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SAM 2 scs RUSVM > Urology and Nephrology (E1) > Flashcards

Urology and Nephrology (E1) Flashcards

1
Q

How much CO do the kidneys take?

A

25%

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2
Q

What percentage of water is reabsorbed at the proximal tubules?

A

65%

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3
Q

Which hormones work at the distal tubules? Where is it produced? What is it’s function?

A

Aldosterone

  • Adrenal cortex
  • Reabsorb sodium, excretes potassium to increase blood pressure

ADH (vasopressin) [also works in collecting duct]

  • Pituitary gland
  • Opens aquaporins to bring water back into circulation, concentrating urine
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4
Q

What does the juxtaglomerular apparatus measure?

A

Blood pressure

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5
Q

Which hormones are produced in the kidney? What are their functions?

A

EPO
-RBC production (bone marrow)

1,25 Dihydroxycholecalciferol (Calcitriol)
-active form of vitamin D

Renin
-Converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I (liver, RAAS)

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6
Q

What function does PTH have on the kidneys?

A

Signals kidneys to excrete phosphorous and reabsorb calcium to increase [calcium] in the body

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7
Q

What are the causes of pre-renal azotemia?

A 
Dehydration
Hypoadrenocorticism 
Cardiac disease
Hypovolemia 
Shock

(Perfusion problems)

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8
Q

What are the causes of renal azotemia?

A 
Parenchymal disease
Infections
Cysts
Inflammation
Neoplasia
Toxins
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9
Q

What are the causes of post-renal azotemia?

A

Blockage - urethral/bladder or just urethral

Obstruction

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10
Q

T/F Azotemia occurs when renal disease is present.

A

False, it indicates renal FAILURE

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11
Q

What are the 4 things that occur in cases of uremia?

A

Azotemia

Hypoalbuminemia

Hypercholesterolemia

Metabolic acidosis

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12
Q

What are accurate techniques for determining GFR?

A

GOLD STANDARD- Renal scintigraphy (radioisotopes)

Iohexal/Inulin/ creatinine clearance tests

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13
Q

Why does GIT bleeding, intravascular hemolysis and high protein diets cause false positives when using urea to measure GFR?

A

Causes liver to produce more urea

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14
Q

T/F: Creatinine is a better indicator for GFR than urea.

A

True

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15
Q

What polypeptide protease inhibitor is produced by all nucleated cells is used to measure GFR?

A

Cystatin C

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16
Q

What combination of tests is usually used to assess the kidneys?

A

SDMA

Creatinine

Complete urinalysis

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17
Q

Protein, pH, ketones, blood and which other value is useful when analyzing a urine dipstick?

A

Glucose

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18
Q

What is the normal reference range for a dog’s urine specific gravity? A cat?

A

Dogs >1.030

Cats >1.035

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19
Q

What are the 2 first choice antibiotics to treat a UTI?

A

Cephalosporins

Amoxi-Clav

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20
Q

What disease must be ruled out before performing a partial water deprivation test? What is this test for?

A

Cushing’s

Diabetes insipitus vs psychogenic polydipsia

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21
Q

If the specific gravity of urine increases when you give desmopressin, which type of DI is present?

A

Central

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22
Q

What type of azotemia is present if the fractional Na excretion is <1%?

A

Pre-renal

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23
Q

Why is it better to perform a urinalysis in house?

A

Storage causes crystal growth and the disintegration of casts and cells.

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24
Q

Why would you get a false positive UPC when a UTI is present?

A

Bacteria contain protein

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25
Q

What test should be performed before a UPC?

A

Urine sediment

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26
Q

What is the unit used to quantify bacterial culture growth?

A

Colony forming units (cfu)

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27
Q

T/F: Kidney biopsy samples should include cortex and medulla.

A

False, only cortex (risk damaging vessels)

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28
Q

Which Acid/Base derangement is common with renal disease/failure?

A

Metabolic acidosis

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29
Q

What is the normal ml/kg/hr urine output in dogs?

A

1-2 ml/kg/hr

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30
Q

T/F Patients with chronic renal failure may not have a decreased USG.

A

False, acute may not have a decreased USG (due to testing stored urine)

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31
Q

Before starting fluid therapy you perform a urine sediment test and see active sediment with tubular casts. Where is the problem (pre-renal, renal, or post-renal)?

