UWORLD 10 Flashcards

1
Q

Chronic opioid use and endocrinopathy

A

Chronic opioid use leads to decreased gonadotropin-releasing hormone secretion and is a common cause of hypogonadism.

Patients can develop decreased libido and other manifestations of hypogonadism.

has low levels of testosterone with low FSH and LH levels (consistent with secondary (central) hypogonadism rather than primary gonadal dysfunction.

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2
Q

Calcium homeostasis involves blood transport as?

Patients with hypoalbuminemia can have decreased?

How does this correlate with the total plasma calcium?

A

ablumin bound calcium (45%)

Ionized calcium (40%) or

calcium bound to inorganic or organic anions (15%).

Patients with hypoalbuminemia can have decreased total plama calcium.

However the ionized serum calcium (phyisologlically active form) is hormonally regulated and remains stable.

As a result, these patients may be asymptomatic as the measured total plasma calcium does not correlate with the physiologically active calcium.

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3
Q

Correct calcium calculation

A

The serum calcium concentration decreases by 0.8 for every 1 decrease in the serum albumin concentration.

The corrected serum calcium level is calculated with the formula below (normal albumin level is 4.0):

Corrected calcium = (measure total calcium) PLUS 0.8 (4.0-measured serum albumin)

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4
Q

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

When should you suspected it?

What does the EEG classically demostrate?

A

should be suspected in healthy adolescent patients with upper-extremity morning myoclonus and subsequent generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

  • *myoclonic jerks of the arm occurs within the first hour of waking and can be aggravated by sleep deprivation and alcohol intake*
  • bilateral polyspike and slow discharge durng the interictal period*
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5
Q

first line treatment in Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

valproic acid

Sleep deprivation is a common seizure precipitants and patietns should e educated on sleep hygiene.

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6
Q

Neuroimaging and Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

Neurogimaing is not necessary when the patient’s presentation and EEG are classic for JME as MRI is typically normal in these patients.

However, children with seizures should undergo brain MRI to evaluate for structual abnormality (ex: tumor) if examination shows focal deficits or UMN signs (ex: hyper-reflexia/hypertonia).

MRI should also be cosnidered for first time GTC seizure if there is no hx of staring spells or upper extermity morning myoclonus.

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7
Q

What should be monitored in patients taking valproic acid?

A

thrombocytopenia and hepatotoxicity

it is also a known teratogen that has been linked to neural tube defects.

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8
Q

Gingival hyperplasia is an important side effect of which antiepileptic drug?

A

Phenytoin

It is not associated with valproate acid.

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9
Q

Hyponatremia is a side effect of which antiepileptic drug?

A

oxcarbazepine

due to inappropriate antiduretic hormone release

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10
Q

What is important to determine for adults with intellectual disability?

A

Guardianship status

it should be clarified early in the medical relationship to faciliate decision making

*When children reach age 18, their parents may pursue guardianship in order to continue to make decisions for those with intellectual disability, especially if an adult child’s disability is severe enough to impair global decision making capactiy or ability to communicate.

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11
Q

Nonoverlapping confidence intervials always imply?

What if it overlaps?

A

a statisically significant difference between groups.

However, the opposite is not necessarly true.

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12
Q

There is an increased risk for type I errors when

A

multiple simultaneous hypootheses are tested at set p-values.

Interpretation of findings in clinical trials when multiple outcome measures are used without adjustment of the significance level may result in spurious findings and invalid conclusions.

*type I error (alpha) is the probaliby of rejecting a nulll hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true.

Type 1 error - You are too bold.

Type 2 error - You are too timid.

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13
Q

The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008

A

prevents employers from requiring or requesting genetic testing results of their employees.

If an employer already has genetic testing information, the law prevents the employer from using the info to discriminate against the employee.

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14
Q

What is the most effective contraceptive with a >99% effiicacy rate with typical use?

A

Progestin subdermal implant

has high pregnancy prevention rate once inserted it is effective for 3 years and is not user dependent.

It is even more effective than the IUD (0.2-0.8 failure rate) and female sterilization (0.5 failure rate).

