UC-35 ATM Flashcards

1
Q

If _____ days have elapsed since the last flight as Pilot or Pilot in Command in the UC-35, the aviator will be administered a proficiency flight evaluation (PFE) for currency in the aircraft by an IP or SP.

A

If 60 days have elapsed since the last flight as Pilot or Pilot in Command in the UC-35, the aviator will be administered a proficiency flight evaluation (PFE) for currency in the aircraft by an IP or SP.

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2
Q

Initial simulator training WILL occur within ____ months of aircraft qualification.

A

Initial simulator training will occur within 12 months of aircraft qualification.

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3
Q

Once the initial 12 month simulator training has been completed, crewmembers will complete recurrent flight simulator training on a ___________ month cycle.

A

Once the initial 12 month simulator training has been completed, crewmembers will complete recurrent flight simulator training on a 12 to 18 month cycle.

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4
Q

Who is responsible for the following:

(1) Radio communications.
(2) Change NAVAID and communications radio frequencies.
(3) Change transponder codes.
(4) Copy clearances, ATIS, and other information.
(5) Read and complete checklist items as required.
(6) Set switches and operate systems as required.
(7) Note and record takeoff times.
(8) Operate the FMS/ navigational system at the direction of the PF.
(9) Change the aircraft configuration at the direction of the PF, such as:
(a) Power settings.
(b) Flap selection/speed brakes.
(c) Operating the gear handle.
(10) Operate the weather avoidance equipment.
(11) Set altitude on the altitude pre-selector.
(12) Set V-speeds on MFD.
(a) Set charted take-off speeds (V1, VR, V2) and/or landing speeds (VREF, VAPP) appropriate to
the phase of flight per the checklist and AFM.
(b) For departures, either the take-off speeds or landing speeds may be displayed on the MFD
as directed by the PIC.

A

Pilot Not Flying

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5
Q

Who is responsible for the management of the throttle?

A

The PF does not relinquish control of the power levers to the PNF. The PNF is limited to assisting the PF by setting and maintaining the take-off power as directed. During take-off roll, if there is a need to abort the takeoff, the PF will retard the throttles.

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6
Q

What is a sterile cockpit?

A

“only that conversation required for safe aircraft operation”

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7
Q

When shall a sterile cockpit exist?

A

a. From the start of taxi through the climb to 10,000 ft, or the en route altitude for phase of flight when cruise altitude is less than 10,000 ft mean sea level (MSL).

b. During the descent from 10,000 ft or the en route altitude for phase of flight, into the terminal area for
the approach and landing, then through engine shutdown.

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8
Q

Descents greater than _____ FPM will be announced and acknowledged.

A

Descents greater than 3000 FPM will be announced and acknowledged.

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9
Q

The following approach deviations will be called out by the PNF. The PF will verbally acknowledge and respond with corrective action.

A

(1) Greater than one dot deviation on a Localizer, VOR, TACAN, or GPS approach.

(2) Greater than one dot deviation on a glideslope.

(3) Greater than five degrees (5°) deviations on a NDB approach.

(4) Airspeed ±10 knots from approach speed. Rate of descent greater than 1000 FPM.

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10
Q

Does Task 1264, Perform
RNAV Approach, satisfy the Precision Approach requirement when flown to an LPV or
LNAV/VNAV DA/DH?

A

Yes

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11
Q

Who has overall responsibility for the crew briefing?

A

The PC

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12
Q

What is Equal Time Point (ETP)?

A

A point computed between the departure airfield and the destination airfield along the
route based on:

(a) An engine failure at the most critical point en route.

(b) A descent to the highest altitude permissible based on the aircraft gross weight at the
ETP.

(c) A continuation at this altitude at optimum single engine cruise.

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13
Q

What is Point of Safe Return (PSR)?

A

The furthest point along the route of flight to which an aircraft can fly and still return
safely to the point of departure with the planned fuel reserve.

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14
Q

What is Point of No Return (PNR)?

A

The last point along the flight path to where an aircraft can fly and return to the point of
departure and land with no fuel remaining.

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15
Q

In reference to the TOLD Card, pressure altitudes should normally be rounded to the next higher ________ ft PA?

A

When referencing charted information, pressure altitudes should normally be rounded to the next higher 500 ft PA

(example 1800 ft PA rounded to 2000 ft PA).

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16
Q

Takeoff field lengths may only be averaged if what is true?

A

Takeoff field lengths may only be averaged if V1 speeds are the same.

17
Q

True or False: Tailwind component must be computed and applied for all TOLD calculations.

A

True

18
Q

If the available runway length is less than the required takeoff field length, what must be done?

A

the aircraft weight must be reduced until this requirement can be met.

Stopways may be used during calculations, but clearways cannot since the data does not distinguish between items 1through 3 above.

