uWorld 24 Flashcards

1
Q

low bone density is a well known complication of hyperprolactinemia. What causes this

A

GnRH suppression from the hypothalamus leading to HYPOGONADISM, anovulation, and amenorrhea

if untreated the LOW ESTROGEN (hypogonadism) causes accelerated bone loss (same process as postmenopausal osteopenia/osteoporosis

also see vaginal dryness (low estrogen)

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2
Q

amniocentesis performed on a pregnant women; amnionic fluid bilirubin levels check for what

A

erythroblastosis fetalis

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3
Q
HIGH ANDROGEN levels and LOW ESTROGEN  with CLITOROMEGALY and AMIGUOUS GENITALIA in a female fetus
MATERNAL VIRILIZATION (HIRSUTISM and VOICE DEEPENING) during pregnancy
A

AROMATASE deficiency

at puberty: amenorrhea, osteoporosis, and tall stature (low estrogen delays fusion of the epiphyses

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4
Q

male fetuses with aromatase deficiency have what

A

tall stature and osteoporosis

no genital abnormalities

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5
Q

what is peripheral tolerance

A

T cell anergy- functional inactivation of T-cells that are reactive to self antigens

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6
Q

what is central tolerance

A

acquired within the fetal thymus during negative selection

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7
Q

what is the most common cause of CORONARY SINUS DILATION

A

elevated RIGHT-SIDED HEART PRESSURE secondary to PULMONARY HYPERTENSION

also: anomalous venous drainage into the coronary sinus, including persistent left superior vena cava and total anomalous pulmonary venous return

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8
Q

what can cause MEDICATION-INDUCED IgE-INDEPENDENT mast cell activation

A

OPIOIDS (MORPHINE)
RADIOCONTRAST AGENTS
some antibiotics (VANCOMYCIN)

activation of PROTEIN KINASE A and PI3 KINASE

release of histamine, bradykinin, heparin, and a number of enzymes and chemotactic factors

DIFFUSE ITCHING and PAIN, BRONCHOSPASM, and localized swelling (URTICARIA)

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9
Q

what takes over the role of fructose metabolism in fructokinase deficiency

A

HEXOKINASE

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10
Q

what happens to T3 levels in hashimotos

A

stays relatively normal until late in the disease then it drops

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11
Q

what is alirocumab

A

monoclonal antibody against PCSK9 that blocks this effect, resulting in increased availability of LDL receptors on hepatocyte membranes and subsequently increased clearance of LDL from the blood

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12
Q

as the testicles descend what two things they pass through

A

DEEP INGUINAL RING (TRANSVERSALS FASCIA)- the transversus abdomens muscle laterally and the inferior epigastric vessels medially
testis then passes anteromedially to exit the canal via the SUPERFICIAL INGUINAL RING, which is formed by an opening in the EXTERNAL OBLIQUE MSUCEL APONEUROSIS above and medial to the pubic tubercle

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13
Q

what is the conjoint tendon

A

common tendon of the transversals abdomens and internal oblique muscle
forms part of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal

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14
Q

the internal oblique aponeurosis contributes to what

A

formation of the conjoint tendon and rectus sheath

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15
Q

FREE ribosomes remain floating in the cytosol throughout protein synthesis. What are they responsible or translating

A
proteins found in the:
CYTOSOL
NUCLEOSOL
PEROXISOME matrix
NUCELAR-ENCODED MITOCHONDRIAL proteins
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16
Q

ATTACHED ribosomes bind to the RER after protein translation begins. what do they syntehsize

A

most SECRETORY proteins
the integral membrane proteins of the NUCLEUS and CELL MEMBRANE
proteins within the ER, GOlGI NETWORK, LYSOSOMES

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17
Q

how do ribosomes attach to the RER

A

TRANSLOCON- protein complex continuing ribophorins that bind the large 60s subunit

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18
Q

in what tow parts of the cell is ATP made

A

cytosol- glycolysis
mitochondria- oxidative phosphorylation

proteins in both these cellular compartments come from FREE ribosomes in the cytosol

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19
Q

steroid hormone synthesis and drug detoxification are performed by various proteins found in what

