Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EOR General Surgery > Urology / Renal (5%) > Flashcards

Urology / Renal (5%) Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of orthostatic hypotension

A 
Medications
Hypovolemia
Anemia
Heart dz
Diabetes
Parkinson's Disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treatment for orthostatic hypotension

A
  1. Tx underlying etiology
  2. Have pts rise slowly from sitting to standing
  3. Increase fluid and sodium intake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Treatment for orthostatic hypotension if conservative measures fail

A

Fludrocortisone - first line therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most common solid tumor in men 15-40 y/o

A

Testicular Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Risk factors for testicular carcinoma

A

Cryptorchidism - 40 fold risk
Caucasians
Klinefelter’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most common type of testicular carcinoma

A

Germinal Cell Tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Seminomas are more common in ____________, while nonseminomatous carcinomas of the testicles are more common in _________

A

Men (30-40)

Boys < 10 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Signs/symptoms of testicular carcinoma

A
  1. Painless testicular nodule, solid mass or enlargement
  2. Hydrocele present in 10%
  3. Gynecomastia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Diagnosis of testicular carcinoma

A
  1. Scrotal ultrasound

2. Alpha-fetoprotein, BhCG, LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Management of low-grade nonseminoma testicular carcinoma

A

Orchiectomy with retroperitoneal lymph node dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Management of low-grade seminoma testicular carcinoma

A

Orchiectomy, radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Management of high-grade seminoma testicular carcinoma

A

Debulking chemotherapy

Followed by orchiectomy and radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most common abdominal malignancy in children - usually presents within 5 y/o

A

Wilms Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Signs/Symptoms of Wilms Tumor

A

Painless, palpable, abdominal mass - MC
Hematuria
HTN
Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Diagnosis of Wilms Tumor

A
  1. Abdominal ultrasound - best initial

2. CT w/ contrast or MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management of Wilms Tumor

A

Nephrectomy followed by chemotherapy

Lung is common site for METS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common form of bladder carcinoma

A

Transitional cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Risk factors for bladder carcinomas

A
  1. Smoking

2. Occupational exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Medications that are known to cause bladder cancer

A
  1. Cyclophosphamide

2. Pioglitazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Signs/Symptoms of bladder cancer

A

Painless gross or microscopic hematuria

Irritative sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Diagnosis of bladder cancer

A

Cystoscopy with biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Management of bladder cancer that is localized/superficial

A

Transurethral resection bladder tumor (TURBT)

Intravesical chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Management of bladder cancer that is invasive (advanced or involving muscular layer)

A

Radical cystectomy
Chemo
XRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Management of recurrent bladder CA

A

BCG (bacillus calmette-guerin) vaccine intravesicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

95% of tumors originating in the kidney are _______________

A

Renal cell carcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Renal cell carcinomas are tumors of the ___________ ___________ __________

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

Most metabolically active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Risk factors for renal cell carcinoma

A

Smoking
Dialysis
HTN
Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Classic triad of renal cell carcinoma

A
  1. Hematuria
  2. Flank/abdominal pain
  3. Palpable mass
  4. Left sided varicocele - blocks testicular vein drainage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma

A
  1. CT scan - first test to be done
  2. Ultrasound
  3. MRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Management of renal cell carcinoma for stages I-III

A

Radical nephrectomy

Usually resistant to chemo and radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Management of renal cell carcinoma that has bilateral involvement or pt has solitary kidney

A

Partial nephrectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Renal artery stenosis causes reduction of blood flow to the kidney, leads to ______

A

CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

With renal artery stenosis, pts may present with _________ _______ __________

A

Flash pulmonary edema

34
Q

Most common etiology of renal artery stenosis in women < 50 y/o

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

35
Q

Clues to diagnosis of renal artery stenosis

A
  1. Resistant HTN
  2. Exaggerated rise in creatinine when given ARB or ACE
  3. Abdominal bruit
36
Q

Diagnosis of renal artery stenosis

A

Should only do testing if revascularization will be done

  1. Duplex doppler ultrasound, CTA, or MRA
  2. Gold standard - renal arteriography
37
Q

Treatment of renal artery stenosis

A

Angioplasty w/ stenting IF
BP cannot be controlled with meds
Worsening renal function
Recurrent flash pulmonary edema

38
Q

Most common types of stones in nephrolithiasis

A
  1. Calcium oxalate
  2. Calcium phosphate
    Other types: uric acid, struvite stones, cystine stones
39
Q

Characteristics of struvite stones in nephrolithiasis

A

Staghorn appearance

Caused by urea splitting bacteria (proteus)

40
Q

Risk factors for nephrolithiasis

A

Decreased fluid intake
Medications (loop diuretics, chemo drugs)
Gout

41
Q

Signs/Symptoms of nephrolithiasis

A

Renal colic - acute flank pain that radiates to groin
Pain over CVA
N/V
Unable to find comfortable position

