USAPAT SOP

Question 1

When requirements
are not clear in the SOP, what should be done?

Answer 1

Use the most conservative approach until guidance is attained from Standardization and Command.

Question 2

How are recommended changes processed for the USAPAT SOP?

Answer 2

Recommended changes to this SOP will be forwarded through the unit Standardization Officer to the unit Commander for review, then to USAPAT Standards for consolidation and to the USAPAT Commander for approval.

Question 3

How often is the USAPAT SOP assessed?

Answer 3

At a minimum, the SOP will be assessed annually to ensure it remains relevant with evolving doctrine and the unit’s current operations.

Question 4

Who is the 30-day extension authority?

Answer 4

The ATP Commander.

Question 5

Who is the ATP individual waiver authority?

Answer 5

The ATP individual waiver authority is the BDE Commander.

Question 6

Who is the ATP unit waiver authority?

Answer 6

The ATP unit waiver authority is the CG, MDW IAW AR 95-1.

Question 7

Who is the individual waiver authority for the Pilot in Command requirements?

Answer 7

The individual waiver authority for PC for
Commanders, and Warrant Officers with Skill Qualification Identifiers will be IAW AR 95-1.

Question 8

ACMs will ensure they are current (green) on the Digital AIRF prior to what?

Answer 8

Every flight

Question 9

Newly assigned ACMs shall read all
material in the AIRF and mark themselves green on the Digital AIRF prior to advancement to _____.

Answer 9

RL2

Question 10

What are your flying hour requirements as a FAC 2 aviator with USAPAT?

Answer 10

Primary Aircraft: 30 hours semi-annually
Additional aircraft: 15 hours semi-annually
Night hours: 4 hours semi-annually, 2 in their primary aircraft
Weather/Hood hour requirements: 4 hours semi-annually.

Question 11

How many days can elapse before a pilot is considered uncurrent and needs a PFE with an IP or SP?

Answer 11

60

Question 12

Crewmember will not exceed _____ consecutive months without having completed ACT sustainment training.

Answer 12

15

Question 13

If Inadvertent IMC is encountered, the PC will ensure:

Answer 13

(1) The aircraft is climbed to and flown at an altitude at or above the MSA.
(2) Special use airspace is avoided.
(3) Contact with ATC is made and an IFR clearance is obtained

Question 14

In the event that USAPAT aircraft cannot recover to Joint Base Andrews (KADW) the following airports will be
used as USAPAT’s primary alternates:

Answer 14

(1) Baltimore/Washington International (KBWI)
(2) Washington Dulles International (KIAD)
(3) Richmond International (KRIC)
(4) Harrisburg International (KMDT)

Question 15

When are crew required to get re-briefed by a
MBO and the FMAA.

Answer 15

If the overall risk changes

Question 16

What is the local flying area for USAPAT?

Answer 16

within the contiguous continental United States

Question 17

Emergency procedure training (EPT) executed to the ground will only be accomplished at an airfield/airport with:

Answer 17

ATC communications to the ground and with an active fire rescue.

Question 18

ACMs flight duties are not authorized if hypobaric refresher training has not been completed within ____ years, unless they have an approved extension or a waiver prior to the expiration date.

Answer 18

5

Question 19

When are life rafts required in the aircraft?

Answer 19

Life rafts sufficient for all persons on
board are required during flights made more than 30 minutes flying time or 100 NM from the nearest shoreline.

Question 20

When does the duty day start?

Answer 20

Crew duty starts upon reaching the duty location (e.g., FBO, flight planning room, or base operations) where the aircraft is located.

Question 21

What is considered duty day?

Answer 21

A maximum of 17 hours. This includes 2 hours for preflight, 14 hours of block time, and 1 hour
for post-flight.

Question 22

Extensions and down time reduction approval limits are:

Answer 22

(a) 1 hour – USAPAT Commander
(b) 2 hours – TAAB Commander
(c) >2 hours – MDW Commander

Question 23

What are the reserve fuel requirements at USAPAT?

Answer 23

(1) UC-35: 1200 lbs.
(2) C-37: 4000 lbs.

Question 24

When is a takeoff alternate required?

Answer 24

A takeoff alternate within 300 NM is required when, at the time of departure, the departure
airfield weather is below the landing minimums for the approach to be flown.

Question 25

What is the minimum runway length?

Answer 25

Minimum Take Off Distance Available (TODA) and Landing Distance Available (LDA)
distance required is 5,000 feet unless a greater runway length is required by aircraft performance.

Question 26

UC-35 Minimum width requirements are as follows:

Answer 26

(a) Runway: 75 feet.
(b) Taxiway: 25 feet.
(c) Minimum for 180-degree turn: 70 feet.
(d) For 90-degree turns to/from a surface less than 35 feet, but no less than 25 feet, the other surface will be a minimum width of 45 feet. Offset to the larger surface to keep on pavement.

Question 27

During the dispatch and planning phase of flight, USAPAT aircrews will compute and
utilize landing data using a factored setting of ____ for dry runways and ____ for wet or contaminated runways.

Answer 27

During the dispatch and planning phase of flight, USAPAT aircrews will compute and
utilize landing data using a factored setting of 1.67 for dry runways and 1.92 for wet or contaminated runways.

Question 28

For UC-35 aircraft, only those performance charts that _____________________________ in the consideration of wet/contaminated runway performance will be used in determining required runway length.

Answer 28

do not utilize thrust reversers

Question 29

Crosswinds on Contaminated Runways.

Attempted takeoff from or landing to a contaminated runway is ____________ when the actual or forecast crosswind component exceeds the ____________, when using the USAPAT RCAM.

Answer 29

Attempted takeoff from or landing to a contaminated runway is PROHIBITED when the actual or forecast crosswind component exceeds the CRFI VALUE, when using the USAPAT RCAM.

Question 30

Crosswinds on Contaminated Runways.

If forecast CRFI value is within _______ of recommended minimum CRFI value, an ___________________ is required.

Answer 30

If forecast CRFI value is within 0.15 of recommended minimum CRFI value, an alternate airfield is required.

Question 31

Can USAPAT aircraft accept LAHSO?

Answer 31

USAPAT aircrews will not conduct LAHSO and must decline LAHSO clearances per TC 3-04.5 because of safety concerns.

Question 32

During the “Before Takeoff” check, crews shall conduct a takeoff briefing.

Answer 32

(a) Clearance – Departure Procedure / First Waypoint (Diverse Departure) / Radar Vectors / Mode of Navigation used on departure.
(b) Runway/Route.
(c) Altitude.
(d) Departure Frequency (set in the standby).
(e) Transponder Code.

Question 33

What is the 1-1-1 check?

Answer 33

MFD set to Terrain or Weather Radar and TCAS turned on and in “above” setting.
(ii) FMS1 set to NAV. FMS2 set to PERF.
(iii) Guard selected on Radio 1 and confirm ATC transponder.

Question 34

Are zero-degree approach landings permitted?

Answer 34

Zero-degree flap approaches in the UC-35 and zero or 10-degree approaches in C-37 aircraft will be made to a low approach only. Touchdown is prohibited during training in these configurations.

Question 35

Are partial-flap landings authorized?

Answer 35

Partial flap landings are authorized at flaps 15 degrees in the UC-35 or at 20 degrees in the C-37. Partial flap landings should be made to a touch and go. Be conservative on runway requirements due to the higher approach
speeds and increased stopping required in the event of an aborted touch and go.