Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

neurology FA + STEP 2 > UW 1 > Flashcards

UW 1 Flashcards

1
Q

central cord syndrome - etiology, definition

A

hyper-extension injuries in elderly with pre-existing degenerative changes in cervical spine
- damage in corticospinal tracts and decussating fibers of the lateral spinothalamic –> weakness in upper extremeties, maybe loss of pain and Q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

hypertensive encephalopathy - acute hemorrhage on CT

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MCC of intracerebral hemorrhage in children

A

cerebral AV malforamation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sub hemorrhage - complications

A
  1. rebleeding (1st 24h)
  2. vasospam (after 3 days)
  3. hydrocephalus/ increased ICP
  4. seizures
  5. hyponatremia (SIADH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

sub hemorrhage - treatment

A

angiographic procedure to stabilize anerysm by coilling +/or stenting (endovascular therapy)
2. nimodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

clinical features of corenal abrasion - etiology

A
  1. trauma (eg. fingernails, paws, or foregin bod, wood, glass, paper) lodging under the lid
  2. contact lens
  3. spontaneous (no obvious foregin body or injury)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

clinical features of corneal abrasion - clinical presentation

A
  1. severe eye pain due to trigeminal nerver sensory innervation (excpet in patients with V dysfunction due to tumor, trauma, prior VZV)
  2. possible sensation of foregin body on the eye
  3. photophobia with reluctance to open
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

clinical features of corenal abrashion - evaluation

A
  1. penlight test to document papillary function + inspect for foregin body
  2. visual acuity (referral if decreased)
  3. fluorescein examination after above test to show staining defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

trigeminal neuralgia bilaterally

A

MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

hemorrhagic stroke after ischemic stroke - when

A

within 48h –> emergency head CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

atrophy of lenticular nucleus - disease?

A

wilson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CN III - area of parasympathetic vs motor fibers

A

parasym: out
motor: central

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

craniopharyngioma - age

A

mc children but 50% in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

sellar masses - types

A
  1. benign tumors: pituitary (MC), cranipharyngioma, meningioma, piticytoma (low grade glioma)
  2. malignant:
    - 1ry (germ cell, chordoma, lymphoma,),
    - metastatic (eg. lung, breast)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MS - LP (useful?)

A

only if diagnosis from clinical and MRI is not clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MS exacerbation - plasma exchange?

A

only if does not response to steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

non exertional stroke

A

affects individuals at the extremes of age incapable of obtaining adequate fluids and removing themselves from a hot environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

heat stroke - complications

A

rhabdomyolysis, renal failure, acute resp distress syndrome, DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

idiopathic intracranial HTN - diagnosis

A

MRI +/- MRV

- LP (CSF presure mre than 250)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

RF of stroke (most potent?)

A
  1. stroke (most potent)
  2. hypercholesterolemia
  3. DM
  4. smoking
  5. sedentary lifestyle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Argyl roberston

A

normal react in accommodation but not in light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

neurosyhilis develops more rapidly if / treatmetn

A

HIV (+)

- 10-14 wks penicillin (IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

dellirium - first step

A

focused history, physical evaluation, pulse oxymetry ,review of all medication, CBC, serum electrolytes, urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

thearpy of ischemic stroke

A
  • within 3-45h: alteplase
  • non in antiplatelets: aspirin
  • on aspirin: aspirin + dipyrodamole or clopidogrel
  • with AF: long term anticoagulation
  • with large ACA occlusion within 24 hours of symptom: mechanical thrombectomy (regardless if received alteplase) –> then aspirin
  • with intracranial large artery atheroscleorisis: aspirin + clopidogrel for 90 d –> then aspirin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which antiplatelet can prevent early stroke after a stroke

A

only aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

serious bleeding (eg. intracerebral) due to excess anticoagulation with wafarin - management

A

stop the drug

  • IV vit k
  • prothrombin complex concentrate (fresh frozen plasm for 2nd line)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ototoxicity of aminoglycoside