42
Q

Diagnosis of nephrolithiasis

A
  1. Urinalysis - will show hematuria in 80%
  2. Non-contrast helical CT scan - test of choice!
  3. KUB - will only visualize calcium stones
  4. Intravenous pyelography - gold standard
43
Q

Treatment of nephrolithiasis < 5 mm in diameter

A

80% chance of spontaneous passage

  1. IV fluids, analgesics, antiemetics
  2. Tamsulosin - may facilitate passage
44
Q

Treatment of nephrolithiasis > 7 mm in diameter

A

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
Ureteroscopy +/- stent
Percutaneous nephrolithotomy - used for stones > 10 mm

45
Q

Prevention of future nephrolithiasis

A
  1. Adequate hydration
  2. Decrease animal protein intake
  3. Thiazide diuretics are used for recurrent calcium stones
46
Q

Metabolic Acidosis formula

A

Decreased pH
Decreased bicarb
Decreased CO2

47
Q

Metabolic Alkalosis formula

A

Increased pH
Increased bicarb
Increased CO2

48
Q

Respiratory Acidosis formula

A

Decreased pH
Increased bicarb
Increased CO2

49
Q

Respiratory Alkalosis formula

A

Increased pH
Decreased bicarb
Decreased CO2

50
Q

An anion gap over _____ is considered an elevated anion gap

A

12

51
Q

MUDPILERS

A 
Methanol
Uremia
Diabetic/alcoholic ketoacidosis
Paraldehyde/propylene glycol
Isoniazid / iron
Lactic acidosis
Ethylene glycol
Rhabdomyolysis
Salicylates
52
Q

When can you treat an acidotic patient with sodium bicarb?

A

If pH < 7.2
Life-threatening ventricular arrhythmia
Inadequate compensatory response

53
Q

Risks of sodium bicarbonate therapy

A

Hypernatremia
Hyperosmolarity
Volume overload

54
Q

Disorder that may cause hypernatremia

A

Diabetes insipidus

55
Q

In surgical patients, hypernatremia may result from:

A

Loop diuretics

Also from gastrointetstinal losses

56
Q

In the acute setting, rapid hypernatremia can cause ________________

A

Intracerebral hemorrhage

57
Q

Causes of hypervolemic hyponatremia - patient will usually have edema

A

Renal failure
CHF
COPD
Severe liver disease

58
Q

Causes of normovolemic hyponatremia

A

SIADH

59
Q

Causes of hypovolemic hyponatremia

A 
Renal losses of sodium
Diuretic use
Aldosterone deficiency
Renal failure
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
60
Q

Treatment of hypervolemic hyponatremia

A

Volume restriction and loop diuretic

61
Q

Treatment of normovolemic hyponatremia

A

SIADH - fluid restriction

62
Q

How do you correct hypernatremia?

A

D5W

63
Q

Treatment of hypovolemic hyponatremia

A

Salt and water replacement

64
Q

Should not increase serum sodium concentration faster than _________ mEq/L/hr

A

0.5

65
Q

Hyperkalemia can result from:

A

Renal or adrenal insufficiency
Metabolic acidosis
Iatrogenic causes

66
Q

Most important results of severe hyperkalemia

A

Myocardial effects
Peaked T wave is first sign
Finally: complete heart block, ventricular tachycardia, cardiac standstill occur

67
Q

Treatment of hyperkalemia

A

10-20 mL of 10% calcium gluconate
Can give Kayexalate (takes longer)
Most effective method: hemodialysis

68
Q

Hypokalemia is common in surgical patients due to:

A

GI losses - vomiting, diarrhea, fistula

Use of diuretics

69
Q

Treatment for hypokalemia

A
  1. Oral potassium unless severe or pt is symptomatic
70
Q

Treatment for hypercalcemia (when not due to parathyroidism):

A

Saline diuresis
Furosemide
Calcitonin - reduces bone resportion

71
Q

Signs of hypocalcemia

A

Trousseau’s

Chvostek Sign

72
Q

Trousseau’s Sign

A

Seen in hypocalcemia

BP cuff inflated - spasms in muscles of hand/forearm

73
Q

Chvostek Sign

A

Seen in hypocalcemia

Tap facial nerve - twitch on same side of face

74
Q

Treatment of hypocalcemia is symptomatic/severe

A

IV calcium therapy

75
Q

Diseases that cause hypermagnesemia

A

Renal failure

Addison’s disease

76
Q

Treatment for hypermagnesemia

A

Calcium infusion followed by immediate dialysis

77
Q

In surgical patients, hypomagnesemia is a result of:

A

GI losses

Reduced absorption

78
Q

Treatment for hypomagnesemia

A

Magnesium infusion

If treatment not urgent, give oral supplements

79
Q

Most common cause of hyperphosphatemia

A

Renal insufficiency

80
Q

Treatment of hyperphosphatemia

A

Treat underlying renal failure

Phosphate-binding antacids

81
Q

Treatment of hypophosphatemia

A

Oral or parenteral phosphate

EOR General Surgery (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions