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SAM 2 scs RUSVM > Oncology: General, Treatments, Head, GIT and Abdominal masses (E2) > Flashcards

Oncology: General, Treatments, Head, GIT and Abdominal masses (E2) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 6 hallmarks of a cancer cell?

A

Self-sufficiency in growth signals

Insensititvity to anti-growth signals

Tissue invasion and metastasis

Limitless replicative potential

Sustained angiogenesis

Evading apoptosis

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2
Q

What are a few causes of cancer?

A

Genes- DNA mutation

Diet- high fat, low fiber diets

Exposure to carcinogens and mutagens

Viruses

Age/alterations in immune system

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3
Q

What are the phases of multistep carcinogenesis? Which is rapid and which is slow? At what point do the changes stop being reversible?

A

Initiation- rapid, DNA damage but not enough to induce neoplastic trasformation

Promotion- reversible changes

Progression- slow and irreversible

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4
Q

What are 3 important aspects of obtaining a comprehensive history of a patient with a tumor?

A
  1. Doubling time (rapid vs slow growth)
  2. Extent of involvement (local vs systemic)
  3. Co-morbidities (continuum of disease)
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5
Q

How do you definitively establish a tissue diagnosis?

A

Cytopatholoy

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6
Q

From what 3 distinct cell types do most cancers come from?

A

Round cells

Mesenchymal cells

Epithelial cells

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7
Q

What are the types of round cell tumors?

A

Plasmacytoma

Histocytoma

MCT

Lymphoma

TVT

+/- Melanoma

(Please Help Me Learn This, Meow?)

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8
Q

Under a microscope, which tumor hass spindle-shaped, stellate or oval cells arranged in individually or in non-cohensive aggregates? What are some examples of these types of tumors?

A

Mesenchymal

Sarcomas: OSA, Chondrosarcoma, Fibrosarcoma, HSA

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9
Q

Which tumor has the best diagnostic yield (i.e. exfoliates the best), which has the lowest yield?

A

Best: Round cell

Poorest: Mesenchymal

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10
Q

How do carcinomas look microscopically? What type of cell tumor are these?

A

Round, cuboidal, columnar or olygonal cells arranged in cohesive sheets or clusters

Epithelial cell tumors

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11
Q

What does anisokaryosis mean?

A

Variation in nuclear size (characterstic of malignancy)

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12
Q

What does it mean that cytopatholgy has low sensitivity but high specificity?

A

Low sensitivity = false negatives likely

High specificity = false positives unlikely

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13
Q

With which neoplasm has needle tract implantation been reported?

A

Urogenital carcinomas

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14
Q

What are the 2 clinical techniques for FNA? Which is better?

A

Needle off- coring: better- less blood contamination and better needle control

Needle on-suction

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15
Q

What is the preferred technique for cytology slide preparation? When should you use the other technique?

A

Horizontal pull-apart

Use vertical pull-apart with fragile cells (e.g. LNs)

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16
Q

What question does staging answer? What system is it based on? What does staging require?

A

Is the tumor localized, spread regionally or diffusely?

WHO TNM (tumor, node, metastasis) system (0-IV)

Staging requires a series of generally non-invasive testing

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17
Q

What is required to grade a tissue? What does it establish/determine?

A

A block of tissue (e.g. biopsy, FNA)

It establishes inherent aggressiveness and allows definitive prognostication

Also inflences therapeutic recommendations

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18
Q

What do the stages T1-T4 indicate? What does the N stand for (in staging)? What does the M stand for?

A

The size and/or extent of the primary tumor

N= regional LNs

M= distant metastasis

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19
Q

T/F: If lymph nodes are normally sized (i.e. not enlaged), they are most likely not metastatic.

A

False, never assume!

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20
Q

How large does a nodule have to be in order for it to be visible on an x-ray?

A

7-9mm

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21
Q

What do you call tumor associated alternations in bodily structure or function occuring distant to the tumor?

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes

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22
Q

What tumors commonly cause the PNS hypercalcemia?

A

Anal sac ACA

LSA

Multiple myeloma

Mammary tumor

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23
Q

What type of tumor commonly causes the PNS hypoglycemia?

A

Intestinal leiomyosarcoma

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24
Q

What tumor causes neurologic PNS?

A

Thymoma

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25
Q

What is the cutaneous PNS that occurs with renal cyadenocarcinoma?

A

Nodular dermatofibrosis

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26
Q

What is the bone PNS caused by many primary lung tumors, esophageal tumors and metastatic tumors?

A

Hypertrophic osteopathy

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27
Q

T/F: Conventional chemoterapy drugs target all rapidly dividing cells.

A

True

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28
Q

What is adjuvant chemotherapy?

A

Chemo given as adjunct to local therapy (i.e. after sx)

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29
Q

Why is neoadjuvant chemo given?

A

To try to shrink the tumor prior to definitive treatment (i.e. sx)

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30
Q

What is it called when you are using chemo as the sole treatment for measurable disease?

A

Induction/maintenance chemotherapy

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31
Q

What is the purpose of palliative chemotherapy?

A

To improve QOL by helping alleviate signs (expectation is not to cure)

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32
Q

What do you call the dose of chemo that produces an acceptable level of toxicity?

A

MTD (maximum tolerated dose)

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33
Q

T/f: Chemotherapy dosages are based on toxicity rather than efficacy.

A

True

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34
Q

In what animals and with what drugs can using body surface area for chemo dosages be problematic?

A

Smaller patients, small breed dogs (receive higher dose)

Doxorubracin, Melphalan, Cis-and Carboplatin

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35
Q

What are the “4 R’s” that should be considered prior to any chemotherapy treatment?

A

Right drug

Right dose

Rigth route

Right patient

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36
Q

Which chemo drugs pose an increased risk for dogs with ABCB-1 gene mutations?

A

Vincristine

Vinblastine

Paclitaxel

Doxorubracin

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37
Q

What things are required for the safe handling of chemo drugs?

A

BCS (biological safety cabinet) - at least BSL-2

CSTDs (closed-system drug-transfer devices)

PPE- gloves, gowns, face shields + aseptic technique

Written policy and procedure for safe handling of chemo

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38
Q

What can you do to ensure client safety with chemotherapy drugs?

A

Provide handout and gloves

Make sure pills are never split or crushed

No handling of meds if nursing or pregnant

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39
Q

What are the 3 common adverse effects of cytotoxic chemotherpy?

A

BAG:

Bone marrow suppresion

Alopecia (non-shedding breeds only)

Gastrointestinal cells

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40
Q

Why must a CBC always be done on the day of chemo? (what are you looking for and what values are acceptable)

A

Neutrophils: Must be >/= 1500-2500 (/microL)

PTL: Must be >/= 50k-100k

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41
Q

What are you establishing with the CBC after the 1st chemo treatment?

A

The NADIR of the WBCs (expected low point of BM suppresion)

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42
Q

What does it mean when a chemo patient’s NADIR is <1000? What can be given to boost this number and is it commonly used, why or why not?

A

Myelosuppresion/neutropenia

Higher risk for systemic infection

Prophylactic antibiotics are warrented

Rx: Nupogen (Filgrastim)- uncommonly used because it is a human-source product and can cause HS reactions

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43
Q

What 2 chemo drugs commonly cause GI toxicity?

A

Cisplatin

Doxorubracin

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44
Q

What do you call chemo drugs that can kill cancer cells at any stage in the cell cycle?

A

Cell-cycle non-specific

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45
Q

Antimitotic chemo drugs disrupt or immbolize the mitotic spindle during mitosis. What are the 2 drug classes that fall into this category?

A

Vinca alkaloids (vincristine, vinblastine) **most commonly used**

Taxanes (paclitaxel, docetaxel)

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46
Q

What tumor types is vincristine used for and what are the 3 major side effects?

A

Vincristine: LSA and TVTs

Side effects: Gastrointestinal, vesicant, neuropathy

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47
Q

What class of chemo agent binds to DNA strands, inserts an alkyl group and changes the structure of the DNA, interfering with transcription, replication and repair machinery? Are these cell-cycle specific or non-specific?

Give some examples of drugs in this class. Which aspect of BAG do these drugs affect most?

A

Alkylating agents

Non-specific

Chlorambucil, CCNU,Cyclophosphamide, Melphalan- Bone marrow

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48
Q

What is a drug-specific toxicity of cyclophosphamide? What is this drug used for?

A

Affects bone marrow severely and causes sterile hemorrhagic cystitis

Used for LSA metronomic chemotherapy

(alkylating agent)

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49
Q

What is a drug-specific toxicity of CCNU? What can you give to lessen some of these effects? What tumors is this drug used for?

A

Strongly affects bone marrow and causes liver toxicity

Give with Denamarin

LSA, MCT, histocytic sarcoma

(alkylating agent)

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50
Q

What type of chemo agent is doxorubricin? What are some side effects and can you give anything to lessen these?

A

Cell-cycle non-specific Antibiotic agent

GI side effects

Dose-related cardiotoxicity- can give Dexrazoxane to reduce

Tinnitus

Vesicant (very strong)- can apply frozen peas (pee on it) or give Dexrazoxane within 3 hours

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51
Q

What chemo agent is known as “blue thunder”? What tumors is it used for and what type of agent is it?

A

Mitotoxantrone

TCC and LSA

Antibiotic agent

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52
Q

What is cisplatin and what are its side effects? Which drug is used as an alternative?

A

Platinum chemotherapy agent

Dogs- B,G, nephrotoxicity

NEVER USE IN CATS (SPLATS CATS)

Preferred alternative: Carboplatin (ok in cats and dogs for OSA and other sarcomas)

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53
Q

Why should elspar not be given IV?

A

It causes severe HS rxns which can lead to DIC

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54
Q

How does Tanovea work and what is it used for?

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis thus inhibitng lymphocyte and LSA cell line proliferation

LSA in dogs

(FDA approved)

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55
Q

How does metronomic chemotherapy help prevent recurrence? What are the pros and cons?

A

Eliminate break point by giving low dose continuous chemotherapy

Pro: Lower toxicity, reduced side effects, PO administration, lower cost

Cons: Not cytotoxic/ less potent, not designed to cure (palliative therapy)

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56
Q

What are the 3 MOAs for metronomic chemotherapy?

A

Anti-angiogenesis

Immunomodulation

Direct targeting

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57
Q

What cells does metronomic chemotherapy downregulate?

A

T-regulatory cells (CD4+, CD25+)

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58
Q

What substances form in the urine when sterile hemorrhagic cystitis occurs, resulting in urinating blood? What drug causes this? How can it be avoided?

A

Acrolein and 4-hydroxymetabolites

Cyclophosphamide

Giving furosemide concurrently helps prevent

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59
Q

How does Torceranib (Palladia) work?

A

Inhibits replication/growth of cells by blocking tyrisine kinase (irreversibly binding to receptor)

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60
Q

What type of treatment are tumor vaccines, oncolytic virus therapy, monoclonal antibodies and T-cell therapy?

A

Immunotherapy

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61
Q

For what type of tumors are there vaccines?

A

Oral melanoma (stage II or III) Oncept Canine Melanoma Vaccine

Feline fibrosarcoma Oncept Feline IL-2

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62
Q

What plant is used to reduce proliferation and increase apoptosis in cancer cells?

A

C. versicolor mushroom (Turkey Tail mushroom)

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63
Q

What chinese medication has been shown to improve clotting time and enhance platelet function? What tumor has it been shown effective against?

A

Yunnan Baiyao

HSA

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64
Q

What is the standard, accepted unit for radiation dose measurement?

A

Gray (Gy)

65
Q

What tissues are considered early and late responding tissues (radiation therapy)?

A

Early: epithelial layers of skin or mucosa, bone marrow

Late: nervous tissue, bone

66
Q

What does the term fractionation mean?

A

Dividing radiation therapy dose into multiple doses rather than one large dose to improve toleration and effectiveness of the treatment

67
Q

What are the “Big 3” variables that dictate the reponse of tissue to radiation?

A

Total dose

Fraction size

Duration of treatment

68
Q

What are the 3 forms of teletherapy? Which is superficial, which is deep?

A

Orthovoltage - superficial

Megavoltage - deep

Protons - superficial

69
Q

What is stereotactic radiosurgery used to treat? How many doses are required?

A

OSA (distal limbs in dogs)

Single dose

70
Q

What is RECIST?

A

Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors

Used to measure response to therapy, objective guidelines

Either get complete response (CR), partial response (PR- >30% reduction in tumor size), progressive disease (PD- >20% increase in tumor size) or stable disease (SD- <30% reduction and <20% increase in tumor size)

71
Q

What is the purpose of phase 1 of clinical trials? Phase 2? Which phase is done after the drug has been approved?

A

1: Establishing the safety of the drug or device
2: Efficacy of the drug/device (small scale study)

Phase IV (4) is done post-approval (post-marketing surveillance)

72
Q

What are the DDx for nasal planum tumors in cats? Dogs?

A

Cats: SCC, LSA, eosinophilic granuloma, MCT

Dogs: SCC, MCT, sarcoma (fibro-)

73
Q

What is the therapy in which chemotherapeutic drugs are used in combination with high-voltage electric pulses resulting in reversible permiation of cell membranes, allowing more efficient entry of drugs into the cells?

A

Electrochemotherapy (ECT)

74
Q

If an older cat develops an ear canal tumor, what is your top DDx? What is another Ddx?

A

Ceruminous gland adenocarcinoma

Undifferentiated SCC, Round cell tumors, Sarcomas

75
Q

What surgery is indicated for ear canal tumors? What surgery should never be done?

A

TECA-BO

Never lateral canal resection

76
Q

T/F: Assuming aggressive surgery and no pre-op mestastasis, ear canal tumors have a long MST in dogs and cats.

A

True

>58m in dogs

12-50mo in cats

77
Q

What are negative prognostic indicators related to ear canal tumors?

A

Extension beyond ear canal

Diagnosis of SCC or undifferentiated sarcoma (adenocarcinoma is better)

Neuro signs

Vascular or lymphatic invasion (histology)

High mitotic index (histology)

78
Q

What dogs tend to get sinonasal tumors? What is the classical presentation?

A

Older medium to large breed dolicocephalic dogs (esp those with high environmental contaminant exposure)

2-3mo hx of unilateral epistaxis, sneezing, open-mouth breathing, partial response to empirical treatments, facial deformity

79
Q

What are the top DDx for sinonasal tumors in dogs? Cats?

A

Dogs: Carcinomas (ACA, SCC, undiff)

Cats: LSA

80
Q

T/F: With sinonasal tumors, if there is not blood on the floor, you have not gotten a good biopsy.

A

True

81
Q

What landmark should you use when performing a blind biopsy of a sinonasal tumor?

A

Medial canthus of eye

82
Q

What is the MST for sinonasal tumors if we do nothing?

A

95 days

83
Q

Why can COX-2 inhibitors be used for palliative treatment in dogs with nasal carcinomas?

A

80% of these tumros have COX-2 overespression which is used by the tumors to recrcuit blood vessels

COX-2 inhibtors (NSAIDs) are anti-angiogenic to the tumor

84
Q

What is the go-to curative intent treatment for sinonasal tumors?

A

Radiation therapy - IMRT and SRT are best

85
Q

What are negative prognostic factors for sinonasal tumors in dogs?

