patients with positive stress testing results should be started on appropriate medical therapy and those with high-risk stress testing features should undergo coronary angiography to evaluate for revascularization

*high risk eg, ST depression on minimal exertion

156
Q

Bright red blood per rectum suggests?

Management?

A

Lower GI source of hemorrhage

After inital resuscitation with fluids and type and cross match for possible transfusion, a colonoscopy is generally the next step in mgmt for hemodynamically stable patietns, as it can be both diagnostic and theraupetic.

157
Q

In patients with hematochezia and are hemodynamically unstable or UGIB suspected

A

do EGD instead

esophagelgastrodueodensoscopy

158
Q

PCP intoxication Mgmt

Mild versus severe

A

severe agitation and violent behavior should be treated immediately with benzodiazpines to improve sedation.

A low stimulation environment (with or without benzodiazepines) is more appropriate for patients with milder symptoms of PCP intoxication.

159
Q

Screening for gestational DM is performed at 24-28 weeks gestation with?

If this is elevated, how do you confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes?

A

1- hour 50-g glucose challenge test (greater than 140 is indication for 2nd step)

confirmed with 3 hour 100-g glucose tolerance test

*Fasting gucose and Hb 1Ac are not effective. Hb1Ac are lower in pregnant women due to physiologic increases in RBC mass and cell turnover.

160
Q

Inadequate control of gestational DM increases risk for?

A

fetal macrosoma and should dystocia.

If adequate glucose control cannot be achieved by diet and exercise, anti-hyperglycemic agents are initaated.

161
Q

Patients with gestational DM monitor fasting and either 1 or 2 hour postpriandial glucose levels. Their glucose target levels are?

A

fasting < or = 95

1 hour postprandial < or = 140 or 2 hour postprandial < or = 120

162
Q

1st line treatment of Gestational DM?

2nd line?

A

dietary modifications

insulin, metformin, glyburide

163
Q

Bacterial enteritis is characterized by?

what are the common causes in U.S?

what is the first line treatment for mild?

what if it’s invasive?

A

fever, abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea

Salmonella, Shigella, E.coli (enterhemorrhagic or enteroinvasive), campylobacter and yersinia

oral electrolyte solution

antibotics for invasive (should be avoided until pathogen is identified)

164
Q

UMN versus LMN lesions - how to tell in a patient

A

UMN - contra, lower face only afected (as seen in strokes)

LMN- Ips, cannot raise eyebrows (as seen in bell’s palsy)

*beLl -brow, Lower, Ipsi

165
Q

Management of Lobular Carcinoma in Situ (LCIS)

A

nonmalignant lesion, but has a significant association with future development of invasive breast cancerr and at min close surveillance is required for the duration of the patient’s life.

If LCIS is detected on needle biopsy, excisional biopsy is recommened since a signficant percentage of cases are upstaged to eitehr invasive cancer or DCIS

166
Q

Postpartum management of Gestational DM

A

Patients can discountinue anti-hyperglycemic therapy after delivery.

However, paitents with GDM are screened 6-12 weeks postpartum with a 2 hour oral glucose tolerance test due to the association between GDM and type 2 DM.

*During 2nd and 3rd trimeser of pregnancy, placenta begins to secrete increasing amounts of diabetogenic hormones that increase maternal insulin resistance to promote fetal growth. However, women with pancreatic function that is inadequte to over come this insulin resistance are at risk for developing GDM.

after delivery of the placenta, maternal insulin resistance decreases and glucose contentrations normalize to prepregnancy levels.

167
Q

pediatric cholesterol screening is indicated when

A

family hiostory of parental dyslipidemia or first or second degree relative with premature coronary artery disease.

Screening is also indicated for a personal history of obesity, diabetes, hypertension or smoking.

168
Q

What is a common complication of gastrectomy?

Treatment is aimed at?

A

Dumping syndrome

Decreasing the speed of passage of fluids and food into the small gut

A high protein and low carb diet is advised, as well as smaller but more frequent meals throughout the day.

169
Q

Any case of acute urinary obstruction in where there is no evidence of pelvic or urethral trauma or hx of urethral strictures must be managed immediately through?

What should be never to be done on an empty bladder?

Who should it be done by?

A

uretral catehrization in order to decompress the bladder, alleivate the pain and avoid further renal compromise.

Suprapublic catherization (because of bowel perforation)

Suprapubic catherization should preferrablly be peformed by urologist if there is evidence of urethral or pelvic trauma or if Foley catherer placement is difficult.

170
Q

Cervical cancer screening begins at what age?

When is Pap test and HPV cotesting required?

A

screening for cervical cancer by cytology (pap test)

21 in most women regardless of age of onset of sexual activity.

Routine testing for HPV is not indicated for women age <30. Most HPV infections (and therefore abnormal Pap test results) are transient and resolve without intervention. Just do pap test every 3 years.

Pap test with HPV cotesting every 5 years or Pap testing alone every 3 years is recommended for women age 30-65

171
Q

The first step in evaluation of hypercalemia is to?

What if you think it’s malignancy reasons?

A

Repeat calcium with concurrent measurement of serum PTH hormone to disguistinguish PTH-dependent (ex: primary hyper PTH) from non PTH dependent causes.

Even when malignancy is suspected, still do PTH first.

172
Q

Hypercalcemia in primary hyperparathyroidism versus humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy?

A

HHM is due to secretion of PTH related protein (similar to PTH and binds to PTH receptors).

Hypercalcemia in primary hyperparathyroidism is usually mild (calcium <12) and often asymptompatic, where as HHM is typically more acute and severe.

173
Q

Medications associted with hypercalemia

A

thiazide diuretics, lithium and excessvie doses of calcium carbonate or Vit. D

174
Q

PTH and PTHrP findings for hypercalcemia in cancers such as SCC

A

PTHrP increases, PTH decreases

175
Q

What should be suspected in patients with an excessive smoking history who have nonresolution of a pneumonia?

Next step in management?

A

Obstructing endobronchial malignancy

A chest CT can help diagnose such maligancy as well as other casues of nonresolving pnemonia such as an abscess or empyema

176
Q

What help reduce the chances of fat embolism?

A

Early immobilization and operative fixation of fractures

There is no evidence that prophylactic heparin reduces the risk of fat embolism.