A

damaging of the cochlear cells and some aminoglycosdes (esp gentamycin) can also damage motion sensitive hair cells in the inner ear to cause selective vsetibular injury (vestibulopathy) without significant ototoxicity
- oscillopsia: sensation of object moving around in the visual field when looking in any direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

cauda equina syndrome vs conus medullaris syndrome

A
  • cauda: bilateral, severe radicular pain, saddle hypo/anesthesia, assymetric motro weakness, hyporeflexia, areflexia, late-onset bowel + bladderdysfunction
  • conus: sudden onset severe back pain, perianal hypo/anesthesia/ symmetric motor weakness, hyperreflexia, early bowel + bladder dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

tick-borne paralysis

A

rapidly progressive ascending paralysis (may be assymetrical), absence of fever sensory abnormalities, normal CSF examination –> ticks must feed 4-7 days and then are typically found on patients after menticulous searching –> removal –> spontaneous improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

levidopa - involuntarily movements

A

as a SE after 10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

TIA vs new MS episode

A

MS lasts for days to weeks

TIA –> less than 24h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

initial treatment of TIA

A

modifying risk factors: aspirin ,statin,control BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

carvenous sinus thrombosis

A

facial/ophthalmic venous system is valveless –> uncontrolled infection of the skin can results in cavernous sinus thrombosis –> severe headache, bilateral periorbital edema, CN 3,4,5,6 defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

amaurosis fumax - description

A

curtain descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Trihexyphenidyl - mechanism of action / clinical use

A

anticholinergic

- treatment of Parkinosn, generaly in tyounger patients where tremor is the 1ry symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

aspirin after alteplase

A

wait 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

lacunar stroke - mechanism

A

due to microatheroma formation feand lipohyalinosis in the small penetrating arteries of the brain –> they only affect the internal capsule and result in pure motor hemiparesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

lacunar stroke - RFs

A

hypertension, hyperlipidema, DM, smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Myasthenia Gravis - women vs men

A

women: 20-30 years old
men: 60-80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Myasthenia gravis - causes of exacerbation

A
  1. infection
    2, surgery esp thymectomy)
  2. pregannta/childbirth
    medications:
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

medications that can cause exacerbation of Myasthenia gravis

A
  1. antibiotics: quinolones, aminoglycosides
  2. anesthetics
  3. cardiac meication (beta blokcets, procainaminde)
  4. otehr: MgSO4, penicillamine
  5. tapering of immunosuppressive medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Myasthenia gravis - diagnosis

A
  1. beside: edrophonium (Tensilon test), ice pack test
  2. Acetylocholine receptor antibodies (higly specific
  3. Ct scan : thymoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Myasthenia gravis - treatment

A
  1. ACEi
  2. immunotherapu
  3. thymectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

brain metastasis - management

A
  • surgical resection is recommended for solitary brain metastasis in patients with a good performance status + stable intracranial disease
  • if multiple bran metastases –> whole brain radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

spastic gait is seen in

A

UMN lesions (ALS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Parkinson - gait

A

hypokinetic gait: general slowing of all motor activity –> stooped posture and walk in series of short, accelerating steps (shuffling gait)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

spinal epidural abscess - epidemiology

A
  • S. aureus (65%)

- inoculating sources (distal infection, spinal procedure, IV drugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

spinal epidural abscess - manifestation

A

classic triad

  1. fever (50%)
  2. focalsevere back pain
  3. Neurologic findings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

essential tremor - 2 other characteristics

A
  • bilateral on hands, usually no legs

- isolated head tremor without dystonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

physiologic tremor

A

low amplitude (10-12 Hz) not visible under normal conditions

  • acute onset with increased sympathetic activity (eg. drugs, hyperthyroidism, anxiety, caffeine)
  • usually worse with movement + can involve the face + extremities
  • postural tremor (eg. outstretched hands)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

aortic valve endocarditis - surgery?

A
  1. significant valvular dysfunction –> HF
  2. persitent or difficult to treat meidically
  3. reccurent septic embolization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

when there is no point for endarterectomy

A
  1. 100% occlusion

2. less than 5 years of life expectancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

DDX of myopathy and CK/ESR

A
  1. Glucocortcoid: both normal
  2. Polymyalgia rheumatica: increased ESR
  3. infl: boh iincreased
  4. statin: increased CK
  5. Hypothyroid: increaesd CK
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

type of alzheimer memory loss

A

ealry insidious short term memory loss, language decificts, spatial disoreientation, later personality changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

torticollis?

A

common form of focal dystonia involving the SCM muscle

-iodiopathic or very often medication related (typical antipsychotics, metoclopramide, prochlorperazine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

heart acceleration after atropine administration in dead pearson

A

no (no vagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

restless leg syndrome - diagnostic criteria

A

urge to move the legs and:

  1. unpleasant sensation in the legs or tother bodyparts (eg. arms) that begin/worsen during inactivity (lying down, sitting)
  2. unpleasant sensation in the legs that are releived by movement and worsen or occur only at evening/night
  3. not explained by other disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

restless legs syndrome - 2ry causes

A
  1. iron def anemia
  2. uremia
  3. DM
  4. MS, Parkinson
  5. Pregnancy
  6. Drugs
59
Q

restless leg syndrome - treatment

A

mild intermittent symptoms: iron, supportive measures (massage etc), avoid aggravating factors (sleeg. sleep deprivation
- persistent/moderate to sever: 1st line is dopamine agonists (pramiperxole), alternate is alpha - 2 delta Ca2+ channel ligants

60
Q

how to confirm diagnosis of parkinson

A

physical examination

2/3: resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia

61
Q

intracerebrral vs sub hemorrhage regarding manifestation

A
  • intracerebral focal symptoms appear early followed by features of increased ICP (vomiting etc), history of un
  • sub: severe headache meningeal irritation, focal deficits uncommon
62
Q

alzheimer - where is the atrophy

A

temporal and parietal lobe atrophy, most prominent in the medial temporal lobes and hippocampus

63
Q

alcoholic cerebellar degeneratio - epidimiology

A

after 10 years of heavy alcohol

- degeneration of Purkinje cells (cerebellar vermis)

64
Q

alcoholic cerebellar degeneration - manifestations

A
  • develops over weeks to months
  • wide based gait
  • in-coordination in legs
  • cognition usually intact
65
Q

alcoholic cerebella degeneration - diagnosis

A

clinical: impaired tandem walking heel-knee-shin BUT PRESERVED FINGER NOSE
- CT/MRI: cerebellar atrophy

66
Q

alcoholic cerebellar degeneration - treatment

A
  • alcohol cessation
  • nutritional supplements
  • ambulatory assistance devices (eg. walker)
67
Q

gait disorders - types

A
  1. cerebellar
  2. gait apraxia (frontal gait
  3. Parkinsonian
  4. Steppage
  5. Vestibular
68
Q

cerebellar gait - description / associated signs / causes

A

description: ataxic, staggering, wide based
- dysdiadochokinesia, dysmetria, nystagmus, Romberg sign
- Cerebellar degeneration, stroke, drug/alcohol intoxication, Vit B12 def

69
Q

gait apraxia (frontal gaint) - description, associated signs, causes

A

magnetic (freezing): start + turtn hesitation

  • demential incontinence, frontal lobe signs
    causes: frontal lobe degeneration, normal pressure hydrocephalus
70
Q

parkisonian - description, associated, causes

A
  • short steps, shuffling
  • bradykinesia, resting tremor, postural instability, decreased arm swing
  • Parkison
71
Q

steppage - description, associated, causes

A
  • Footdrop, excessive hip + knee flexion while walking, slapping quality, falls
  • distal sensory + weakness
  • motor nephropathy
72
Q

vestibular - description, associated, causes

A
  • unsteady, falling to one side
  • normal sensation, reflexes + motor strength, nausea, vertigo
    • acute labyrinthitis, Meniere
73
Q

intracerebelar hemor - characteristics

A

history of uncontrolled hypertensionm coagulopathy, ilicit drugs

  • symptomes progress over mins to hours
  • focal neurologic symptoms appear ealy, followed by featrues of increased intracranial pressure (eg. vomiting, headache …)
74
Q

spontaneous sub hemorrhage - characteristics

A

bleeding from arterial saccular (berry) or AV malformation

  • severe headache at onset
  • menningeal irritation
  • focal deficits are uncommon
75
Q

Cancer pain management

A
  1. mild –> nonopioids (acetaminophen, NSAID)
  2. moderate –> weak opioid +/- nonopioids (codeine, hydrocodone, tramadol
  3. severe –> short acting opioids (morphine, hydromorphine) –> calculate total daily dose and convert it to long acting formulation (fentanyl patch, oxycodone) plus short acting opiods for breakthrough pain
76
Q

other than campylobacter organisms that are associated with Guillain barre

A

HSV, Mycoplasma, Hemophilus infl

77
Q

Wernicke encephalopathy - associated conditions

A
  1. chronic alcoholism (MC)
  2. malnutrition (anorexia nervosa)
  3. hyperemesis gravidarum
78
Q

wernicke encephalopathy - clinical features

A
  1. encephalopathy
  2. oculomotor dysfunction (eg. horizontal, nystagmus, bilateral abducens palsy)
  3. postural + gait ataxia
79
Q

wernicke encephalopathy - treatment

A

IV thiamine followed by glucose infusion

80
Q

positive antibodies againste aChe receptor - next step

A

chest CT

81
Q

exertional heat stroke - RF

A
  1. strenuous activity durin hot + humid weather
  2. dehydration
  3. poor acclimatization
  4. lack of physical fitnesss
  5. obesity
  6. medications: anticholinergics, antihistamines, phenothiazines, tricyiclics
82
Q