A

Renal

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32
Q

What is the most common renal tumor and which species is it more common in?

A

Renal Carcinoma

Dogs

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33
Q

What non-neoplastic cause of renomegaly are Shar Pei dogs predisposed to?

A

Amyloidosis

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34
Q

What modality is most useful for investigating renomegaly?

A

Ultrasound

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35
Q

Which 3 dog breeds are predisposed to PKD?

A

Bull terriers

Cairn terriers

Westies

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36
Q

T/F Acute kidney injury is reversible.

A

True

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37
Q

What does RIFLE stand for?

A 
Risk
Injury
Failure
Loss
End-stage kidney disease

(for objectively defining acute kidney injury)

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38
Q

What urine output is considered oliguria?

A

<0.5 ml/kg/hr

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39
Q

What etiology of AKI occurs when you have insufficient blood flow to the kidneys? How is this characterized?

A

Pre-renal

Fractional excretion of sodium < 1

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40
Q

Which are the 3 most important nephrotoxins resulting in AKI?

A

Ethylene glycol

NSAIDs

Aminoglycosides

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41
Q

What are the 4 phases of ARF in order?

A

Initial
Extension
Maintenance
Recovery

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42
Q

What part of the kidney becomes damaged first when ischemic damage occurs?

A

Proximal convoluted tubules

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43
Q

What is the best way to monitor blood volume?

A

Central venous pressure (cm H2O)

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44
Q

Name 3 (or 4) types of renoprotective drugs/

A

Calcium channel blockers (e.g. Amlodipine)

Selective DA-2 receptor agonists (e.g. low level Dopamine)

Selective DA-1 receptor agonists (e.g. Fenoldopam- preferred to dopamine)

Erythropoeitin analogues

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45
Q

What are the renal tubular biomarkers used relative to creatine in a ratio, used to help localize the region of the tubular disease in AKI/ARF?

A

GGT

NAG

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46
Q

What is the shock IVF rate in dogs? Cats?

A

60-90 ml/kg/hr

45 ml/kg/hr

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47
Q

What is the insensible fluid loss for dogs (per day)?

A

22ml/kg

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48
Q

How do insensible fluid losses occur?

A

Breathing and sweating

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49
Q

How do you calculate the volume of dehydration?

A

% dehydration x BW [x1000 (for mL)]

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50
Q

Mannitol is a(n) ______ diuretic while Furosemide is a(n) ______ diuretic

A

Osmotic

Loop

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51
Q

What is the definitive treatment for oliguria?

A

Extracorporeal renal replacement therapy (ERRT)/ Dialysis

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52
Q

What are the indirect measures of GFR?

A

Serum urea or creatinine

Cystatin C

SDMA

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53
Q

Creatinine is dependent on __________ and is produced at a _____ rate.

A

Muscle mass

Constant

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54
Q

How does administering insulin treat hyperkalemia? What do you administer after the insulin?

A

It drives glucose into the cell, potassium follows the glucose.

Dextrose (can also be used alone to induce insulin release)

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55
Q

How is acidosis treated in a patient with failing kidneys?

A

IV Bicarbonate administration (1/4 bolus then remainder as a CRI over 2-6hrs)

Calculation: Base deficit x BW x 0.3

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56
Q

Other than diet, how can hyperphosphatemia be treated?

A

Phosphate binders:
Aluminum hydroxide/carbonate (Alutabs/Alucaps)

Calcium carbonate/acetate (Ipakitine)

Lanthanum carbonate (Renalzin)

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57
Q

Large kidneys indicate ____ kidney disease, small kidneys indicate _____ kidney disease.

A

Acute

Chronic

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58
Q

Azotemia does not develop until GFR has decreased to ____% of normal.

A

25

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59
Q

What is the specific gravity of plasma? If the USG is this value what is this called?

A

1.008-1.012

Isosthenuria

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60
Q

What does the MDB (minimum data base) include?

A

CBC/Chemistry (incl. PCV/TP)
Urinalysis
Fecal

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61
Q

What is the gold standard for measuring urine concentration? What does that mean?

A

Osmolality

Number of particles in solution

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62
Q

T/F: CKD is curable and there are various treatments available.

A

False, incurable.

Treatments exist to modify the disease progression.

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63
Q

Do cats or dogs live longer with CKD?

A

Cats

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64
Q

What does DAMNIT stand for? What is this acronym for?

A

Degenerative/Developmental

Auto-immune/Anomalous

Metabolic

Neoplastic/Nutritional

Inflammatory (Infectious, Iatrogenic, Idiopathic, Immune-mediated)

Trauma

Stands for causes of CKD

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65
Q

What is the specific treatment for ARF caused by ethylene glycol ingestion (assume treatment within 8hrs of ingestion)?

A

4-Methylpyrazole or Ethanol IV

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66
Q

What is rarely increased in stage I and II of CKD and usually increased in stage III and IV CKD?

A

Phosphate

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67
Q

What are the 2 therapies to treat proteinuria?

A

ACE inhibitor (Benazepril)

Angiotensin Receptor Blocker [ARB] (Telmisartan)

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68
Q

Which method of BP measurement is better for cats and small dogs? Which BP does it measure?

A

Doppler

SAP

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69
Q

Blood pressure cuffs should be____% of the circumference of the leg.

A

40

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70
Q

Pyelonephritis is more common in cats. Why are cultures important? How long do you treat? When do you repeat the culture?

A

In order to choose the appropriate antibiotics

4-6 weeks

1 week post treatment

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71
Q

Proton pump inhibitors such as ______ are more effective to control stomach acid than H2 blockers such as _____.

A

Omeprazole, Pantoprazole

Famotidine, Ranitidine, Cimetidine

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72
Q

Which 2 drugs are used for appetite stimulation in animals with CKD?

A

Mirtazapine (for dogs and cats)

Cyproheptadine/ Periactin (for cats)

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73
Q

T/F: Renal diets are beneficial to patients with CRD, changing to these diets increases mean survival time.

A

True

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74
Q

What stage of CKD are renal diets beneficial for dogs? Cats?

A

Dogs -III (3)

Cats -II (2)

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75
Q

Symptomatic animals with CKD with a PCV of ____ may benefit from EPO therapy. What are the 2 therapy options? What should be given concurrently?

A

<20%

rHuEPO
Darbopoietin-alpha (much better)

Iron

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76
Q

How do ACE inhibitors decrease blood pressure? What are some drugs in this class?

A

It causes vasodilation

Benazepril, Enalapril

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77
Q

How do loop diuretics decrease blood pressure? What drug represents this class? Is this a good long-term choice for the treatment of hypertension due to kidney disease?

A

Prevents sodium reabsorption and thus decreases blood volume

Furosemide

No, causes dehydration and is potentially nephrotoxic

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78
Q

What are independent prognostic factors for CRD?

A

Creatinine (higher level, shorter life-span)

UPC

WBC count

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79
Q

What are the 2 hallmarks of CRF?

A

Azotemia and inappropriately concentrated urine

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80
Q

What are physiological causes of proteinuria?

A

Strenuous exercise

Seizures

Fever

Stress

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81
Q

What is the gold standard for urine protein measurement? What method is used clinically?

A

24-hour urine protein measurement

Urine Protein: Creatinine ratio

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82
Q

Glomerular disease causes ____(more/less) protein loss than tubular disease. When UPC ratio > 8 then ______ should be considered.

A

More (>2)

Amyloidosis

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83
Q

What is the term used for the condition causing severe proteinuria due to primary glomerular disease?

A

Protein Losing Nephropathy (PLN)

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84
Q

Which breeds have familial glomerulonephritis?

A

Samoyeds

English Cocker Spaniels

(Shar-peis)

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85
Q

T/F: Glomerulonephritis can result in hypocoagulability and thus bleeding disorders.

A

False, causes HYPERcoagulability

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86
Q

SDMA increases at ____% decline of GFR

A

40

87
Q

What range of USG indicates hyposthenuria?

A

1.000-1.007

88
Q

What indirectly indicates hypercoagulability?

A

Decreased or increased platelets
Decreased antithrombin
Increased fibrin
Increased D-dimers

89
Q

What syndrome occurs prior to uremic syndrome and how is it characterized?

A

Nephrotic syndrome- kidney disease characterized by edema and loss of proteins from the plasma into the urine due to increased glomerular permeability.