177
Q

Pulmonary barotrauma is a risk for mechanical ventilatin and can lead to pneumothorax.

What is the preferred inital treatment of a large pneumothorax in a patient who has not developed tension physiology?

What if they have tension phyiology?

A

Placement of chest tube

*A large pneumothorax can quickly lead to tension phyiology, resulting in compression of mediastinal structures and marked hypotension; however, the normal blood pressure and absence of JVD and tracheal deviation suggests that tension pneumothorax has not deveoped.

Needle decompression is appropriate emergency treatment of tension pneumothorax in a patient in whom cardiac arrest is imminent. However, needle decompression must always be followed by chest tube placemet for definitive management; threefore placement of a chest tube is more aporpriate in a patient who has not developed tension phyisology.

178
Q

Amaurosis fugax

What is it?

Reveresible/nonreversisble?

Marker of?

What is a frequent finding?

What is necesary to evaluate the extend of the disease?

A

acute ischemic event involving the retinal artery

sudden and usually reversible

marker of carotid artery atheroscloertic disease

A carotid bruit

Carotid doppler evaulation

179
Q

Autoantibodies for Autoimmune hepatitis

Common findings?

A

Anti-nuclear antibodies (in a homogenous staining pattern) and anti-smooth muscle antibodies (against actin)

Elevated AST, ALT levels, normal or near normal ALP and normal bilirubin

180
Q

What drugs can result in folic acid deficiency anemia?

A

Trimethoprim, methotrexate and phenytoin

Methotrexate inhibits enzyme dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) which is essential for the conversion of folic acid to its redued form (FH4-folinic acid), which can be utilized by cells.

181
Q

Folinic acid versus folic acid

A

Folinic acid (Leucovorin) is more potent than folic acid in ‘rescuing’ red blood cells from the deficiency by bypassing the block on DHFR.

It is therefore the drug of choice for folate deficiency anemia induced by choric, high dose methrotrexate therapy.

182
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Inheritance pattern

How does it typically present?

What is the most approprate next step in management?

A

Xlinked recessive deletion of dystrophin gene on chromosome Xp21

difficulty walking, gower sign, bilateral calf enlargement in toddler boys.

Serum Creatine phosphokinse is markedly elevated, reflecting significant muscle damage.

*The first step in the evaulation of muscle weakness involves measuring CPK. This enzyme is involved in muscle storage and transfer and is released into the blood with any muscle inflammation or damage.

Serum CPK levels are markedly elevated 10-20 times normal by age 2 and then decrease with advancing disease as the muscle is replaced by fat and fibrosis.

183
Q

What confirms the diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Genetic testing showing deletion of one more exons of DMD gene confirms the diagnosis

Muscle biopsy: Significant fibrosis, fat, muscle degeneration and absent immunochemistry staining of dystrophin.

184
Q

Duchenne versus Becker prognosis

A

Duchenne-wheelchair dependent by adolescence, death by age 20-30 from respiratory or heart failure

Becker - Death by age 40-50 from heart failure

185
Q

Budd Chiari syndrome

thrombosis of what?

acute versus chronic presentation?

A

thrombosis of the hepatic (not portal vein) or intra/suprahepatic inferior vena cava.

Acute - RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, jaundice, and rapidly developing ascities

Chronic - ascities, cirrhosis, and signs of portal HTN (ex: gastroesophageal varies, splenomegaly)

186
Q

Hepatic veno-occlusive

what is it due to?

who does it commonly occur in?

A

due to occusion of the terminal hepatic venules (not veins) and causess posinusoidal portal HTN.

It commonly occurs in patietns with bone marrow transplant and presents with tender heaptomegaly, jaundice and ascities.

*The causes of veno-occlusive disease are still unclear, but a combination of pretransplant risk factors and transplant-related conditions are believed to trigger a primarily hepatic sinusoidal injury. *

187
Q

What electrolyte abnormality can occur during or immediately after surgery, especially in patients undergoing major surgery and requiring extensive transfusions?

What may be the initial manifestation?

A

Hypocalecemia

Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

Usually hypocalcemia occurs due to volume expansion and hypoalbuminemia and is therefore asymptomatic, but sometimes it may mainfest as hyperactive DTR, msucle cramps or rarely convulsions.

188
Q

Hypomagnesemia verus Hypocalemia

A

Hypomagnesemia may mimic hypocalcemia but it is associated with alcoholism, prolonged NG suction or diuretic use.

189
Q

Hyperkalemia usually results in?

What may it be associated with?

A

GI disturbances (Nausea, vomiting), ECG changes and asystole, if severe.

severe burns, crush injuries and renal insufficiency.

190
Q

Elevated calcitonin levels in patients with medullary thyroid cancer following total thyroidectomy indicate?

What is recommended as the next step?

A

metastic disease

CT scan of the neck and chest to look for metastic disease.

Medullary thyroid cancers do not take up idoine, therefore total boy iodine scan is not useful.

191
Q

A patient is diagnosed with delayed puberty if?

A

He does not have testicular enlargement by 14 years of age, or if his testicles are 2.5cm or less in diameter.

Another criterion is a delay in the development for 5 years or more from the onset of genitalia enlargement.

192
Q

Inital evaluation in a patient suspected of delayed puberty?

A

Use of an imaging test to determine bone age.

BOne age that is older or equal to the chronological age warrants further testing to rule out chromosomal abnormality and endocrine causes.

193
Q

Acute retroviral syndrome (from acquired HIV infection) versus mononucleosis?

A

Acute retroviral syndrome may resemble infectious mono and commonly include fever, nontender lympadenopathy, sore throat, fatigue and myalagia.

Two distinctive features are a painful mucocutaneous ulcer (shallow, discrete, white base) and a generalized maculopapular rash that may include the palms and soles.

Laboratory testing often shows leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.

194
Q

Acute retroviral syndrome versus secondary syphillis

A

secondary syphillis can cause fever, headache, nontender lympadenphathy, fatigue and a maculopapular rash that includes palms and soles.

A single painful mucocutaneous lesion would be atypical (sypilitic chancres are often nontender and a marker of primary syphilis).

195
Q

Quick test to differentiate epididymitis from torsion?

A

Cremasteric reflex test (absent reflex is highly suggestive of torsion).

*Pain relief with scrotum elevation (Prehn sign) can be seen in epididymtis and absent in torsion, but it is not a reliable diagnostic test to differentiate the two.