Contraception is achieved by progesterone-induced changes that result in cervical mucus thickening and decreased tubal motility, which inhibit sperm migration. In addition, progestin causes ovulation suppression via decreased FSH and LH secretion.

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15
Q

Copper IUD versus Levonorgesterol IUD

A
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16
Q

IgA nephropathy versus Acute postreptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

Gross hematuria following acute URI is a common presentation of IgA nephropathy.

Acute poststrep glomerulonephritis follows a streptococcal throat infection with a gap of more than 10 days between throat infection and onset of renal disease. Serum complements are also decreased (unlike IgA nephropathy which is normal)

Many patients with IgA nephtropahty have a benign course. There is no definitive treatment for IgA nephropathy.

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17
Q

Hemophilia A is what type of disorder?

what happens to daugthers born to an affected father and normal mother?

What about sons of carrier mother?

A

X-linked recesive disorder that occurs almost exclusively in males.

Affected father, normal mother - daugther will be carrier

Sons born to carrier mother - have 50% chance of having hemophilia

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18
Q

A unilateral headache presenting with associated horner syndrome should be considered what until proven otherwise?

What if anhidrosis is absent?

What is the next step in management?

A

A carotid artery dissection

Horner syndrome (ipsilateral miosis, ptosis)

results from disruption of sympthetic nerves innervating the face and eye.

These nerves travel along the carotid artery, as a result, a carotid artery dissection is one important cause of horner syndrome.

Anhidrosis may be absent in internal carotid artery dissection (parital horner syndrome) because sweat nerve fibers travel along the external carotid artery.

Head and neck vasculature imaging is the inital diagnostic modality of choice.

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19
Q

Lyme disease verus Horner syndrome with carotid dissection

A

Early disseminated lyme disease can be associated with headache and cranial nerve palsies (including facial nerve palsy leading to unilateral facial paralysis).

However, it is not associated with other horner syndrome symptoms.

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20
Q

What have been successfully used to control dyspnea that patients experience at the end of life?

A

systemic opiates

Opiates cause sedation and can cause respiratory depression, so patients and families should be educated on side effects and physicans should carefuly titrate dosing.

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21
Q

Achalasia versus Esophagel stricture

A

peptic stricture is a well known complication of GERD that results from the healing process of ulcerative esophagitis.

Dysphagia usually starts with solids followed by liquids.

Young age and lack of alarmaing symptoms argue against ta diagnosis of malignancy.

For achalasia, it usually causes dysmotility type dysphagia that is characterized by difficulting in swallowing both solids and liquids.

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22
Q

What is especially useful in the management of obese, diabetic patietns?

What improves nonalocholic steohepatitis?

What can cause weight gain?

‘What is too weak to be used as monotherapy?

A

Metformin (associated with some weight loss)

Metformin & pioglitazone (thiazolidnediones) decreases triglycerides, increases HDL and improves Nonalcoholic steohepatitis (NASH).

Thiazolidenidones, insluin and sulfonylureas can cause weight gain.

Acarbose’s action is stoo weak to be used as monotherapy.

*Sulfonylureas (ex: glyburide, glipizide or glimepiride)

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23
Q

Acute back pain management

A
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24
Q

Urethritis in young male patients.

What are the two types?

What can help differentiate it?

A

Young male patients are at greatest risk for urethritis, which often manifests with dysuria, itching at the urethral meatus and urethral discharge.

Urethral gluid gram stain can help categorize between gonococcal or nongonococcal (aspetpic) urethritis.

Nongonoccal urethritis is most comomly cuased by Chlamydia trachmomatis and is treated empircally with azithromycin. All patients should also receive nucleic acid amplification testing of the urine to confirm the diagnosis of the pathologic organism.

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25
Q

Patients with nongonococcal urethritis with continued symptoms after azithromycin therapy - Management

A

Patients with nongonoccocall urethritis frequently have continued symptoms after azithromycin therapy due to reinfection or infection with an organism (ex: mycoplasma genitalium) not susceptible to azithromycin.

Patients should receive repeat urethral gram stain and nucelic acid amplification testing of the urine for common urethritis organisms.

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26
Q

Parvovirus B19 arthritis

A

Parvovirus B19 can cause viral arthritis, sometimes with a rash, following a nonspecific flu-like illness.

Acute onset pain, swelling and stiffness of the symmetric small joints of the hand are typical.

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27
Q

SLE presentation

A
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28
Q

Acute rheumatic fever verus Lyme arthritis

A

Acute rheumatic fever- erythema marginatum and suctuaneous nodules

Lyme arthritis - monoarticular and associated with erythema migrans.

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29
Q

Modified wells criteria for pretest probability of PE

A
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30
Q

Diagnostic strategy in suspected PE

A

Ventilaiation perfusion scintigraphy may be considered as an alternative test if the patient is unable to recieve IV contrast agents (ex; renal insuffiency, contrast allergy)

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31
Q
A
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32
Q

What is associated with a worse prognosis with PE?

A

Troponin can be elevated in the setting of large pulmonary emboli with resulting right heart strain and would not indicate acute cardiac ischemia.

Elevated troponin in the setting of PE is associated with a worse prognosis.

Patients with suspected PE should be initated on anticoagulant therapy and undergo urgent CT pulmonary angiography.

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33
Q

Management options for PE

A

Anticoagulation is the mainstay of treatment for PE, with most patients initally receiving LMWH or Unfractionated heparin followed by initation of warfarin.

Fibrinolytic therapy is used in patietns with persistent hypotension and IVC filters may be used in patietns with a CI to anticoagulation.

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34
Q

Patient on anticoagulant treatment of PE and has half a teaspoon of dark blood on an occassion - management?

A

a small amount of hemopthysis is normal in patients with PE, particulary if pulmonary infraction has occured.

The treatment regimen need not be latered if the patient is otherwise stable.

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35
Q

Breast cyst management

A

Breast cysts that are simple can be managed with observation (in asymptomatic patients) or with FNA (in symptomatic patients)

Nonbloody benign cysts that resolve with aspiration are then followed with clinical breast examination and repeat US.

simple - thin walled and fluid filled without septations are beign

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36
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis

A
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37
Q

what is a common cause of clinically significant heart failure?

What does patients often have?

What is shown on echo & xray?

Obesity and B-type Natriuretic peptide relationship?

A

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction due to left ventircular diastolic dysfunction

comorbid systemic HTN and obesity

Chest xray can aid in the diagnosis and may show pleural effusion or pulmonary edema often manifested as kerley b lines (horzontal lines representing intersititual edema or linear densities at eh margins of the lung fields).

Echo provides an estiaimate of LEVEF and can identify impaired filling.

B-type NAP<100 is often usefully in ruling out clinically signficant heart failure, however obesity lwoers BNP levels, making htis test unreliable in such patients.

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38
Q

Restless legs syndrome may be as symptom of?

What should be obtained?

A

iron deficiency

a serum ferritin level should be obtained as iron deficiency is frequently present in the absence of anemia.

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39
Q

First line treatment for daily restless legs syndrome of moderate to severe intensity include?

A

dopamine agonists such as pramipexole or ropinirole

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40
Q

Management?

A

Flail chest is the result of double rib fractures in more than one site, resulting in paradoxical movement of the flail segment during inspiration.

The diagnosis may be obvious on examination, but many are occult.

Management includes supplemental oxygen, pain control (invasive or noninvasive), Positve pressure ventilation and surgical stabilization for more severe cases.

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41
Q

Cardiac contusion versus flail chest

A

cardiac contusion, especially if massive, may lead to hemodynamic instability; however, disordered breathing (rapid, shallow breathing) with stable vital signs would not be typical.

42
Q

medications to avoid in mystenia gravis

A
43
Q

Magneisum sulfate, commonly used in obsterics for seizure prophylaxis (ex: preeclampsia) and neuroprotection, is contraindicated in patients with?

What should be used in these patients instead for seizure prophylaxis?

A

mysthenia gravis as it may trigger a myasthenic crisis due to inhibition of acetylcholine release.

Valproic acid should be used instead.

44
Q

Life threatening hemorrhage in patients on warfarin therapy should be treated with?

Best choice for rapid reversal of anticoagulant is?

A

prothrombin complex concentrate and IV Vitamin K.