exertional heat stroke - clinical manifestation

A

core Q more than 40 immediately after collapse AND

  • CNS dysfunction
  • additional organ or tissue damage
83
Q

exertional heat stroke - management

A
  1. rapid cooling: ice immersion preferred, can consider high flow cool water dousing, ice/wet rotation, evaporateive cooling
  2. fluid resuscitation
  3. electrolyte corrction
  4. management of end organ complications
  5. no role of antipyretic therapy
84
Q

foodborne botulism - pathogenesis

A

C. botiulinum toxin inhibirs presenaptic Ace release at NMJ

85
Q

foodborne botulism - sources

A

improperly canned foods (fruits, vegetables

- aged seafood (cured fish

86
Q

foodborne botulism - manifestation

A

acute onset within 36h of ingestion

  • bilateral cranial neuropathies: Blurred visision, diplopia, facial weakness, dysarthria, dysphagia
  • symmetric descending muscle weakness
  • diaphragmatic weaknes with resp failure
87
Q

foodborne botulism - treament

A

equine serum heptavalent botulinum antitoxin

88
Q

foodborne botulism - diagnosis

A

serum analyssis for toxin

89
Q

CSF - WBC count in normal, bacterial meningitis, TB, viral, guillain barre

A

normal: 0-5
bacterial: more than 1000
TB: 100-500
viral: 10-5000
guillain barre: 0-5

90
Q

CSF - GLUCOSE count in normal, bacterial meningitis, TB, viral, guillain barre

A

normal: 40-70
bacterial: less 40
TB: less 45
viral: 40-70
guillain barre: 40-70

91
Q

CSF - PROTEIN count in normal, bacterial meningitis, TB, viral, guillain barre

A

normal: under 40
bacterial: more than 250
TB: 100-500
viral: less than 150
guillain barre: 45-1000

92
Q

myasthenic crisis - precipitating factors

A
  • infection or surgery
  • pregnancy or childbirth
  • tapering immunosuppresive drigs
  • medication
93
Q

myasthenic crisis - signs/symptoms

A

elevated generalized + oropharyngeal weakness

- resp insufficiency/dyspnea

94
Q

myasthenic crisis treatment

A

intubation for deteriorating resp status

  • plasmapheresis or IVIG, + corticosteroids
  • maybe hold temporarily ACEi to reduce airway secretions and the risk of aspiration
95
Q

….. are useful for treating acute agitation in elderly patients with dementia

A

typical and atypical antipsychotics

96
Q

stiff person syndrome

A

rare autoimmune disorder

  • rigidity, stiffness, muscle spasms involving the axial muscles
  • autonomic instability can also occur
  • normal mental status
97
Q

Type A vs type B adverse effect reaction

A

Type A: dose-dependent

Type B: unexpected, dose-independent

98
Q

broca vs wewernicke vs conduction regarding associated features

A

broca –> right hemiparesis (face + upper limb)
wernicke –> right superior visual field defect
conduction: none

99
Q

suspicion of dementia - next step

A

neurocognitive testing –> next –> lab tests

100
Q

brain abscess - micriobiology

A
  1. S. aureus
  2. Viridans strep
  3. anaerobes
101
Q

which patient are at increased ris for heart embolic strokes

A

AF PLUS existing structural heart disease

102
Q

Common causes of vertigo

A
  1. Meniere
  2. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
  3. Vestibular neuritis
  4. Migraine
  5. Brainstem / cerebellar stroke
103
Q

vestibular neuritis - characteristics

A

acute single episode that can lasts days

  • often follows viral syndrome
  • abnormal head thrust test
104
Q

benighn paroxysmal positionalvertigo - diagnostic vs treatment maneuvers

A

diagnosis: Dix-Hallpike
treatment: Epley

105
Q

Uhthoff phenomenon

A

symptoms of MS may worsen during exposure to high Q

106
Q

nystagmus - lesion in lateral or medial cerebellum

A

medial

107
Q

broad gait - lesion in lateral or medial cerebellum

A

medial

108
Q

postoconcussive syndrome?