196
Q

What is a potentially life-threatening complication of reinstating nutrition in a malnourished patient?

A

Hypophosphatemia

197
Q

Refeeding syndome and chronic alcoholics

A

Chronic alcoholic patients are frequently phosphate depleted even though serum phosphate levels may initally be normal (due to decrease Vit D and P intake –> increased PTH –> increased Urinary Phosphate)

Refeeding in these patients, particularly if a respiratory alkalosis is also present, may lead to shifts in phosphate intracellularly and decreased serum phosphate.

This may lead to the development of rabdomyylosis as many of these patients have an underlying myopathy

198
Q

Test for diagnosing vesicoureteral reflux and posterior urethral valves.

A

voiding cystourethrogram

obtained by catheteriizing the patient, injecting radiopaque dye and obtaining images during voiding.

199
Q

Digoxin toxicity presents as?

What medications can cause this?

A

N/V, anorexia, fatigue, visual disturbances, confusion and cardiac abnormalities.

Verapamil, quinidine, and amiodarone

*Verapamil inhibits renal tubular secretion of digoxin, resulting in almost 70-100% increase in serum digoxin levels.

200
Q

Postconcussive syndrome

A

headache, confusion, amnesia, difficulty in concentrating or with multitasking, vertigo, mood alteration, sleep disturbance and anxiety.

symptoms typically resolve in symptomatic treatment within a few weeks to months following traumatic brain injury; however some patients may have persisitent symptoms lasting > or = 6 months.

201
Q

First line pharmacological therapy for patients with raynaud phenomenon

A

Calcium antagonists, typically nifedipine or amlodipine

*Use dihydropyridine CCBs. Verapamil has not been shown to be effective or least equally effective.

202
Q

Side effect of carbamazepine?

A

Neutropenia and bone marrow suppression

203
Q

CSF protein – Increases in protein are most commonly seen with:

A

Meningitis and brain abscess

Brain or spinal cord tumors

Multiple sclerosis

Guillain-Barré syndrome

Syphilis

*only a small amount is normally present in CSF because proteins are large molecules and do not cross the blood/brain barrier easily. Decreases in CSF protein are not generally considered significant.

204
Q

CSF pressure

A

Pressure of the CSF can be measured when opening (starting) and closing (finishing) the collection.

Increased CSF pressure may be seen with a variety of conditions that increase pressure within the brain or skull and/or obstruct the flow of CSF, such as tumors, infection, abnormal accumulation of CSF within the brain (hydrocephalus), or bleeding.

Decreased pressure may be due to dehydration, shock, or leakage of CSF through an opening (another lumbar puncture site or sinus fracture).

205
Q

Cryptococcal meningitis therapy

skin findings

commonly causes CNS infections in patients with AIDS with what CD4 count?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans is a Yeast that commonly causes opportunistic CNS infections in patients with AIDS (CD4 counts <100)

Skin findings of papular lesions with centeral umbilication that resumble molluscum contagiosum are common

Inital therapy includes amphotericin B and flucytosine

206
Q

Cryptococcus - CSF studies usualy reveal the following

A

Marked elevated opening pressure

Low leukocyte count (compared to other mingitides) with a lymphocytic predominance

Elevated protein and low glucose

Positive ink preparation or cryptococcal antigen test

207
Q

CSF findings:

Cryptococall versus neurosyphillis

A

Early neurosyphillius can cause meningigits and is typically treated with aqueous crystalline Penicillin G.

CSF lymphocyte count is usually 200-400 (unlike low count <50 in Cryptococcus)

208
Q

CSF findings in Strep Pneumo and Neisseria meningitidis versus Cryptococcal meningitids

plus Treatment

A

In adults,the most common causes of bacterial meningitis are Strep Pneumo and Neisseria.

Empiric therapy includes a third generation cephalosporin such as ceftriaxone in addition to vanco (to cover some penicillin-resistant S. pneumo strains).

Adults >50 should also receive ampicillin as they have an increased risk of Listeria monocytogenes in menigningits.

In this patient, the suacute course and low CSF leukocyte count with lymphocytic predominance makes bacterial mengingitis less likely.

209
Q

CMV CSF findings verus Cryptococal infections

A

CMV can cause encephaitis in patients with advanced HIV and can e treated with ganciclovir plus foscarnet.

CMV is typically associated iwth AMS, focal neuro deficits and polymorphonuclear (not lymphocytic pleocytosis)

210
Q

Patients with AIDS who develop cryptococcal meningitis is given amphotericin B and flucytosine had inital relief but the severe headache returned and started to experience worsening N/V and lethargy.

next step in management?

A

may have increased intracranial pressure.

Paitents may require repeated lumbar punctures to reduce elevated pressure.

  • *Patients with AIDS who have cryptococcal meningoencephalitis often have dramatic CSF fungal burdens (>1,000,000).*
  • The yeast and capsular polysaccharides can colg the arachnoid villi, which prevents CSF outflow and inreases ICP.*
211
Q

What is often added to the treatment of bacterial meningitis?

How does this differe from Cryptococall infection treatment?

A

Dexamethasone

reduces inflammation, morbidity and risk of death.

Dexamethasone is not recommended for treatment of cryptococcal meiningitis.

212
Q

Patients with HIV who have cryptococcal meningitids require treatment in 3 stages

A

Induction - ampotericin B and flucytosine for > or = 2 weeks (until symptoms abate and CSF is sterilized)

Consolidation - high dose fluconazole for 8 weeks

Maintenance - lower dose oral fluconazole for > or = 1 year to prevent recurrence

Antiviral threatment should generally be initated 2-10 weeks after beginning treatment for meningitis.

213
Q

Amitriptyline is particulary likely to cause constipation due to its

A

strong anticholinergic effectds (which increases colonic transit time).

Other theraperies for depression (ex: SSRI) can be used.

214
Q

ITP what is it?

When do you observe versus give IV immune globulin?

Prognosis?

A

Autoimmune condition that causes thrombocytopenia with no other lab. abnormalities.

Patients with mild (pecechaie, purpura) or no bleeding do not require pharmacotherapy and can be managed with observation and monitoring of th plateletcounts.

Those with increase bleeding risk (mucosal bleeding, platelet count <30,000) are treated with IV immune globulin.

Approx. 50% of children with ITP have spontaneus remission within a few years after diagnosis.

215
Q

What is the most important single risk factor for osteoporosis and osteoporotic bone fracture?

A

Age

216
Q

Women who have sex with women are at increased risk of

A

bacterial vaginosis and cervical cancer.

This increased risk ikely arises from lower rates of HPV vaccination and cervical screening.

The risk of bacterial vaginosis is increased due to the exchange of vaginal secretions.

217
Q

Bacterial vaginosis and pregnancy - still treat?

A

BV is associated with an increased risk for pregnancy complications (ex: preterm labor).

However, treatment has no impact on the incidence of these complicatons and pregnant women with BV are treated only for symptomatic management.

218
Q

What is the preferred test to support the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis?

What can confirm it in equivocal cases?

A

MRI

shows ovoid-shaped periventricular white matter lesions.

Lumbar puncture can confirm the diagnossi in equivoocal cases and may demostirate oligoclonal bands and an elevated IgG index.

*MRI is superior to CT in evaluating posterior fossa/cerebellar abnormalities and is more sensitive/specific for detecting MS lesions.

219
Q

Acute multiple sclerosis exacerbation is treated with?

Patients with otpic neuritis should receive what?

A

corticosteriods

optic neuritis - should receive IV corticosteriods as oral agents may be associated with an increased risk of recurrence.

Plasmapheresis can be used in refractory cases.

220
Q

What is indicated for chronic maintenance therapy in patients with relapsing remitting MS?

A

Diesease modifying drugs (ex: beta-interferon, glatiramer acetate)

They can decrease the frequency of relapses and reduce the development of brain lesions.

221
Q

Management of acute MS in pregnant people

A

Same as nonpregnant people, the treatment for acute MS exacerbation is short-term IV glucocorticoids as they are generally well tolderated and are not associated with teratogenicity.

222
Q

Pregnant women with MS have a modest increase risk in what compared to those without MS.

A

cesarean section and assisted delivery (ex: vacuum, forcepts)

223
Q

Muscle spascity is a common disabling symptom in patients with MS and frequently involves the lower extremity.

First line treatment is?

what also may be helpful?

A

oral muscle relaxants such as baclofen or tizanidine

Physical therapy and stretching exercises may be helpful

224
Q

Treatment of neuropathic pain in MS

A

gabapentin or duloxetin

225
Q

Treatment of Fatigue in MS

A

Sleep hygiene, regular exercise

Amantadine (antiviral also used for prevent/treat influenza. effective in relieving fatigue in MS)

Stimulants (ex: methylphendiate, monafinil)

226
Q

Breast feeding contraindications

in the mother and the infant

A

Maternal

Active untreated TB

Maternal HIV infection

Herpetic breast lesions

Active varicella infection

Chemotherapy or radiation therapy

Active substance abuse

Infant

Galactosemia

227
Q

What can occur within the first 2 months of Isonizaid therapy?

What should be done?

INH should be discontinued in patients who have?

A

Hepatotoxicty and range from mild hepatotoxicity to hepatitis.

Patients should have baseline and monthly monitoring of aminotransferases.

INH should be discontinued in patients who have aminotransferases > or = five times the upper limit of normal OR develop symptoms (ex: jaundice, AMS) with aminotransferases > or = 3 times the ULN.

228
Q

Which TB drug is ocular toxicity more common?

A

ethambutol

229
Q

Acrochordons are?

What is it associated with?

A

aka skin tags are benign outgrowth of normal skin that appear as pedunculated, skin-colored papules in areas of friction.

Associateed with obesity, insulin resistance, overt diabetes and metabolic syndrome.

230
Q

Celiac disease is assocaited with?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

which appears as pruritic, erythematous, group papulovesicular lesions.

231
Q

Crohn disease is associated with?

A

Perianal skin tags (unlike acrochordon which is axillary skin tags) and pyoderma gangrenosum (which presents as a purlent ulcer.

232
Q

Hepatitis C is associated with

A

lichen planus, porphyria cutanea tarda and cryoglobulinemia causing leukocytoclastic vasculitis.

233
Q

Acute HIV can present with?

Chronic HIV has been associated with a variety of skin lesions including?

A

Acute - gneeralized rash appearing as small and well-circumscribed red macules or papules.

Chronic - molluscum, kaposi sarcoma and herpes zoster

234
Q

Subacute granulomatous (de Quervain) thyroiditis can cause?

What does patients have?

How do they present?

A

transient hyperthyroidism due to follicular release of preformed hormone.

Low TSH, elevated T4, elevated thyroglobulin and low RAIU

tender thyroid and hx of recent viral infection

235
Q

How do you tell the difference between Graves disease and increased thyroid synthesis from Postpartum thyroiditis and silent thyroidits, which are characterized by thyroid inflammation and relase of preformed hormone?

A

Graves has a high RAIU, wherease PT and silent have a low RAIU

236
Q

Thyroglobulin in patients exogenous thyrotoxicosis versus Postpartum thyroitidis and graves disease

A

Thyroglobulin is co-secreted with thyroid hormone by thyroid follicles and is low in patients with exogenous thyrotoxicosis (due to suppression of follicular activity by exogenous thyroid hormone), but is elevated in PT (due to destruction of thyroid follicles) and graves disease (due to increased activity of follicles)

237
Q

HIV and body fluids transmission

A

Body fluids such as urine, feces, tears and vomitus are considered noninfectious if no visible blood is present. DO NOT REQUIRE POSTEXPOSURE PROPHYLAXIS

Blood, Fluids contaminated with visble blood, semen and vaginal secretions are high risk.

238
Q

Effect of drugs on thyroid metabolism

What are the drugs that may require higher dose of thyroxine replacement?

A

Estrogen

Tamoxifen

Traloxifene

Methadone, heroin

*increases TBG & decrease free T4

The estrogen component of the combination pill increases TBG levels, resulting in an increase in total T4 levels and decrease in free T4 levels.

A person with a normal thyroid gland can compensate for these changes by increasing thyroid hormone production. A patient with thyroid replacement however, cannot compensate for these possible physiologic changes as the patient is dependent on exogenous levothyroxine therepy. The dosage of levothyroxoine may therefore need to be increased in hypothyroid patients taking OCPs. After starting this TSH levels should be checked in 12 weeks and the dose of levothyroxine should be adjusted accrordingly.