90
Q

T/F Renal biopsies are contraindicated in IRIS stage IV.

A

True (due to prognosis <30 days, the kidney is already destroyed)

91
Q

What is the treatment for ICGN (immune-complex glomerulonephritis?

A

Immunosuppressive therapy (Mycophenolate mofetil first!)

92
Q

How do ACE inhibitors decrease proteinuria (6 ways)?

A

Decrease efferent glomerular arteriolar resistance (normalizing transcapillary hydraulic pressure)

Reduce loss of glomerular heparan sulphate (found in BM)

Decrease size of glomerular endothelial pores

Improve lipoprotein metabolism

Slow mesangial growth and proliferation

Inhibit bradykinin degradation

(RR LL PP MM SS DD: 
Reduce arteriolar Resistance
Lessen GHS Loss
Pare Pores
Mend lipoprotein Metabolism
Slow mesangial Spread
Decrease bradykinin Degradation)
93
Q

What is the difference between the ACE inhibitors Enalapril and Benazepril?

A

Enalapril is 50% excreted by kidneys, 50% by liver

Benazepril is 100% excreted by the liver

94
Q

What is the most common cause of renal disease and acute uremia in cats?

A

Ureteral obstruction

95
Q

What advanced imaging methods to diagnose ureteral obstruction involve positive contrast material?

A

Antegrade pyelography and CT

96
Q

What are the gold standard therapies for the management of ureteral obstruction?

A

Uretral Stent (Standard of care)

Subcutaneous ureteral bypass system (SUB) (per Christie, also ‘GS’)

97
Q

Which drugs are used to relax the ureters?

A

Prazosin and amitryptilline

98
Q

In cats ureteral stents are placed _____ (___grade), in dogs they are placed via ______ (___grade).

A

Surgically, antegrade

Cystoscopy, retrograde

99
Q

What animals get idiopathic cystitis?

A

Cats

100
Q

What are the causes of a change in uretheral diameter?

A

Urethral stricture

Idiopathic urethritis

Urethrospasm

101
Q

What treatment would you use to treat hypocalcemia in an obstructed cat?

A

Calcium gluconate IV

102
Q

What emergency treatment protocol do you use for an obstructed cat with hyperkalemia?

A

Shock rate fluids (45ml/kg), 1/4 immediately

Calcium gluconate (to protect heart)

IV insulin or dextrose

Bicarbonate IV (for acidosis)

Relieve obstruction

Catheterize

103
Q

What blood levels are positively correlated with the length of hospitalization in obstructed cats?

A

BUN and creatinine

104
Q

What is the most common cause for feline idiopathic cystitis?

A

Stress

105
Q

When urethral rupture occurs, generally the potassium level _____ and the sodium level ____.

A

Increases

Decreases

106
Q

What should be measured when you suspect uroabdomen? What do you expect to find?

A

The potassium, urea and creatinine level of the abdominal fluid.
Expect them to be high.

107
Q

What is the first thing you do after palpating a large firm painful bladder in a cat who with a history of unproductive straining in the litter box overnight?

A

Collect blood for CREA/BUN, lytes, A/B and start IVF

108
Q

What is the USG range for minimally concentrated urine?

A

1.013-1.030

109
Q

What is the specific treatment for NSAID induced ARF?

A

Misoprostal

110
Q

What is the specific treatment for ARF caused by aminoglycoside toxicity?

A

Ticarcillin IV

111
Q

When a diagnosis of CKD is suspected it is important to measure which three things in order to stage the disease?

A

Creatinine

Urine protein content

Blood pressure

112
Q

How do peripheral calcium channel blockers decrease blood pressure? What drug represents this class? For what species is this the first choice drug?

A

Vasodilation

Amplodipine

Cats

113
Q

A cat who has undergone renal trasnplantation must be on this drug long-term.

A

Cyclosporin

114
Q

What is the term used for a group of conditions where immune-complexes are deposited in the glomeruli causing an imbalance in normal filtration?

A

Glomerulonephritis

115
Q

What common presentation of urethral obstruction carries the most guarded prognosis and results in severe compromise of renal function?

A

Bilateral CKD with concomitant urethral obstruction

116
Q

What does pollakiuria mean?