A

traumatic brain injury of any severity can lead to (few hours to days later) it

  • headache, confusion, amnesia, low concentration, vertigo, mood alternation, low quality of sleep, anxiety
  • resolve in weeks to months
  • maybe persistent for more than 65 months
109
Q

initial diagnostic workup of a 1st time seizure in an adult should include

A

basic blood tests (electrolytes, glucose, Ca2+, Mg2+, CBC) RENAL + LIVER), AND A TOXICOLOGY SCREEN –> IF UNPROVOKED –> FURTHER EVALUATION WITH NEUROIMAGING AND eeg

110
Q

CT after a seizure - contrast or not

A

not

111
Q

pronator drift

A

relative sensitive and specific sign for UMN or pyramidal tract disease affecting the upper extremities
- performed by the patient having outstretched the arms with the palms up and eyes closed –> the affected arm drifts downward and the palms pronates

112
Q

types of infarct in the posterior limb of internal capsule

A

lacunar infract

113
Q

clinical presentation with infract in the posterior limb of internal capsule

A

UNILATERAL motor impairment

  • no sensory or cortical deficits
  • no visual anomalies
114
Q

urinary incontinence - infract

A

anterior cereb artery

115
Q

another finding in idiopathic intracranial HTN

A

empty sella (in 70%)

116
Q

acute angle glaucoma - complications

A

if untreated can develop permanent vision loss within 2-5h of symptom onset

117
Q

eldery patients with frequent fall - think of

A

chronic subdural

118
Q

lacunar infarct - manifestation

A
  • absence of cortical signs (aphasia, agnosia, neglect, apraxia, hemianopia, seizure, or mental status change
  • common syndromes: pure motor hemiparesis (most frequent), pure sensory, ataxic, dysarthria-clumsy hand
119
Q

chemi-induced periphearal neuropathy

A
  • symmetric distal sensory neuropathy that spreads in stocking-glove pattern
  • early loss of ankle jerk reflexes, loss of pain and Q
  • occasionally motor
120
Q

multiple system atrophy

A
  1. Parkinsonism
  2. orthostatic hypotension, impotence, incontincence or other autonomic symptoms
  3. widespread neurological signs
    antiparkinsonism drugs are ineffective
    - treat with fluids, fludrocortisone, salts, a1 agonists,
121
Q

Riley day syndrome or familiar dysautonomia

A

gross dysfunction of the autonomic nervous system with severe orthostatic hypotension. Also

122
Q

symptoms of sever hypokalemia

A

flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, tetanym rhabdomyolysis, arrhythmia

123
Q

cauda equina vs conus medullaris - bowel + bladder dysfunction

A

late in cauda

- early in conus

124
Q

cauda equina vs conus medullaris - symmetric?

A

cauda: asymmetric
conus: symmetric

125
Q

cauda equina vs conus medullaris - hypo/anesthesia?

A

cauda: saddle
conus: perianal

126
Q

acute neuritis epidemiology

A
  1. 1ry in young women
  2. MS
  3. immune mediated demyelination
127
Q

optic neuritis - manifestations

A
  • acute, peaks at 2 wks
  • monocular vision loss
  • eye pain with movement
  • washed out color vision
  • afferent pupillary dfect
128
Q

optic neuritis - diagnosis

A

MRI of the orbits + brain

129
Q

optic neuritis - treatment

A

IV steroids

- 35% of cases recur

130
Q

NSAID resistant pain in a previeous heroin addict

A

give IV morphine and close observation

131
Q

neurologic findings of haemorrhage on basal ganglia

A
  • contralateral hemiparesis + hemisensory lsss
  • homonymus hemianopsia
  • gaze palsy
132
Q

neurologic findings of haemorrhage on cerebellum

A
  • NO hemiparesis
  • facial weakness
  • ataxia + nystagus
  • occipital headache + neck stiffness
133
Q

neurologic findings of haemorrhage on cerebral lobe

A

contralateral hemiparesis + hemisensrory loss

  • nonreactive miotic pupils
  • upgaze palsy
  • EYE deviate Torward hemiparesisis
134
Q

neurologic findings of haemorrhage on pons

A

deep coma + total paralysis wihin minuts, pinpoint reactive pupils

135
Q

neurologic findings of haemorrhage on thalamus

A
  • contralateral hemiparesis + hemisensrory loss
  • nonreacive miotic pupils
  • upgaze palsy
  • eye deviated TORWARD hemiparesis
136
Q

Alzheimer vs frontotemporal

A

In Alzheimer, the personality changes are a late finding

137
Q

Parkinson drugs that cause hallucinations

A
  1. Levodopa
  2. Entacapome
  3. Tolcapone
138
Q

Seizures - danger of permanent damage after …. minutes

A

5

139
Q

Retnal venous thrombosis can progress to

A

Ischemic form (painful)

140
Q

Presbicusis also has

A

Tinnitus

141
Q

Anterior cord syndrome

A

Motor, Q, pain

142
Q

Brain abscess in neuro imaging

A

Uniform contrast enhancement

143
Q

Bublar symptoms is a sign of

A

UMN

144
Q

First step to avoid cluster headaches

A

Avoid precipitant factors (alcohol, physical exam)

neurology FA + STEP 2 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions