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Use Of Force Flashcards

1
Q

What is the policy of the Las Vegas Metropolitan Police Department regarding the use of force?

A

Officers hold the highest regard for the dignity and liberty of all persons and place minimal reliance upon the use of force.

The department respects the sanctity of every human life, and deadly force is to be employed only in extreme circumstances.

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2
Q

Define de-escalation in the context of police use of force.

A

An officer’s actions to slow down, stabilize, and resolve an incident as safely as possible by reducing danger through verbal persuasion and tactics.

De-escalation aims to mitigate the use of force by addressing the situation calmly.

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3
Q

What is meant by ‘imminent threat’?

A

An impending violent act, harm, or resistance that will likely occur if not instantly confronted or addressed.

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4
Q

What are the levels of control in the Use of Force Model?

A
  • Low-level force
  • Intermediate force
  • Deadly force
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5
Q

What does ‘objectively reasonable’ refer to in the context of police use of force?

A

An objective standard of force viewed from the perspective of a reasonable officer, based on the totality of the circumstances.

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6
Q

What is the recovery position?

A

The placement of a subject’s body in a manner that does not restrict breathing or obstruct the airway.

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7
Q

What constitutes substantial bodily injury?

A

An injury that creates a substantial risk of death, causes serious permanent disfigurement, or results in prolonged loss or impairment of any body part.

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8
Q

Under what circumstances may officers use deadly force?

A
  • Protect themselves or others from imminent threat of death or substantial bodily injury
  • Prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who poses an imminent threat to human life
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9
Q

True or False: Officers are required to give a warning before using deadly force if feasible.

A

True

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10
Q

What must officers balance when determining the appropriateness of force?

A

The level of force used must balance against the level of resistance exhibited by the subject.

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11
Q

What is the significance of the Graham v. Connor (1989) standard?

A

It establishes the constitutional standard for the use of force by police, focusing on the reasonableness of the officer’s actions based on the circumstances.

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12
Q

What are some objective factors that affect the reasonableness of force?

(Graham V Conor, + additional 5)

A
  • Severity of the crime
  • Immediate threat to safety
  • Active resistance or flight
  • Influence of drugs/alcohol
  • Time available to make a decision
  • Availability of resources
  • Proximity of weapons
  • Environmental factors
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13
Q

What is the duty to intervene?

A

Any officer observing another using unreasonable force must intercede to prevent it and report the observation.

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14
Q

What should an officer do if they apply a use of force option that results in observable signs of injury?

A

Continuously monitor the subject and immediately summon medical attention.

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15
Q

Fill in the blank: The department will not retaliate against an employee who intervenes to stop unjustified use of _______.

A

force

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16
Q

What are the levels of resistance in police encounters?

A
  • Compliant
  • Obstructive
  • Active resistance
  • Aggressive
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17
Q

What should officers consider when developing a tactical plan prior to arriving at a scene?

A

Gather information, assess risks, assemble resources, and attempt to slow momentum.

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18
Q

What is the role of supervisors in managing officer responses to potentially violent encounters?

A

Supervisors ensure officers perform to a standard, coordinate tactical actions, and provide clear direction.

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19
Q

What actions should officers take when using force with a vehicle?

A
  • Precision intervention technique (PIT)
  • Ramming
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20
Q

What must be documented by the reporting officer after a use of force incident?

A
  • Date, time, and location
  • Identity and description of participants
  • Actions taken as a result of the observation
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21
Q

What is the protocol for monitoring a subject after the application of force?

A

Monitor for signs of life and provide updates to medical personnel.

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22
Q

What is the best course of action for a subject who has been subjected to a use of force application if medical is taking too long?

A

Transport to the nearest medical facility if necessary.

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23
Q

What are the general categories of behavior exhibited by a subject during a police encounter?

A

Compliant, Obstructive, Assaultive, Life-Threatening

These categories help officers assess the level of resistance and determine appropriate response tactics.

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24
Q

Define ‘Compliant’ in the context of police encounters.

A

A person who acknowledges direction or lawful orders given and offers no resistance.

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25
What does 'Obstructive' behavior indicate during a police encounter?
The subject is uncooperative and not complying with an officer’s commands, with actions intended to prevent custody.
26
Give an example of 'Obstructive' behavior.
Standing stationary upon lawful direction, becoming 'dead weight', or holding onto a fixed object.
27
What defines 'Assaultive' behavior?
The subject demonstrates intent to harm the officer, others, or themselves.
28
What actions are considered 'Life-Threatening'?
Imminent use of a firearm, blunt, or bladed weapon, and extreme physical force.
29
What are the levels of control in police response?
Low Level Force, Intermediate Force, Deadly Force ## Footnote Each level corresponds to the intensity of the response required based on the subject's behavior.
30
What constitutes 'Low Level Force'?
Handcuffing a compliant arrestee or proning a subject out on a high-risk vehicle stop.
31
List some techniques included in 'Low Level Force'.
* Officer presence * Verbal communication * Empty hand tactics * Handcuffs/Hobbles/DSD specialty restraints
32
What defines 'Intermediate Force'?
A level of control that balances against a subject who is assaultive and has potential to cause injury.
33
What techniques are included in 'Intermediate Force'?
* Empty hand tactics (strikes, kicks) * DSD specialty restraint devices * Baton/Impact tools * Oleoresin capsicum (OC) spray * Electronic control device (ECD)
34
What does 'Deadly Force' refer to?
A degree of force used against a subject whose actions are life-threatening and likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury.
35
What are the elements required for the use of deadly force?
* Ability * Opportunity * Imminent Jeopardy * Preclusion
36
Define 'Ability' in the context of deadly force.
Exists when a person has the means to cause substantial bodily injury or death.
37
What does 'Opportunity' refer to?
When a person is in a position to effectively resist an officer’s control or to use force.
38
What is 'Imminent Jeopardy'?
The officer's reasonable belief that the subject poses an imminent threat to life.
39
What is the 'Preclusion' element?
Lesser alternatives have been reasonably considered and exhausted before using deadly force.
40
What are the general rules regarding the use of force tools and techniques?
Only department-approved weapons and trained techniques will be used.
41
What is the purpose of presence and verbal communication during police encounters?
To effectively de-escalate situations and reduce the need to use force.
42
What are 'Empty Hand Tactics' in police control?
Physical restraint, hand control, and takedowns that are not likely to cause injury.
43
What is the approved use for handcuffs?
To minimize the risk of injury to officers and others.
44
What is the protocol for using Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) spray?
OC spray is a non-lethal agent used as an intermediate force, causing inflammation.
45
What is an Electronic Control Device (ECD)?
A weapon that disrupts the body's ability to communicate messages from the brain to muscles.
46
What actions should an officer take with an ECD before a shift?
Conduct a spark check to ensure the ECD will function properly.
47
Fill in the blank: Officers will not use _______ against a person based solely on the threat they pose to themselves.
deadly force
48
True or False: Chokeholds are permitted during police encounters.
False
49
What must officers conduct at the beginning of their shift to ensure the ECD functions properly?
A spark check ## Footnote This check must be done outside the public view and does not require a Use of Force Report.
50
What is the policy regarding the use of an ECD on a handcuffed person?
The ECD will not be used on a handcuffed person.
51
When is the use of an ECD prohibited?
The ECD will not be used: * On a handcuffed person * When the subject has contact with flammable substances * On a fleeing subject without other factors * On persons with known heart conditions.
52
What should officers do after deploying an ECD?
Use the standard ECD five second cycle and evaluate the need for another cycle after giving the subject an opportunity to comply.
53
What is the preferred target area when deploying an ECD?
The lower center mass ## Footnote Avoid targeting the head, neck, groin, and chest.
54
What level of control is used when a patrol dog is on a leash?
Low Level Force.
55
Under what circumstances can a canine bite be approved?
When there is probable cause to believe a subject has committed a violent or felony crime, or is a threat to themselves or others.
56
What must canine handlers do during a critical incident?
Make contact with the supervisor on scene or incident commander to discuss tactical deployment options.
57
What is the definition of 'blocking' in police terms?
The positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle to prevent an avenue of escape.
58
What is the purpose of the precision intervention technique (PIT)?
To cause a fleeing vehicle to come to an abrupt stop, rendering it immobile.
59
What is required before initiating a PIT?
Officers must use their emergency equipment and give the operator of the subject vehicle a reasonable opportunity to stop.
60
What must be reported when a patrol dog injures someone?
Handlers must notify a supervisor and advise Dispatch when a person has been injured by a patrol dog.
61
What is the level of control when using a low lethality shotgun at a distance of seven yards or greater?
Intermediate Force.
62
What is a key requirement for deploying projectile weapons?
When time permits, two officers should be present for deployment.
63
What is the approved use for projectile weapons?
Against persons who are armed or pose an imminent threat to safety.
64
What areas should be avoided when targeting with projectile weapons?
The head, neck, spine, pelvis, or any vital area.
65
What is the definition of 'directed rifle patrol'?
Open carry/overt carry deployment where the rifle remains in the cruiser ready condition.
66
What is the policy on discharging firearms as warning shots?
Officers are not authorized to discharge a firearm as warning shots.
67
Under what circumstances can officers discharge a firearm at a moving vehicle?
When a person in the vehicle is an imminent deadly threat to officers or others.
68
What must officers do when they perceive a deadly threat is no longer present?
Cease fire.
69
What is the maximum effective target area for officers when using firearms?
Center mass.
70
What is the consequence of missing an intended target with a firearm?
It poses the greatest risk to citizens and officers.
71
What is the policy regarding officers discharging a firearm from a moving vehicle?
Officers will not discharge a firearm from a moving vehicle unless a person is an imminent deadly threat to officers or others.
72
What factors should officers consider when deciding to draw or exhibit a firearm?
The tactical situation at hand and articulable factors that a risk may exist to the welfare of a person or an officer.
73
What are the consequences of unnecessarily drawing or exhibiting a firearm?
It may limit an officer’s alternatives, create unnecessary anxiety among citizens, and result in an unwarranted or negligent discharge.
74
Under what circumstances may an officer place a firearm against a person?
Only if the person is an imminent threat of death or substantial bodily injury and exigent circumstances prevent withdrawal.
75
What is required before an officer can humanely euthanize an injured or dangerous animal?
Attempts must be made to request assistance from the appropriate agency and the animal's owner must be present and refuse transport.
76
What conditions allow for the deployment of a rifle by an officer?
* Potential for deadly force * Subject armed with a deadly weapon * Distance and use of cover * Suspect is barricaded * Deployment has been pre-approved
77
Who must authorize directed rifle patrol during special events?
The Events Planning lieutenant or a captain assigned as the incident commander.
78
What is the responsibility of SPR officers during events?
Observing crowds, identifying criminal behavior, and broadcasting this information via the radio.
79
What must an officer do when deploying a rifle?
Announce via radio the deployment and whether accompanied by a cover officer, and receive acknowledgment from Dispatch.
80
What is a reportable force incident?
Any use of force which results in injury, complaint of injury, or any use of force greater than low-level force.
81
What is the definition of 'officer involved shooting'?
An officer's discharge of a firearm at a person, with or without physical injury.
82
What is the purpose of the Public Safety Statement (PSS)?
To obtain information to determine if there is an immediate threat to public safety.
83
Fill in the blank: A Use of Force Report is required for any use of force that results in _______.
injury or complaint of injury.
84
What actions must an officer take immediately after a discharge of a firearm?
Ensure life safety, secure the scene, and notify Dispatch.
85
What should a supervisor do when reportable force is used?
Respond immediately to the incident and determine the level of force used.
86
Who is responsible for investigating non-deadly force requiring a Use of Force Report?
The officer’s chain of command.
87
What must be documented in a Use of Force Report?
The level of force, tool or tactic used, effectiveness, and the eight 'objectively reasonable' force factors.
88
What is the vehicle containment technique (VCT)?
A reportable use of force requiring a Use of Force Report.
89
What should officers do with ECD probes after use?
Handle them like contaminated needles and impound as evidence.
90
What is required for the review of body worn camera video?
Refer to LVMPD 7.136, Body Worn Cameras.
91
What is the role of the Critical Incident Review Team (CIRT)?
To complete Use of Force Reports on officer-involved shootings or use of deadly force incidents.
92
True or False: A Use of Force Report must be completed by the end of the shift.
True.
93
What happens if a use of force is determined to be inappropriate?
It will be sent through the chain of command to decide if a Statement of Complaint (SOC) is necessary.
94
What must a lieutenant do after reviewing a supervisor's investigation?
Complete the Use of Force Administrative Review and ensure accuracy and completeness.
95
What is the role of the officer until the firearms countdown is completed?
Remain on scene, and do not leave until released by the FIT supervisor.
96
What is the purpose of the Public Safety Statement (PSS)?
To obtain information to determine if an immediate threat to public safety exists.
97
Who should be present during the PSS?
Only the shooting officer and a supervisor.
98
What should a supervisor do if involved in an officer-involved shooting?
The senior officer on scene will conduct the PSS.
99
Fill in the blank: The PSS must be taken in a ______ manner.
timely
100
What should be done if multiple officers are involved in a shooting?
The PSS should be done separately with each officer.
101
What are some key questions included in the PSS?
* Did you discharge your firearm? * Is anyone injured? * Are there any outstanding suspects?
102
Who responds immediately to the scene of the use of deadly force?
The watch commander.
103
What is the role of the incident commander during a police shooting incident?
Ensure all subject and witness officers are identified and separated.
104
What does the FIT stand for?
Force Investigation Team
105
What are the FIT Response Criteria?
* Any use of deadly force * In-custody death * Significant violent crime involving department members
106
What does CIRT stand for?
Critical Incident Review Team
107
What is the purpose of the CIRT?
To conduct non-criminal, administrative examinations of deadly force.
108
True or False: CIRT can investigate the intentional discharge of a firearm on duty.
True
109
What is the initial briefing's purpose?
To provide a secure operational location for discussing the incident.
110
Who conducts the initial briefing?
Patrol detective or on-scene supervisor.
111
What must be documented during the scene walkthrough?
Physical evidence and officer locations at the time deadly force was used.
112
What must be done with the subject officer's equipment during the investigation?
Photographed in place to show location, presence, and condition.
113
Fill in the blank: The FIT will conduct a voluntary interview with the officer ______ hours after the incident.
48
114
What are PEAP personnel responsible for?
Arranging psychological counseling of subject officers.
115
What must happen if a suspect is transported for emergency medical treatment?
An officer will accompany the subject to the hospital.
116
Who prepares the formal media release after an incident?
FIT lieutenant in coordination with the Sheriff/Undersheriff and PIO.
117
What is the Use of Force Policy Committee's responsibility?
Review the Use of Force Policy annually.
118
True or False: The identity of officers involved in deadly force incidents will be released to the public immediately.
False
119
When may officers use force?
1. Protect themselves/others 2. Overcome resistance 3. To effect a lawful detention 4. To effect a lawful arrest 5. Conduct a lawful search

Sgt Test (34 decks)

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