A

Abnormally frequent urination

117
Q

What does periuria mean?

A

Peeing in weird places

118
Q

What type of bacteria is most commonly the causative agent in UTIs? What is the second most common?

A

E.coli

Staph

119
Q

T/F In cats, UTI incidence increases with advancing age, while in dogs there is a sex predilection.

A

True

120
Q

T/F: The involuntary escape of urine during the voiding phase of the urinary cycle is knows as urinary incontinence.

A

False, during storage phase.

121
Q

What signalment is most common with urinary sphincter mechanism incontinence?

A

Older (large breed spayed bitches

122
Q

What signalment is most common for apparent incontinence?

A

Young bitches with hooded vulvas and recurring UTIs

123
Q

What defective anatomic mechanism is responsible for 85% of incontinence?

A

Urinary sphincter mechanism

124
Q

Why do male dogs rarely get USMI?

A

Longer urethra

125
Q

Less than what amount of pressure in the urinary sphincter results in USMI?

A

7.5 cm H2O

126
Q

What theory about urinary incontinence states that it occurs due to the bladder pressure exceeding urethral pressure?

A

Pressure Transmission theory

127
Q

T/F: A significant associated between early spaying and incontinence has been suggested by various studies, thus it is advisable to wait to spay a bitch until at least 8 months of age.

A

False.

128
Q

Is treating urinary inconinence with estrogen therapy (estradiol) better in combination with PPA?

A

No, no difference

129
Q

On average, now long does collagen therapy for urinary incontinence last?

A

8 months

130
Q

What is the USG of urine considered inadequately concentrated?

A

1.013- <1.022

131
Q

What is the specific treatment for ARF caused by leptospirosis?

A

Penicillins and doxycycline

132
Q

What is your top differential for a dog that presents with a urine-soaked coat, inflamed perineum and excoriations around the perineal/genital area?

A

Ectopic ureter

133
Q

What is the specific treatment for ARF caused by pyelonephritis?

A

Culture then give fluroroquinolones or TMS q4-wks depending on results

134
Q

How is hypercoagulability directly measured?

A

Thromboelastography (TEG)

135
Q

What type of urethral obstruction is clinically silent and may be detected in cats due to acute abdominal pain?

A

Acute unilateral urethral obstruction.

136
Q

Why does spaying increase the likelihood of SMI?

A

Estrogen effect causes thinner mucosal walls a well as lower numbers of alpha-1 receptors (smooth muscle receptors-sphincter). Lower urinary sphincter pressure after spaying.

137
Q

What theory about urinary incontinence states that it occurs due to an anomaly of anatomic structures that maintain the position of the bladder and urethra?

A

Hammock theory

138
Q

What are the best modalities to accurately diagnose an ectopic ureter?

A

Contrast enhanced CT (Excretory urogram) and cystoscopy

139
Q

What is the specific type of drug given for ARF caused by TMS toxicity?

A

Urine alkalinizer

140
Q

T/F: A PT/aPTT test should be performed before taking a renal biopsy to rule out a coagulation problem.

A

False- should be normal, can look at PTLs, antithrombin, fibrin or d-dimers

141
Q

What can occur commonly in cats with past unilateral urethral obstruction?

A

Big kidney-Little Kidney syndrome

142
Q

Why should estrogen therapy not be used to treat sphincter incontinence in young immature bitches with congenital USMI?

A

Because it could be an ecoptic ureter and estrogen would have no effect

143
Q

What is the treatment of choice for ectopic ureter?

A

Cystoscopic laser ablation

144
Q

T/F Obstructed male cats can be managed without urethral catheterization in some cases.

A

True (poorer prognosis though, but an option especially if money is an issue for the owner)

145
Q

Which drugs are used to stimulate the internal bladder sphincter? What class of drugs are they? What side effects are common?

A

Phenylpropanolamine (better) and ephedrine

Alpha-1 (adrenergic) agonists

Cardiovascular side effects (hypertension)

146
Q

What type of urethral obstruction is associated with bilaterally enlarged and painful kidneys, severe progressive azotemia, and oliguria or anuria? Is this common?

A

Acute bilateral urethral obstruction.

No, uncommon.

147
Q

Which 2 specific mucosal properties of the LUT prevent bacterial colonization?

A

GAG layer preventing attachment

Continuous shedding of the outer layer

148
Q

What is the most common bacterial isolate in LUTD?

A

E.coli

149
Q

What are the 1st line antibiotics to treat LUTD?

A

Amoxicillin
Cephalosporins
TMS

150
Q

T/F Bone marrow aplasia is an effect of estrogen, this also occurs when using Incurin to treat urinary incontinence and owners should be advised.

A

False

151
Q

Prophylactic therapy is the last resort when treating a patient with recurrent UTIs. How long should the C&S be negative before discontinuing the antibiotic? What dose should be given and when?

A

6 months

30-50% of the original dose, at bedtime

152
Q

What is the most common urolith?

A

Calcium oxalate

153
Q

What does crystalluria imply?

A

Supersaturated urine (NOT urolithiasis)

154
Q

What breeds are predisposed to struvite stones?

A 
Mini schnauzers
Lhaso Apsos 
Cocker Spaniels 
Shih-tzus 
Bichon Frise
155
Q

How are struvite uroliths treated?

A

Diet (target pH as acidic and urine as dilute)

156
Q

T/F If a dog has struvite stones and he is given something to acidify his urine this can predispose him to oxalate crystals. If a dog has oxalate crystals and he is given something to alkalinize his urine this can predispose him to struvite crystals

A

True

157
Q

Which 2 breeds are predisposed to calcium oxalate crystals but not struvite crystals?

A

Mini poodles

Yorkies

158
Q

What uroliths can form due to hepatic disease, especially in dalmatians and black Russian terriers?

A

Ammonium urate

159
Q

A diet low in what should be used to prevent xanthine urolithiasis?

A

Purine

160
Q

What type of LUT infection is it when a C&S is positive 7 days after starting antibiotics?

A

Superinfection

161
Q

What is the maximum urolith size (range) if you wish to perform urohydropropulsion to treat a female dog with stones?

A

<5-15mm

162
Q

What are magnesium ammonium phosphate hexahydrate stones also called?

A

Struvite

163
Q

Which type of urolith are Australian cattle dogs, dachshunds, Newfoundlands and bulldogs predisposed to?

A

Cystine

164
Q

Which uroliths are spiny, rarely cause obstructions and are more common in fat male dogs?

A

Calcium oxalate

165
Q

Against which uroliths is alkalinizing the urine beneficial?

A

Calcium oxalate

Cystine

166
Q

Which stones are usually secondary to primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Calcium phosphate uroliths

167
Q

T/F Most LUT infections are caused by a single species.

A

True

168
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing feline interstitial cystitis?

A

Cystoscopy

169
Q

T/F: Stress is a major risk factor for FLUTD.

A

True

170
Q

Which nerve activates to detrussor muscle to allow for urination?

A

Pelvic nerve (PSNS)

171
Q

Which nerve supplies the smooth muscles of the internal bladder sphincter?

A

Hypogastric nerve (SNS)

172
Q

Why do you perform imaging when investigating FLUTD?

A

To rule out urolithiasis

173
Q

T/F: Environmental enrichment is the only therapy known to be beneficial when treating and preventing FLUTD.

A

True, it reduces LUT signs as well as normalizing the circulating catecholamine concentration, bladder permeability and cardiac function

174
Q

What is Prazosin and what does it do?

A

It is an alpha antagonist that causes vasodilation and relaxes the internal bladder sphincter. (It’s use to treat FLUTD is questionable)

175
Q

What are the 2 most important components of investigating female genital disease?

A

Vaginal speculum exam

Cytology

176
Q

What type of infection can be the result of compliance issues?

A

Relapse

177
Q

What drug is used to treat recurrent UTIs caused by multi-drug resistant (MDR) E.coli?

A

Fosfomycin (Monurol)

178
Q

Which uroliths are large, smooth, and radiodense but not as much as CaOx?

A

Struvite

179
Q

Which round cell tumor is associated with the genital tract?

A

Transmissible venereal tumor

180
Q

The clinical signs of prostatic disease may include fecal signs, urinary signs, systemic signs and ____ signs.

A

Orthopedic

181
Q

T/F: The frequency of prostate neoplasia is lower in neutered dogs.

A

False, same incidence in altered and intact dogs.

182
Q

What other inflammatory process is found in all intact male dogs with UTIs?

A

Prostatitis

183
Q

Which is more common, acute or chronic prostatitis? What is the main difference clinically?

A

Chronic

Acute prostatitis patients present very sick

184
Q

What are the three drugs/drug classes used in medical chemical castrations? What is the main difference?

A

GnRH
Gestagens
DHT inhibitors (Finasteride)

DHT inhibitors maintain fertility while GnRH destroys sperm (by causing decreased testosterone)

185
Q

What is the treatment of choice for calcium oxalate uroliths?

A

Surgery

186
Q

Inhibitors against which enzyme are used to treat urate crystals in dalmatians?

A

Xanthine oxidase (Drug= Allopurinol)

187
Q

What can be caused by excess estrogen and can lead to vaginal prolapse?

A

Vaginal hyperplasia

188
Q

What is your primary differential for a dog with painful gait and painful sacrum? On x-ray you see something abnormal with the lumbar spine.

A

Prostatic neoplasia (carcinoma) with local metastasis

189
Q

Why are COX-2 inhibitors such as piroxicam, onsior, and meloxicam are used in prostatic neoplasia therapy?

A

They have anti-cancer properties

190
Q

How do you obtain a sample for cytology when you suspect LUT cancer?

A

Catheter suction

191
Q

What therapy for cystine calculi is associated with a higher risk for DCM?

A

Low protein diet

192
Q

Poor diets rich in rice and soybean husks which lack proper protein predispose a dog to which uroliths?

A

Silica

193
Q

Which antibiotics penetrate the prostate well?

A 
Fluroquinolones
Doxy
TMS
Rifampin
Erythromycin
Second generation quinolones (ciprofloxacin etc.)
194
Q

Micturition disorders are divided into ____ and _______.

A

Neurogenic

Non-neurogenic

195
Q

Which nerve signals the release of ACh to nicotinic receptors to stimulate contraction of the bladder for voluntary micturition?

A

Pudendal nerve

196
Q

Which is the sensory nerve associated with the bladder?

A

Pelvic nerve

197
Q

Which nerve allows for the passive phase of bladder filling?

A

Hypogastric nerve

198
Q

How do you treat a UMN bladder causing detrusor areflexia with sphincter hyperreflexia caused by a lesion above the sacral segment?

A

Give Baclofen to relax skeletal muscle

199
Q

Would you use bethanecol to treat a bladder which is constantly leaking or a bladder that is difficult to express?

A

Constantly leaking (LMN bladder)

200
Q

T/F: Dysautanomia is rare but when it seen it is mainly in cats.

A

True

201
Q

What causes detrusor atony?

A

Overfill of the bladder, usually caused by an obstruction

202
Q

What are 2 main mechanisms of urinary incontinence?

A

Intravesicular pressure being greater than urethral pressure

Anatomical abnormalities

203
Q

T/F: Benign prostate hyperplasia is a normal aging change.

A

True

204
Q

Why is surgery not recommended for dogs with genital neoplasia?

A

Post-operative incontinence, also if its a TCC it can spread due to contamination during surgery.

205
Q

What is the most common etiology of urinary incontinence? What is the typical signalment?

A

Urinary sphincter mechanism incompetence (SMI)

Older spayed female dog

206
Q

Other than neoplasia, are prostatic diseases are more common in intact or altered dogs?

A

Intact

207
Q

T/F: An asymmetrical prostate can be normal. .

A

False

208
Q

Which LUT tumor are scottish terriers predisposed to?

A

Transitional cell carcinomas

209
Q

Which autonomic nerve signals the release of NE to A-1 receptors in the internal bladder sphincter and to B receptors in the detrussor m to allow it to relax?

A

Hypogastric nerve

210
Q

Which is the somatic nerve associated with the bladder?

A

Pudendal nerve

211
Q

Which neurological disease is treated with phenoxybenzamine?

A

Detrusor-sphincter reflex dyssynergia

212
Q

What is counter-indicated when you have hypercoagulability caused by PLN, given that the patient is NOT having difficulty breathing?

A

Draining effusions

Treating with diuretics

213
Q

T/F: Ehrlichiosis can cause ICGN.

A

True

SAM 2 scs RUSVM (14 decks)

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