Prothrombin complex concentrate contains Vit. K dependent clotting factors and normalizes INR <10 mins after administration. Best choice for rapid reversal.

IV Vitamin K, which results in sustained warfarin reveral but takes 12-24 hours for full effect. Because of this delayed effect, vitamin K is alway used with a clotting factor replacement.

*FFP is considered second line therapy for prelacing vitamin K-dependent clotting factors due to the large volume (often >2L0 required and the delay for blood compatibiliy tests. It is typically used when prothrombin complex concentrate is not avilable.

45
Q

What is used for minor bleeding episodes in patients with Von Willebrand disaese or uremic platelet dysfunction?

A

IV desmopressin is a synthetic analaog of ADH that increases circulating factors VIII and von willebrand factor.

46
Q

WHat is used to revere the anticoagulant dabigatran, a direct thrombin inhibitor?

A

IV idarucizumab, a monoclonal antibody

47
Q

What are the most common pulmonary pathogens present in patietns with cystic fibrosis?

What is a preferred empiric antibotic regimen in patietns experiencing severe pulmonary exacerbations?

A

Staph Aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

In contrast to most patients with suspected Gram-negative pneumonia, monotherapy is inappropriate in ththe treatment of P..aeurginosa in CF as drug resistance develops so rapidly in this population.

A combination of tobramycin, ticarcillin-clavulnate and vancomycin

(tobramycin = aminogycoside) to treat pseudomonas PLUS

anti-pseudomonal semisynethic pencillin ( ticarcillin-clavulnate)

48
Q

Diagnosis of Schistosomiasis

What can chronic schistosomias cause?

A

Urine sediment microscopy

(identifying parasite eggs)

Schistosomasis is a parasitic fluke infection most comonly seen in sub-Saharan africa.

Chronic schistosomais can cuase dysuria, urinary frequency, terminal hematuria and peripheral eosinophia.

49
Q

What is the best inital therapy for oral candidiasis?

What is used when there is resistant with inital treatment?

A

thrush

toipcal antifungal (ex: nystatin suspension or clotrimazole troches), with an oral antifungal such as fluconazole used for resistant cases.

In patient where thrush is secondary to inhaled corticosteriods, proper technique should be assessed by watching the patient use the inhaler.

Oral fluconazole is an antifungal agent and can be used in cases that are resistant to intial treatment with topical nystatin.

50
Q

Prognosis of obsterical Erb’s palsy?

What nerves does it involve?

What is a serious complication?

A

typically good, with an 80% chance of full or near full recovery.

*Erbs palsy invovles the upper roots (C5,6 and sometimes 7),resulting in an adducted and internally rotated arm with forearm pronation and flexed wrist.

A serious complication is diaphramatic paralaysis due to phrenic nerve involvement

51
Q

What is useful before and during increased physical activity to prevent hypoglycemia in type 1 diabetic patients?

A

Decreased insulin dosage

52
Q

Causes of Oligohydramnios? What is its AFI?

A
53
Q

Causes of Polyhydramnios? What is it’s AFI?

A
54
Q

Acoustic neuromas result from the proliferation of?

Acoustic neuromas are observed in patients with?

A

Schwann cells (schwannomas)

neurofibromatosis, as well as sporodic.

Scwann cells are responsible for the myelinazation of PNS axons, including most axons of most cranial nerves.

*In spite of the name neuroma, acoustic neuromas do not arise from neural cells

55
Q

Responsiblities of the following:

Oligodendrocytes

Astrocytes

Microglia

A

Oligodendrocytes - myelinzation of the CNS axons, including axons of the optic nerves

Astrocytes - supportive cells of the CNS. Give rise to the majority of glial tumors

Microglia - comproised of phagocytic cells

56
Q

serum-ascities albumin gradient (SAAG)

A

A SAAG gradient of > or = 1.1 indicates presence of portal hypertension, while a value of <1.1 indicates absence of portal HTN

SAAG = serum ablumin value minus ascitic fluid albumin value (not the ratio of the two)

57
Q

Clinical conditions associated with high SAAG (>1.1)

Low SAAG?

A

high SAAG - CHF, cirrhosis and alcoholic hepatitis

Low SAAG - peritoneal carcinomatosis (ex: ovarian cancer), peritoneal tuberculosis, nephrotic syndrome, pancreatitis, and serositis

58
Q

What is consdered an absolute contraindication to cardiac transplantation?

What is considered a relative contraindication?

A

active substance or alcohol abuse.

relative contraindication - lack of psychosocial support

59
Q

Chronic bacterial prostatis typically presents with?

Cause?

Common pathogen?

Treatment?

A

> 3 months of UTI , pain in the genitourinary region, and/or pain with ejaculation.

Exmaination of the prostate may be normal or show hypertrophy tenderness or edema

Chronic bacterial prostatitis is a common condition of young and middle-aged men due to intraprostatic reflux of urine with microbial seeding of the prostate.

Pathogens are similar to those that cause cysitits and inlcude E.coli (75-80%).

Urine leuckocytes and bacteriuria are typically present, partciularly after prostatic massage.

Treatment requires 6 weeks of a fluroquinolone (ex: ciprofloxacin) or trimethoprim sulfamethoxaole.

60
Q

Management of suspected adrenal insuficency?

A
61
Q

Vaccines for adults with HIV

A
62
Q

What are the two types of priapism?

The diagnosis of ischemic priapism can be confirmed by blood gas analysis?

A

A physical examination of the penis should be performed to ascertain whether it is fully erect (as in ischaemic priapism) or partially erect (as in non-ischaemic priapism).

Penile blood gases are vital for discriminating between the two types, with ischaemic priapism giving rise to acidotic, hypoxic, hypercarbic cavernous blood gases (pH≤ 7.25, pO2 < 30 mmHg, pCO2>60 mmHg)

These blood gases arise due to a build up of deoxygenated blood in the corpora cavernosa. This build up occurs as persistent relaxation of corporeal smooth muscle causes compression of the subtunical veins, which prevents outflow of deoxygenated blood via sinusoids. Consequently, intracorporeal pressure is increased to above the mean arterial pressure, compressing the cavernosal arteries and preventing arterial blood flow.

63
Q

At the onset of symptoms, priapism may be terminated with simple interventions such as?

But symptoms lasting >4 hours require?

A

urination, cold compresses

invasive treatment. Management includes aspriation of the corpora cavenosa and intracavernosal injection of an alpha agonist (ex: phenylephrine)

As an α1-adrenergic receptor agonist, phenylephrine causes α-mediated vasoconstriction within the corpora cavernosa

64
Q

Second-degree AV block

Distinguishing features of Mobitiz type I and Type II AV block

  • level of block
  • ECG findings
  • Exerciase or atropine
  • Vagal maneuvers
  • Risk of complete heart block
A
65
Q

Herbal supplement (use and side effects)

Ginkgo biloba

Ginseng

Saw palmetoo

Black cohosh

St Johns wart

Kava

Licorice

Echinacea

Ephedra

A
66
Q

Casues of acute, painless vision loss

A
67
Q

Proliferative retinopathy

A

due to DM typically results in progessive visual loss in its late stages.

has evidence of neovascularization or hemorrhage on funduscopy

68
Q

Optic neuritis verus Central retinal artery occlusion

A

causes subacute (hours to days) monocular vision loss associated with eye pain that worsens with eye movement.

Patients can have afferent pupillary defect, but funduscopy characteriscally shows optic disc edema.

69
Q

Central reintal artery occlusion

A

most commonly caused by carotid artery atherosclerosis and presents with acute painless monocular vision loss

patients typically have affferent pupillary defect on examination and funduscopy may show a pale, ischemic fundus with a “cherry” red spot.

70
Q

Fundoscopy shows this:

A

Fundus with retinal hemorrhages & opic disc edema (blood & thunder)

71
Q

Fundoscopy

A

retinal detachment

fundus with vitreous hemorrhages and marked elevation of retina

surgical repair necessary

72
Q

What are classic findings of endometriosis?

What exactly is endometriosis?

What can it cause?

A

pelvic pain with exacerbation by bowel movement (dyschezia) and rectovaginal nodularity on pelvic examination

Extrauterine implantation of endometrial tissue that causes inflammation and fibrosis as it immplants cyclically shed in the ectopic location.

Endometrosis casues pelvic adhesions and inlfmmation, which can cuase infertility and chronic pelvic pain.

73
Q

TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS

Pathophysiology

Clinical features

  • Dermatologic
  • Neurologic
  • Cardiovascular
  • Renal
A

genetic syndrome that leads to benign tumors throughout the body.

74
Q

Initial evaluation of tuberous sclerosis

A

through skin examination, CNS and abdominal imaging and electroencephalogy if seizures are suspected

*Seizures are predominant symptoms that generally worsens over time.

75
Q

What is the leading cause of death in patients with tuberous sclerosis complex?

A

Neurologic impairment

Uncontrollable seizures, aspiration pneumonia and obstructive hydrocephalus can result from progressive CNS involvement

76
Q

What is an important risk factor for UTI in tolddlers?

A

Chronic functional constipation can prevent full bladder emptying -> urinary stasis -> UTI

Evaluation and treatment of constipation is ncecessary to prevent dysfunctional voiding and recurrent UTI.

77
Q

Differential diagnosis of travel associated diarrhea

Short term versus long term illness and their notable characterisitcs

A
78
Q

Giadarda lamblia

A

common protozol cause of traveler’s diarrhea that can manifest with watery diarrhea, malaise and abdominal cramps.

However, stools are typically foul smelling or fatty and symptoms almost always arise >1 week after exposure.

79
Q

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

A

is the most common cause of traveler’s diarrhea and typically manifests 1-3 days after exposure with watery diarrhea and crampy abdominal pain.

Symptoms are usually self-limited and resove spontaenously within 3-4 days.

80
Q

What is a common condition in elderly patients and is often assocaited with overflow stool incontience?

How do you manage?

A

Fecal impactation.

Managed with manual rectal disimpaction followed by enemas to clear the bowels.

Once complete emptying has been achieved, the patient should increase fiber and fluid intake as well as start an aggressive bowel regiment to prevent recurrence.

81
Q

Management of foriegn bodies that have made it to the stomach?

A

Upt o 90% of foreign bodies that have made it to the stomach will be passed without difficult; therefore no intervention is necessary.

82
Q

Diagnosis of acute Hepatic C

A

Diagnosis is confirmed with HCV ribonucelic acid detection by polymerase chain reaction as anti-HCV antibodies can take up to 122 wweks or longer to become positive in acute HCV.

83
Q

various type of twin placentation

A
84
Q

Monochorionic diamniotic twin gestations are at increased risk for?

What happens to the donor twin?

WHat happens to the receipient twin?

A

twin-twin transfusion syndrome, a potentially fata complication that results from unbalanced arteriovenous anastomoses between the vessels supplying the umblical cords of the twins.

*Because of unblanced AV anastomoses, blood from the placental arteries (high resistance/pressure) of one twin (donor) is shunted into the placental veins (low resistance/pressure) of the other twin (receipient).

The shutning of blood away from the donor twin causes anemia that leads to renal failure, oligohydramnios, low output heart failure and fetal growth restriction.

In contrast, the receipient twin caues polycythemia, which leads to polyhydramnios, cardiomegaly, high output heart failure, and hydrops fetalis.

85
Q

What happens in monochorionic monoaminiotic gestation?

What are they at increased risk of?

A

two twins share 1 placenta and 1 amniotic sac.

Because the twins grow and evelop in 1 sac, monochorionic monoaminotic gestations can be complicated by cord enlargement.

86
Q

Ascertainment bias

A

occurs when the results of a clinical study are distorted by knowledge of which intervention the participants are assigned to.

The best way to maximize unbiased ascertainment of outcome is to keep the individuals involved in the clinical study blind (unaware) to the particpants’ intervention assignment for as long as possible.

87
Q

Randomization versus blinding

A

Randomization prevents selection bias in allocating interventionsto participants at the beginning of a study (before the outcome is ascertained), whereas blinding prevents ascertainment of outcomes bias at the end of the study (after randomization).

Blinding does not maximize randominzation because it does not consider which participants where randomized into each treatment; rather it focuses on how particpants will be evaluated because of the assigned treatment

88
Q

Short stature

Etiology

Bone Growth

Growth Velocity

A
89
Q

Short stature is height is what percentile?

Evaluation begins with calculating?

How do you calculate mid-parental height?

A

< or = 2%

mid-parental height and determining bone age

*Bone age study is a radiograph of th epatient’s hand and wrist used to assess the rate of skeletal maturation

90
Q

Familal short sature presents with?

A

height < or =2%, normal growth velocity, normal bone age and a parental hx of short stature

91
Q

Consititutional delay of puberty veruss familial short stature.

A

Constitutional delay of puberty - patients with this condition have delayed bone age (ex: bone age younger than chroniological age) and delayed evelopment of secondary sexual characteristis (ex: breast development, testicular enlargement).

Familial - This patients bone age corresponds with her chronological age and she has appropriate secondary sexual characteristics for her age.

92
Q

Meta analysis combines several studies to increase what?

A

statistical power through an increased sample size.

The larger the sample size, the more likely a hypothesis will detect a small difference.

This is known as type I error of false positive in hypothesis testing.

Therefore, it is particularly important to consider clinical significance when the sample size is large.

93
Q

Management of PPROM

A

Patients with PPROM at <34 weeks are managed conservatively witih prophylactic antibitoics (ampicillin plus erthyromycin) to prolong hte interval between membrane rupture and delivery, thereby improving neonatal outcomes.

*antibotics are to prevent overt intrauterine infection (ex: chorioamnionitis), which can result from progression of the sublinical infection that caused PPROM or from the ascent of vaginal bacteria through the ruptured membranes.

Ampicillin covers Group B strep, aerobic gram neg bacilli and anerobes; erythromycin covers ureaplasma

94
Q

Mangenisum sulfate is indicated in patients of what week gesttation who are at risk for preterm delivery

A

<32 weeks.

decreases risk of fetal neurologic omplications (cerebral palsy)

95
Q

management of patients with fetal growth restriction

A

ultrasound estimated fetal weight <10% for gestational age, are followed with weekly umbilical artery doppler sonography.

Absent or reveresed umbilcal artery end-diastolic flow is a sign of impeding fetal hypoxia and an indication for delivery.

96
Q

Erythema infectiosum

also known as?

Caused by?

Presentation?

What does it cause in adults and tin those with underlying hematologic disorders (ex: sickle cell disease)

A

or fifth disease

common benign childhood illness caused by parvovirus B19.

Presentation begins with fever and nonspecific prodrome (ex: cough, malais, followed by a bright red facial rash (slapped cheek” and reticulated rash on the trunks and extremities

*slapped cheek can also present as face appeared flushed

caues arthritis in adults and a transient aplastic crisis in those with Sickle cell disease.

97
Q

Kawaski disease versus Ertyhema infectiosum

A

presents with > or =5 days of fever in addtional to conjunctivitis, rash, lymadenopathy and extremity changes.

The patients brief illness presented with upper respiratory symptoms only and is now resolved.

In addition, although this patient’s classmate likely had kawaski disease (treated with aspirin), ti sis an inflammatory disease that is not contagious.

98
Q

Measles verus Erythema infectiosum

A

Measles can also present with upper respiratory symptoms followed by a diffuse maculopapular rash;

However, patietns are typically ill-appearing and have conjunctiviits.

Althought this patient is notimmunized against meales, he is well appearing and wihtout conjunctivitis and he has a classic presentaiton of erythema infectiosum.

99
Q

Scarlet fever versus erythema infectiosum

A

Scarlet fever, caused by group A streptococcus, presents with fever, pharyngitis, and a diffuse, finde snandpaper-textured rash.

This patient’s fever is resolved and has a rash consistent with erythema infectiosum.

100
Q

INO

A

disorder of the MLF, problem in multiple sclerosis

The syndrome of internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO) is a well recognized disorder of horizontal eye movement often seen in multiple sclerosis patients [5].

It is manifested by impairment of adduction of the eye on the side of the MLF lesion and abduction overshoot eventually followed by a nystagmus of the abducting eye [6].