19
Q

True or False: The TOLD card will be recomputed if the temperature
increases or decreases by 10 ºC or greater.

A

True

20
Q

What items of the TOLD must be complete during an evaluation?

A

TOLD card with items 1 through 25, at a minimum, will be completed for all
evaluations.

21
Q

What is the PCs responsibility regarding Weight and Balance?

A

The PC will verify that the aircraft will remain within the allowable limits for the entire flight.

22
Q

What class aircraft is the UC-35?

A

The UC-35 is weight and balance Class 2 IAW AR 95-1.

23
Q

When conducting preflight at night, are there any recommendations on the flashlight being used?

A

use a flashlight with an unfiltered lens to supplement available lighting.

Hydraulic leaks, oil leaks, and other defects are difficult to see using a flashlight with a colored lens.

24
Q

During cold weather operations, what are some special attention considerations to look out for during preflight?

A

Special attention should be given to all vents, openings, control surfaces, hinge points, and wing, tail, and fuselage surfaces for accumulation of snow and ice. Removal of ice, snow and frost accumulation is required
prior to takeoff.

25
Q

What are the standards for Perform Aircraft Taxi?

A

CREW COORDINATION:
Correctly perform crew coordination actions.

CHECKLIST:
Complete procedures and checks according to the aircraft checklist.

CLEARANCES:
Comply with taxi clearances.

MINIMUM DEVIATIONS:
Follow taxi lines with minimum deviation.

SPEED:
Maintain a safe taxi speed.

OBSERVE:
runway hold lines, localizer and glide slope critical areas, and other surface control and lighting.

26
Q

What are the standards for Perform Aircraft Manuevers?

A
  1. Maintain designated altitude ±100 ft while in level flight.
  2. Maintain airspeed ±10 KIAS.
  3. Maintain heading ±10° (unless turning).
  4. Maintain coordinated flight (ball 1/4 out maximum).
  5. Maintain power within the operating limits.
  6. Establish/maintain angle of bank ±5° for shallow and medium turns, and ±10° for steep turns.
  7. Roll out on the desired heading ±5° for shallow turns and ±10° for medium and steep turns.
  8. When operating in a traffic pattern, complete the turn to final not lower than 500 ft AGL.
  9. Complete all required checks IAW the aircraft checklist.
  10. Perform crew coordination actions.
27
Q

TRAFFIC PATTERNS:

As the airspeed approaches 180 KIAS, smoothly reduce power to ____% N1 while maintaining a ____º pitch-up attitude.

A

TRAFFIC PATTERNS:

As the airspeed approaches 180 KIAS, smoothly reduce power to 73% N1 while maintaining a 10º pitch-up attitude.

28
Q

When do you start to configure the aircraft during traffic patterns?

A

Abeam mid-field, call for the PNF to initiate the before landing checks.

29
Q

TRAFFIC PATTERNS:

Initiate the turn to final as required to rollout on a track aligned with the landing
runway. Complete the turn at or above _____ ft AGL and decelerate to __________ KIAS.

A

TRAFFIC PATTERNS:

Initiate the turn to final as required to rollout on a track aligned with the landing
runway. Complete the turn at or above 500 ft AGL and decelerate to VREF+10 KIAS.

30
Q

When may a rolling takeoff be used?

A

The rolling takeoff may be used when the runway length is at least 500 ft longer than the computed takeoff field length.

31
Q

When will the BANK ANGLE warning sound?

A

50 degrees

32
Q

What are the altitude restrictions for slow flight?

A

10,000 ft AGL to 18,000 ft AGL

33
Q

Stabilize and maintain what airspeed during slow flight?

A

Stabilize and maintain the airspeed at VREF (.6AOA) ±5 KT, no lower than .7AOA.

34
Q

At a high pitch attitude and slow airspeed, abrupt power inputs may result in what?

A

Compressor stalls. Make all power increases smoothly and at a moderate rate.

35
Q

Regarding high altitude flight, what is the P.R.I.C.E check?

A

Inspect the aircraft oxygen system according to the AFM. Check system Pressure, Regulators, Indicators, all Connections, and the Emergency oxygen flow (P R I C E check).

36
Q

If loss of pressurization occurs, immediately perform the emergency procedures for the situation. Descend to a pressure altitude of ________ ft or below as soon as possible.

A

If loss of pressurization occurs, immediately perform the emergency procedures for the situation. Descend to a pressure altitude of 10,000 ft or below as soon as possible.

37
Q

When an aircraft is ________ minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the aircraft will cross the fix, initially, at or below the maximum holding airspeed.

A

When an aircraft is three minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the aircraft will cross the fix, initially, at or below the maximum holding airspeed.

38
Q
A