A

smooth ER

SEE does not bind ribosomes b/c it lacks the translocon complex

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20
Q

aging is associated with increased ARTERIAL STIFFNESS caused by what

A

endothelial dysfunction and a change in extracellular matrix composition (decreased elastin, increased collagen deposition)

this leads to decreased compliance of the aorta and major peripheral arteries, causing elevated pressures during systole- ISOLATED SYSTOLIC HYPERTENSION

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21
Q

what are some causes of isolated systolic hypertension

A
arterial stiffness (aging)
severe aortic regurgitation
systemic causes (anemia, hyperthyroidism)
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22
Q

celiac disease is a chronic malabsorptive disorder caused by hypersensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye
what is seen on histology

A

VILLOUS ATROPHY
CRYPT HYPERPLASIA
INTRAEPITHELIAL LYMPHOCYTE INFILTRATION

DUODENUM and JEJUNUM fucked the most

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23
Q

when does celiac disease present and what screening can be done for it

A

6-24 months after the introduction of gluten into the diet w/ symptoms of malabsportion (diarrhea, flatulence, steatorrhea, nutrient deficiencies, weight loss)

IgA anti-endomysial antibodies
IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies

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24
Q

what is the most effective preventative intervention in almost all patients (and especially true in those with diabetes)

A

SMOKING cessation

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25
Q

what is the most common primary cerebral neoplasm in adults

A

GLIOBLASTOMA

arises from ASTROCYTES and is typically located within the CEREBRAL HEMISPHERES

can cause mass effect within midline shift and can CROSS CORPUS CALLOSUM (“butterfly glioma”)

on gross exam: soft and poorly defined with area of NECROSIS and HEMORRHAGE

highly malignant- poor prognosis

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26
Q

what does oligodendroglioma look like on gross exam

A

well-circumscribed gray masses with calcification

slow growing tumors of adults typically in white matter of cerebral hemispheres

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27
Q

what does primary central nervous system lymphoma present as

A

most often seen in the immunocompromised

multiple brain lesions involving the sep gray matter, while matter, and cortex

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28
Q

what lymph nodes are found bounded by the inguinal ligament, sartorious muscle, and adductor longs muscle and overlie the femoral nerve, artery, and vein
what do they drain

A

SUPERFICIAL INGUINAL LYMPH NODES

drain all CUTANEOUS lymph from the UMBILICUS DOWN- including external genitalia and the anus (BELOW the DENTATE LINE)

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29
Q

lymph from the superior portion of the bladder drains where

A

external iliac nodes

30
Q

lymph from the prostate drains where

A

internal iliac nodes

also external iliac and sacral nodes (minor pathways)

31
Q

lymph form the upper 1/3 of the rectum drains where

A

inferior mesenteric lymph node

32
Q

a ureteral injury (a rare complication of pelvic surgery) presents with what

A

FLANK PAIN and FEVER and NO URINARY symptoms (due to other ureter working fine

the pelvic proton of the ureter starts at the level of the pelvic brim, and courses medially and anteriorly to the bifurcation of the common iliac arteries
then the ureter passes along the paterpelvic sidewall posterior to the ovarian vessels to dive under the uterine vessels (“WATER UNDER THE BRIDGE”)

33
Q

what is boretezomib (a moronic acid-containing dipeptide)

A

a PROTEASOME INHIBITOR- induces APOPTOSIS of malignant plasma cells via accumulation of TOXIC INTRACELLULAR proteins and excess pro-apoptotic proteins

used in MULTIPLE MYELOMA plasma cells are susceptible to these b/c of increased protein production

34
Q

what is seen in a newborn born to a mother with active hepatitis B

A

high viral load and HBeAG

highest risk for chronic infection

usually immune-tolerant (normal or mildly elevated lier enzymes, no symptoms)

Prevent w/: maternal antiviral therapy and newborn Hep B vaccination and immune globulin

35
Q

interferon gamma increased expression of what

A

MHC I and II improving antigen presentation in all cells

36
Q

how does alemtuzumab work

A

anti-CD52 humanized monoclonal antibody used for treatment of CLL
initiates direct cytotoxic effect through complement fixation and antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity

37
Q

what is bevacizumab

A

humanized monoclonal antibody that interferes with VEGF receptor activation thereby inhabiting angiogenesis

38
Q

what is ALDESLEUKIN

A

IL-2 tha tis used as immunotherapy for metastatic MELANOMA and RENAL CELL carcinoma

39
Q

what is the inheritance patter of wilson disease

A

AR

40
Q

edentate calcium disodium is first line treatment for what

A

lead poisoning

41
Q

newborns have LOW VITAMIN K levels (due to poor transplacental transfer and low content in breast milk) which can IMPAIR CLOTTING FACTOR CARBOXYLATION leading to what???

A

BLEEDING- INTRACRANIAL HERMORHAGE (ICH) is a potentially fatal complication

signs of INCREASED INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE (altered mental status, enlarging head circumference/fontanelle, downward-driven eyes)

PREVENT: administer intramuscular vitamin K at birth

LOOK for this in AT HOME DELIVERIES

42
Q

patient with febrile illness and INTRAERYTHROCYTIC INCLUSIONS (may even look maltese cross like but proly look like shit in the picture honestly)

A

either Plasmodium or Babesiosis if INTRAERYTHROCYTIC inclusions are there

Babesiosis is carried by the IXODIES TICK and seen in NORTHEAST US outdoor exposure in the SUMMER

43
Q

Aedes mosquito is a vector for what

A

Dengue fever and chikungunya (found in Florida)

present with rash and arthralgia and a short incubation period (less than 14 days)

44
Q

bimodal distribution of drug metabolism in a population suggests what

A

two apparently distinct groups- suggesting POLYMORPHISM in drug metabolizing capacity

two peas indicate two sets of responders to the drug within the population: one that rapidly converts the drug to its metabolite and another that converts the drug more slowly (leading to accumulation of the drug in the plasma)

45
Q

who is isoniazid metabolized

A

acetylation to N-acetyl-isoniazid in the hematic microsomal system
excreted in urine

46
Q

methylation is important for the biotransformation of what drugs

A

6-MP and azathioprine

47
Q

dysostosis multiplex (enlarged skull, abnormally shaped ribs and vertebrae) and corneal clouding which can cause blindness is seen in what glycogen storage disease

A

HURLER (alpha-L-iduronidase deficiency)

actually a mucopolysaccharidosis

48
Q

what is Bloom syndrome

A

small statue and infertility along with a predisposition to malignant and a classic sun-sensitive facial rash
AR that lead to chromosomal instability

49
Q

neuropathic pain and angiokeratomas in adolescence and multi-organ involvement (real, cerebrovascular, cardiac) in adulthood is seen in what glycogen storage diease

A

Fabry

50
Q

what is the most common genetic disorder among Ashkenazi jews

A

Goucher
hepatosplenomegaly
pancytopenia
severe bone pain

51
Q

what is the mechanism of liver injury seen in HBV if the patient is HBsAg positive

A

HBsAg and HBcAg ar expressed in conjunction with MHC I

activation of cytotoxic CD8+ Tcells which respond by destroying the infected heaptocytes (vision itself does not have the cytopathic effect)

52
Q

what accounts for the rapid onset and rapid termination of action of propofol and other highly lipophilic drugs

A

the readily diffuse across membranes, quickly accumulating in tissues receiving high blood flow- accounting for rapid onset of action

these compounds are subsequently redistributed to organs getting less blood flow- explains short duration of action

53
Q

Hofmann elimination is the spontaneous degradation in plasma and organ tissue of a drug. What drug dos this happen to

A

Atracurium (non-depolarizing NMJ blocker)

54
Q

what drugs are predominately eliminated via the lungs

A

VOLITILE INHALED anesthetics like halothane

55
Q

what causes chest pain in lupus patients

A

PERICARDIAL INFLAMMATION (pericarditis)- pain increases on INSPIRATION (pleuritic) and is received by SITTING UP and LEANING FORWARD (postural)

pericardial FRICTION RUB

one of the serositis seen in lupus (pleurisy, and peritonitis too)

56
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of SLE

A

constitutional: fever, fatigue, weight loss
Symmetric, migratory ARTHRITIS
Skin: butterfly rash and photosensitivity
SEROSITIS: pleurisy, peritonitis, pericarditis
thromboembolic events (due to vasculitis and antiphospholipid antibodies)
neurologic: cognitive dysfunction and seizures

57
Q

when is dating a patient unethical

A

ALWAYS

can be ethical if provider-patient relationship terminate d WELL BEFOREHAND (can’t encourage them to find a ew provider and date them)

58
Q

epigastric calcification and hostly of alcohol use

A

CHRONIC ALOCHOLIC PANCRATITIS

alcohol induced secreto of protein rich fluid
the proteinaceous secretions can precipitate within the pancreatic ducts, forming DUCTAL PLUGS that may CALCIFY and be detectible on abdominal imaging

59
Q

pancreatic insufficiency (like from a ductal obstruction) cause EXOCRINE INSUFFICIENCY due to atrophy of the pancreatic acinar cells and pancreatic fibrosis. what does this lead to

A
malabsorption
diarrhea
steatorrhea 
weight loss
bulky, frothy stools
60
Q

what is the course of the median nerve

A

emerges as a distance structure arising form the lateral and medial cord fibers of the brachial plexus (C5-T1 fibers)
courses w/ brachial artery in the groove b/w the biceps brachia and brachial muscles

gains access to forearm in the medial aspect of the antecubital fossa and immediately courses b/w the humeral and ulnar heads of the PRONATOR TERES muscle

then travels b/w FLEXOR DIGITORUM PROFUNDUS and FLEXOR DIFITORUM SUPERFICIALIS before entering the wrist/hand within the FLEXOR RETINACULUM

61
Q

where and what is seen with proximal median nerve lesions

A

supracondylar humerus fracture or entrapment b/w the pronator heres

sensor loss in the median nerve distribution
weakness on them FLEXION/OPPOSITION
flexion of he second/third digits, and wrist flexion/ABduction

“preachers hand” deformity due to weak thenar and flexor digitorum profundus of 2nd and 3rd digits

62
Q

what is the course of the musculocutaneous nerve

A

penetrate the coracobrachialis muscle and initially courses b/w biceps brachia and coracobrachialis muscles before descending toward the elbow between the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles

63
Q

what happens if musculocutaneous nerve is injured

A

loss of elbow flexors (biceps, brachial, coracobrahcialis)

loss of sensation over lateral forearm

64
Q

what is the course of the ulnar nerve

A

b.w the olecranon and the medial epicondyle of the humerus before entering the forearm
lies b/w the flexor carpi ulnas and the flexor digitorum profundus muscle

injury: loss of sensation in the medial 1.5 digits of the hand and weakness on wrist flexion/ADduction, finger abduction/adduction, and flexion of the 4th and 5th digits

65
Q

what is the course of the radial nerve

A

through the supinator muscle near the head of the radius

injury can cause wrist drop
loss of sensation to posterior arm and forearm, dorsolateral hand, and dorsal thumb

66
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis is seen in what

A

CELIAC

anti-gliadin IgA that deposits in the tips of the dermal papillae

67
Q

what are metaglitinides (nateglinide, repaglinide)

A

stimulate postprandial INSULIN RELEASE by binding to ATP DEPENDENT K+ channels on beta-cell membranes (site differs from sulfonylureas)

short-acting

cause weight gain and hypoglycemia

68
Q

tissue damage and resultant abscess formation is primarily caused by what

A

lysosomal enzyme release from neutrophils and macrophages

69
Q

what is responsible for development of granulomas and caseous necrosis

A

IFN-gamma production causing phagolysosome formation, inducibile nitric oxide synthase release

70
Q

what is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis and presents with painless hematuria WITHIN 5-7 days of an UPPER RESPIRATORY TRACT INFECTION

A

IgA NEPHROPATHY (BERGER DISEASE)

hematuria lasts for several days and then subsides temporarily, returning every few months or with another upper respiratory infection

mesangial hypercellularity and IgA deposits