239
Q

Effect of drugs on thyroid medication

Which drugs may require lower dose of thyroxine replacement?

A

Androgens

Danazol

Anabolic steroids

Glucocorticoids

These drugs decrease TBG & icnrease free T4 and may requrie lower dose of thyroxine replacement.

240
Q

Histrionic personality disorder versus borderline

A

Individuals with borderline personality disroder can also exhibit attention seeking, manipulative behavior and rapidly shifting emotions.

However, this patietn does not exhibit self-injurious and suicidial behavior, intense anger, chronic feelings of emptiness, and identity distrubance, which would be expected in borderline personality disorder.

241
Q

CI and sample size

CI and accuracy

A

Sample Size: Smaller sample sizes generate wider intervals. There is an inverse square root relationship between confidence intervals and sample sizes.

242
Q

CI, widith, accuracy and precision

A

As the confidence level increase, the width of the confidence interval increase as well. Which then increase the accuracy. However, the precision goes down.

Therefore, as the confidence level increase, so does the width of the confidence interval.

Another way of thinking about this is the width of the area that captures the middle 95% or 99% of the distribution.

The middle 99% will inevitably span a larger area, and hence the 99% confidence interval is going to be wider. Therefore, as we increase the confidence level, the width of the interval increases as well.

More accurate means a higher confidence level. So if we are saying that we want to increase accuracy, we also need to increase the confidence level, but this might come at a cost.

What is the drawback when using a wider interval

As the confidence level increase, the width of the confidence interval increase as well. Which then increase the accuracy. However, the precision goes down.

243
Q

What should you always give before you apply restraints to a combative and disruptive patient.

A

Haloperiodal (antipsychotics)

Benzos have a more rapid onset of action, but can worsen confusion and sedation. They can be used as an adjunct to antipsych to reduce extrapyridmal effect.

244
Q

the sudden onset of hyperglyecemia in a patient recovering from total parenteral nutrition should lead to a suspicion of?

A

sepsis.

245
Q

The first step in the evaluation and management of chronic diarrhea

A

comprehensive history (ex. clear description of stool characteristics, duration and timing of symptoms), basic serum analysis and importantly, stool analysis. (to look for leukocytes and parasite,s blood, pH, staining for fat and electroylye analysis calculating the osmotic gap)

246
Q

Histologic findings of celiac disease

A

villous atrophy, loss of normal villus archtiecture, intrapeithelial lymphocytic infiltrates and crypt hyperplasia.

247
Q

IBS histologic findings

A

Normal mucosal architecture with no inflammation

248
Q

Histologic findings of Crohn disease

A

transmural inflammation with lypmphocytic inflammation

249
Q

Lactose intolerance findings

  • when does diarrhea occur
  • stool osmotic gap
  • stool pH
  • Lactouse hydrogen breath test
A
  • diarrhea after lactose-containing meals
  • increased stool osmotic gap
  • decrease stool pH
  • Positive Lactouse hydrogen breath test
250
Q

Celiac disease

  • stool osmotic gap
  • what type of anemia is normally present
  • histologic findings
A
  • increase stool osmotic gap
  • Microcytic anemia is normally present - iron deficiency
  • histologic findings - villous atrophy
251
Q

Small initestional bacterial overgrowth

A

Macrocytic anemia, B12 deficiency

Postive lactulose breath test

252
Q

Treatment of acute uterine bleeding is?

A

combination oral contraceptives containing high-dose estrogen, which stabllizes and endometrium and stops the bleeding

253
Q

Catatonia is?

Treatmetn of choice?

A

syndrome of marked psychomotor disturbance seen in a range of severe psychiatric illness (immobility or excessive purposeless activity, decrease alertness, resistance to instructions, lims remain fixed posture for long periods)

benzodiazepines and/or electroconvulsive therapy.

A lorazepam challenge test can be used to verify the diagnosis.

A lorazepam test (IV bolus of 1-2 mg) results in parital, temp relief within 5-10 mins confirms the diagnosis of catatonia.

254
Q

Breastmilk jaundice versus neonates with lactation failure

A

Breast milk jaundice is a common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia that peaks at 2 weeks in well-appearing and healthy neonates.

In contrast, neonates with lactation failure typically present hte first week of life with jaundice, inadequate feeding and dehydration.

255
Q

Breast milk jaundice and breastfeeding managment

A

Treatment of breast milk jaundice includes frquent follow-up and monitoring of the infants hyperbilirubinemia.

Exclusive breastfeeding should be continued and encouraged as the jaundice should resolve spontaenously by 3 months.

256
Q

Treatment of pagets disease

A

bisphosphonates

257
Q

Pagent’s disease findings on the following:

Xray

Technetium bone scan

Routine lab

A

Xray - thickening of the outer cortex, sclerotic leasions, mild bowing

Technetium bone scan - increase uptake

Routine lab - creatinine and calcium levels are normal

258
Q

Bed-wetting

When is urinalysis recommended?

A

Most children achieve complete urinary continence by ate 5, although boys generally achieve this milestone later than girls.

A urinarlysis is recommended for children > or = 5 with persistent bedwetting to rule out an underlying medical problem.

259
Q

Management monosymptomatic (isolated) enuresis in children

A
  1. behavior modification
  2. Enuresis alarm (used when behavior fails; best long term outcome)
  3. Pharmacotherapy: first line desmopressin, second line TCA
260
Q

Management superficial infantile hemangiomas

A

most common vascular tumors of childhood, affecting ~5% of all infants.

Most superfiical infantile hemangiomas are small or clincially insignificant and can be observed.

Evident at birth, goes through a period of proliferation and then spontenaous involution by 7-10 years.

Propanolol therapy should be considered for lesions that are disfiguring or located at sites of potential function impairement (ex: eyelid or airway)

261
Q

Tapering of glucocoerticoids - when is it needed?

A

The use of glucocorticoids for less than 3 weeks, even in relatively high doses, does not cause significant suppression of the hypthalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis.

When given for a short period, glucocorticoids can be stopped rapidly without signficant risk fo adrenal insufficiency.

262
Q

Glucagonoma

A

rare pancreatic tumor associated with mild diabetes and a classic skin rash (necrolytic migratory eryhtemia)

Erythemaous, scaly rash which appears to be clearing from the center. Borders appear slightly elevated and crusty. Angular chielosis is also noted.

263
Q

Patients with spontaneous hypokalemia and HTN should be investigated for?

Best screening test for this disorder this?

A

hyperaldosteronism (conn’s syndrome)

measurement of plama aldosterone to plama renin activity (not renin levels) ratio.

Should have suppressed renin activity and elevatd levels of plasma aldosterone.

264
Q

When is deoxycorticosterone levels useful?

How does this diff from primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

in patietns with hypokalemia and HTN who have suppressed levels of both renin and aldosterone.

Deoxycorticosterone has mineralocrticoid acitivty.

Primary hyperaldosterinsm (has suppressved renin activity and elevated plasma aldosterone(

265
Q

Light’s criteria for transudative

A
266
Q

Intial treatment for transudative pleural effusion?

What if its refractory?

A

sodium restriction and diuretics.

Transjuglar intrahepatic portosytemic shunt placment may be prursed in refractory cases.

*TIPS placment creates a fistula between the portal vein and the hepatic veins, which decreaes the hdyrostatic pressure in the portal venous system.

267
Q

Screening for celiac disease?

What is the gold standard for diagnosis?

A

anti-endomysial antibody and anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody levels.

Small intestional biopsy

268
Q

For the inital treatment of MDD, what is more effective?

A

the combination of pharmacotherapy and psychotherapy is more effective than eitehr alone.

Although SSRI are typically used ast first line therapy, there is no evidence that one class of antidepressant is more effective; other classes can be considered depending on side effect profile and patient perference.

269
Q

Croup versus Bronchioloits versus Pertussis

A

pertussis - Upper respiratory, typically have significant lymphocyte pedominant eukocytosis (>20,000 with > or = 50% lympthocytes) and sick contacts with coughing paroxysms

Coup = Upper respiratory syndrome consisting of hoarness, a barky cough and inspiratory stridor due to upper airway inflammation. parainfluenza is the most common cause.

bronchiolotilis - most common cause is RSV, outbreaks peak during winder; infants <2 are at high risk of apnea.

270
Q

imperforate hymen presents with?

What is the treatment?

A

cyclic pelvic pain, bulk symptoms (ex: constipation), primary amenorrhea, and hematocolpos (accomulation of blood and fluid bethind the intact hymen).

Hymenectomy

271
Q

Type II polyglandular autoimmune failure is characterized by?

A

Addison disease with type 1 DM.

Other autoimmune disorders can occur.

Type I diabetes shows high blood sugar levels, increased anion gap and positive plasma ketones.

272
Q

How does glucocorticoid-induced DM differ from Type II polyglandular autoimmune faillure?

A

The clinical features of glucorticoid-induced DM resemble type 2 DM.

furthermore patietns who are receiving pysiological doses of glucocorticoids genrally do not manifest with clinical features of glucocorticods excess.

273
Q

Contact dermatitis versus Candida dermatitis

Physical examination

versus treatment

A

Contact dermatits - spares creases/skinfolds; use barrier oitment or paste (petrolatum, zinc oxide)

Candida -beefy red rash involving skinfolds with satellite lesions erythematous papules seperate from the main rash) ; use topical antifungal therapy (ex: nystatin or clotrimazole)

274
Q

Acute cholecysitis diagnosis?

What if it’s negative or inconclusive?

A

choleliths within the glalbladder wall thickening or sonographic Murphy sign.

If ultrasound is negative or inconclusive, a hepatatobillary iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) scan is the next diagnostic test of choice and is usually confirmatory.

*Patients with acute cholecystitis usually require an emergency laproscopic cholecystectomy (ideally within 72 houyrs of symptom onset); however diagnosis should be confrmed with US or HIDA scan before going through such an invasive procedure.

275
Q

HIDA versus ERCP

A

HIDA - used for diagnosis of acute cholescytisitis

ERCP - used for choledocholitlhaisis

276
Q

What medications can increase serum lithium levels?

What is considered safe?

A

many antiihypertensive medications can interact with lithium due to their effects on renal function and electrolyte levels.

Thiazides, ACE, ARB can icnrease serium lithium levels.

CCB are gnerally considered safe.

277
Q

What develop in up to 50% of patients who are hospitalized with acute variceal bleeding?

What is the management?

A

bacterial infections

These patients should be treated prophylactically with antibiotics.

The preferred regimen involves the use of fluoroquinolone (ofloxacin, norfloxacin or ciprofloxacin) agent for 7-10 days.

278
Q

Initial laborartory evaluation in patients with suspected lead poisioning should include?

A

CBC, serum iron and ferrtin levels, and reticulocyte count.

These tests will help detect the presence of anemia and iron deficiency.

279
Q

Pregnant women with pelvic mass require surgical intervention when the mass is?

A

persistent, has complex features and/or is > 10 cm in diameter.

Surgical removal is recommneded during early second trimester to avoid acute comlications (ex: torsion, preterm delivery) and to prevent progression of potentially malignant disease.

280
Q

Patietns with untreated celiac dieasse are at risk for developing?

mainfestations typically begin with?

A

enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma (EATL)

an aggressive malignancy the primiarly affects the proximal jejunum.

Manifestations typically begin with abdominal pain and B symptoms (ex: weight loss, fatigue, fever).

Most patients with EATL present late in the disease process when curative options are limited. As such, prognosis tends to be poor with meidan survival of only 10 months.

281
Q

Adhesive capsulitis (AC)

What is it due to?

Exam findings?

A

aka frozen shoulder syndrome

due to chronic inflammation, fibrosis and contracture of the joint capsule.

It can be idiotpathic or secondary to rotator cuff tendinopathy, subacrominal bursitis, paralytic stroke, diabetes or humeral head fracture.

Patients have shoulder sitiffness with reduction of both passive and active range of motion.

282
Q

Subacromial burisitis versus adhesive capsulitis

A

Subacromial bursitits typically occurs in patients with hx of heavy lifting or repetivie movements, especially with arm raised above shoulder level.

Patietns can develop pain on abduction of the shoulder and restricted active ROM.

However passive ROM should still be intact (adhesive capsulitis)

283
Q

Management of adhesive capsulitis

A

mild - rest and gental range of motion exercises

severe and those who do not improve with conservative mesasures - glucocorticoid injection

284
Q

Rotator cuff tendionpaty versus adhesive capsulitis

A

Rotator cuff tendionpathy with partial or complete tear may cause pain with mild (partial) or severe (complete) decreased active ROM.

However, unless tehre is concurrent adhesive capsulitis, pssive ROM is not affected.

*Rotator cuff has pain with abduction, external rotation

Bicepts thenndionpathy/rupture - anterior shoulder pain

285
Q

5 things to know about metformin

A
  1. Metformin is excreted by the kidneys
  2. Use of metformin is not a contraindication to intravenous contrast administration
  3. For most patients, metformin should be stopped at the time of contrast administration (held on the day contrast is given and retstarted 48 hours later after documenting stable renal function)
  4. Restarting metformin depends on renal function and the volume of contrast used.
  5. For small volumes of contrast, patients with normal renal function taking metformin may not require any changes in care
286
Q

Stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcers - management

A

loosely packed iwth saline-moistened gauze to preserve the moist wound environment

*these ulcers heal best when all pressure is removed from the involved area and a moist wound enviromment is maintained. Viable surrounding skin should be kept dry.

287
Q

Patients with hypothermia or shock who receive blood transfusions are predisposed to?

A

hypocaclemia because of their impaired ability to metabolize citrate into lactate.

In these patients (renal failure, hepatic failure, shock, lactic acidosis) prophylatic administeration of at least 10cc of 10% calcium gluconate is recommended for every 500 ml of packed red blood cells transfused.

*Citrate is concomitantly transfused with every blood transfustion. The conversion of citrate into lactate is impaired, which leads to an excess amoutn of citrate in the blood. These excess citrate then binds calcium, and this lead sto hypocalemia. The measured serum calcium levels may be normal despite this occurence, because the deficit of ionized calium is not reflected in total calcium levels.

288
Q

Number needed to harm (NNH) is a measure that indicates what?

what is the formula?

A

indicates how many patients need to be exposed to a particular risk factor over a specific period before a harmful event occurs in 1 patient.

NNH is the inverse of the absolute risk increase (or attributable risk), which is the difference in incidence rate between exposed and non exposed.

289
Q

Odds ratio is a measure of ?

A

association between an exposure and an outcome.

IT can be calciulated on a 2 x 2 contingency table, using the formula OR = ad/bc

290
Q

First line therapy for plantar warts?

Other options include?

Dx?

A

Topical salicylic acid (takes 2-3 weeks to beecome apparent)

other option: liquid nitrogen cyrotherapy

Dx: single or multiple hyperatotic papules on the sole of the foot. Scrapings of hyperkeratoci debris can confirm the diagnosis by showing thrombosed capillaries (also called seeds).

291
Q

Serum enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay versus bacterial culture of the synovial fluid for the diagnosis of lyme disease

A

Synovial fluid aspriation excludes ovther destructive forms of bacterial arthritis, and lyme serology is diagnostic.

Bacterail culture of synovial fluid is ually negative in Lyme disease, as B burgdoferin is difficult to isolate and require a special medium.

292
Q

Prognosis of Lyme athritis

A

can be treated successfully with a 28 day course of oral doxycycline or amoxicllin.

Prognosis is favorable and most patients recover completely.

293
Q

Antibodies that are commonly present and can be helpful to confirm one’s clinical suspcision of sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Anti-Ro-SSA and anti0la/SSB. no true diagnostic test is available.

294
Q

What occurs as a component of the chronic inflammation in patients with Sjogren’s syndrome?

What does it lead to increased risk for?

A

B lymphocyte activation and infiltration of the salivary glands.

lincreased risk for B-cell lymphoma

295
Q

Obesity is defined as BMI > than what?

A

30

296
Q

Hypoventilation is evidenced by what on a chest xray

A

bibasilar atlelectasis

297
Q

PE vesus Obstructive sleep apnea

A

PE can lead to acute hypoxic respiratory failure, but like respiratory failure due to pulmonary edema, respiratory alkalosis is expected initally. (unlike respiratory acidosis in OBA)

Acute hyperacapnic resp. failure is not typical of PE in the abscent of significant underlying COPD.

*PE most commonly shows hypoxemia and hypocapnea (respiratory alkalosis) due to hyperventilation,

298
Q

Helathy worker effect

A

type of selction bias that usually occurs in occupational cohort studies when the general population is used as the reference group.

The general population consists of healthy and unhealthy individuals; those who are unhealthy are less likely to be employed, whereas the employed workforce ends to have fewer sick individuals.

Consequently, the comparisons of mortality rates between the employed population and the general population are usually biased.

299
Q

Neurocardiogenic versus cardiogenic syncope

A

Neurocardiogenic (vasovagal syncope) is usually preceded by an autonomic prodrome of nausea, pallor, diaphroesis or generalized warmth.

These symptoms often temporarily persist following the episode.

Both the prodome and hte persistence of symptoms following the episode help differentiate the neurocardiogenic syncope from more serious causes (ex: cardiogenic syncope)

300
Q

Patients with type 1 DM are predisposed to get other what disorders?

A

autoimmune disorders such as Addison disease, hypothyroidism, pernious anemia, etc

301
Q

Typical finding in patients with PCA aneurysm

How does it differ from PICA aneurysms

A

Cranial III palsy (ptosis and anisocoria)

ataxia and bulbar dysfunction

302
Q

Arthrocentesis versus serum uric acid in diagnosis of Gout

A

Arthrocentesis confirms acute gout by showing monosodium urate crystals that are negatively birefringent and needle-shaped under polarizing light.

Serum uric acid does not accurately diagnose acute gout as many patients have normal or even low uric acid during an acute gouty attack

303
Q

Gout versus Peusedogout

A
304
Q

First line therapy in patients with acute gout

A

NSAIDs (indomethacin, ibuprofen) and are effective in >90% of patients with acute gout.

Oral colchicine is an alternative therapy in patients with contraindication to NSAIDS.

Intraarticular steriods can be used in acute gout for patients with one or two inflamed joints and contraindications to NSAIDS or colchine.

*Aspirin is generally not used for acute gout due to its renal handling of uric acid. Low dose apriin (1-2 g/day) causes uric acid retention; high dose aspirin (<3 g/day)

305
Q

What is usually given after symptom resolution for gout to prevent future acute gouty attacks in patients with recurrent episodes?

A

allopurinol

306
Q

Patients with neutropenia or severe conditions require ICU are at risk for what type invasive infection ?

Risk is greatest in those with what access?

What is a common finding in disseminated disease?

A

Candida infections.

Those with central venous access, particularly if the patient is on TPN.

endophthalmitis and manifestifestations include fever, eye pain, decreased viscual acuity and funuscopic evidene of focal, glisteining, white, mount-like lesions that may extend into the vitrious and cause vitreous haze.

307
Q

Invasive aspergillous versus invasive candidiassis

A

Invasive aspergillus typically manifests in the lungs (fever, dsypnea, pleuritic pain, hemoptysis ) or sinuses.

Endopthalmitis may occur rarely, but leasions are typically hemorrhagic and encrotic, not white and mount like

308
Q

Cryptococcal infections dissemination versus Candidiasis

A

Cryptococcal infections typically causes meningoencephalitis (headache, memory loss, personality change) or less commonly pneumonia.

Cryptococcal endopthalmitis is exceedly rare and is almost always associated with concomitant meningoencephalitis; this patient with Central venous access on TPN is far likely to have candidiasis

309
Q

Infective endocarditis versus Endoopthalamitis in Candidiasis disemmination

A

Infective endocarditis may cause microthrombi in the retina with a resultant immune-mediated vasculitis.

This maifests as roth spots, which are excudative, edematous retinal hemorrhages with pale centers.

(not white and mount like fungatig retinal lesions with vitreous extension)

310
Q

Candida endopthalamitis with vitreal involvement is typically treated with?

A

systemic antifungal medication (ex: amphotericin B), intravitreal antifungal injection and vitrectomy.

*Although fluconazle and voriconazole may be used for treating candida endophthalmitis, ketoconzole does not achieve high enough vitreous concentrations to be recommended.

311
Q

Hyponatremia + Serum osmolitlity is > 290

A

Marked hyperglycemia,

Advanced renal failure

312
Q

Hyponatremia

Serum osmolaity < 290

Urine Osmolaity < 100

A

Primary polydipsia

malnutrion (beer drinker)

313
Q

Hyponatremia

serum osmolity <290

urine Osmolaity >100

Urine sodium <25

A

Volume depletion

CHF

Cirrhosis

314
Q

Hyponatremia

serum osmolity <290

urine Osmolaity >100

Urine sodium >25

A

SIADH

Adrenal insuffiency

Hypothyroidism

315
Q

Moderate to severe hypothyroidism relationship to sodium in the body

A

Can be associated with mild euvolemic hyponatremia.

treatment of underlying hypothyoridism with levothyroxine can correct the hyponatremia

316
Q

Dual-energy xray absorptiometry versus radioistope bone scan

A

Dual-energy xray absorptiometry - used to measure bone density (osteoporosis/osteopenia screening)

radioistope bone scan - detect areas of increased bone turnover and are very sensitive for osteoblastic bone metastases of prostate and other cancers.

317
Q

What is used ot treat akathisia?

A

Akathisia, characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness, urge to move, inability to sit still, is a common side effect of antipsychotic drugs.

Use Beta blocker

318
Q

Mesothelioma is linked to what exposure?

Mesothelioma is characterized by?

A

asbestos.

characterized by dyspnea and chest pain, and CXR shows nodular thickening of the pleura and/or obscuring of the diaphragm

319
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma typically manifests on CXR as?

This type of lung cancer is sometimes associated with?

A

hypercalemia due ot parathyroid like hormone production

320
Q

What is associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung

A

SIADH is associated with normovoemic hyponatremia

321
Q

What is the preferred means of correcting mild to moderate hyponatremia associated with SIADH

A

water restriction

322
Q

Early localized Lyme disease

when does it typically occur and what is it charazterized by?

Diagnosis?

A

Typically occurs within a month after tick attachment and is characterized by erythema migrans and viral like symptoms.

Diagnosis is made cliically; Lyme disease serology is often falsey negative is not recommended.

Treatment with oral antibotics (x: 14 days of doxy) is required.

323
Q

Serologic testing and treatment for early localized lyme disease versus early disseminated/late

A

Unlike early localized lyme disease, patients with manifestations of early disseminated (ex: multiple eryhtema migrans, carditis, neuritis) or late (ex: arthritis, peripheral neuropahthy) lyme disease have fully developed humoral antibody response and SHOULD receive testing prior to treatment.

Screening with b budorferi enzyme linked immunosorbent assay and confirmaiton with western blot are usually peformed.

324
Q

Q waves and T inversions in inferior leads II, III and aVF

A

suggest prior MI.

325
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa

what is it?

A

chronic inflammatory disorder characterized by occlusion of skin follicles commonily involving interitrignous area (ex: axillae, groin, etc)

Mild cases - topical antibotics (ex: clinidamin)

Moderate cases with sinus tracts and scar formation require oral antibotics (tetracycline perferred)

More severe cases with diffuse involment and extensive sinus tracts formation may require biological TNF-alpha inhibitors (ex: infliximab) and wide surgical excision

326
Q

What is a major cause of respiratory muscle weakness and can lead to the failure of being able to wean a patient off the respirator?

what is the leading cause of this in hospitalized patients?

A

Hypophosphatemia

Contnous glucose infusions are the leading cause of hypophosphtemia in hospitalized patients. THe patients are usually alcholic or otherwise debiliated and the nadir in serum phosphate appears in the first few days after admission.

Hypo-P can impair ATP generation (which is needed by skeletal muscles to perform work) and muscle weakness can result.

327
Q

What diabetic medication can especially cause hypoglycemia?

A

Sulfonylrureias (glyburide, glipizide, glimeprine) and meglitenides (nateglinide, repaglinide).

These drugs increase insulin secretion by pancreatic beta cells even when blood glucose is normal

328
Q

What should be used to screen for TB in most patients with previous BCG vaccine?

A

interferon-gamma release assay.

As they may have a false positve TB skin test.

329
Q

Hopsitalized patients with herpes zoster require what tpype of precaution?

A

Localized infection - standard precaution and lesion covering

Disseminated infection (other areas)- standard precaution PLUS contact and airborne precaution

Patietns with Herpes Zoster may transmit VZV through direct contact (primiarly) or aerosolized particles (rarely) to health care personnel and other individuals)