A

Older age

Epistaxis

Longer duration of CS

Advanced tumor stage (cribiform involvement)

Metastasis

SCC/undifferentiated carcinomas

Failue to achieve resolution of CS after tx

86
Q

What is the go-to treatment for sinonasal tumors in cats?

A

Radiation + Chemo

87
Q

T/F: Salivary tumors are most commonly adenocarcinomas or carcinomas. Surgery alone is rarely curative.

A

True

88
Q

What cat breeds are at decreased disk for thyroid tumors?

A

Siamese

Himalayan

89
Q

In dogs, ___% of thyroid tumors are malignant, and ___% are benign. The same rule is true for functionality, ___% are non-functional and ___% are functional. Most of these tumors are ____.

In cats, ___% of thyroid tumors are malignant and ___% are benign. The same rule is true for functionality. Most of these tumors are _____ .

A

In dogs, 90% of thyroid tumors are malignant, and 10% are benign. The same rule is true for functionality, 90% are non-functional and ​10% are functional. Most of these tumors are CARCINOMAS.

In cats,​ 10% of thyroid tumors are malignant and 90% % are benign. The same rule is true for functionality. Most of these tumors are ADENOMAS .

90
Q

Dogs with thyrpid tumors can have multiple distinct malignancies, which are often ________.

A

Intra-abdominal

91
Q

What is the most important factor when you are staging a thyroid tumor?

A

Fixed vs Not fixed

92
Q

What commonly occurs in dogs after bilateral thyroidectomy?

A

Hypocalcemia

93
Q

T/F: Oral tumors are more common in dogs than cats, and more common in males than females.

A

True

94
Q

What are the “Big 3” DDx for oral tumors in dogs? What are the “Big 2” for cats?

A

Dogs: Melanoma, SCC, Fibrosarcoma (in order of most to least common)

Cats: SCC, Fibrosarcoma

95
Q

What type of biopsy is indicated for a proliferative oral tumor? Non-proliferative oral tumor?

A

Proliferative - Incisional “shave” biopsy (under heavy sedation)

Non-proliferative- Incisional biopsy never through lip and NOT under sedation

DO NOT DO EXCISIONAL BIOPSY

96
Q

What is the most important prognostic/staging indicator for oral tumors?

A

Size

97
Q

What special stain can be used to differentiate a sarcoma from an amelanotic melanoma?

A

Melan A

98
Q

Thorough staging is required for oral tumors, especially malignant melanoma. What needs to be done do stage these?

A

Abdominal US

Full body CT

99
Q

A 1.5 year old golden retreiver presents with a very large benign loooking oral tumor. The biospy comes back as a fibroma. Thoughts?

A

Probably not a fibroma, but a fibrosarcoma

Aggressive surgery required

100
Q

T/F: Oral fibrosarcomas and SCC have low metastatic rates but are locally invasive.

A

True

101
Q

Why are significant bone resorption and hypercalcemia common PNS in cats with oral SCC?

A

Tumors tend to express PTH-rp

102
Q

What is the predilication site for oral SCC in cats?

A

Sublingual

103
Q

What is the feline counterpart for acanthomatous amelioblastomas? What is done to control these tumors?

A

Feline Inductive Odotogenic tumors

Aggressive local surgery

104
Q

Why do more rostral oral tumors havea better prognosis?

A

Easier to excise

105
Q

What is the benign slow growing oral tumor common in dofs that contains proliferative fibroblastic connective and odontogenic tisssue and how should you address it?

A

Peripheral odotogenic fibroma

Surgically excise mass, preferrably using cryo. Can wait and see if you have a confirmative biopsy.

106
Q

What can be done to shrink oral melanomas?

A

Radiation therapy

107
Q

What drug should be given to all cats with oral SCC?

A

Piroxicam (prolongs survival)

108
Q

What parasite causes esophageal tumors and what kind of tumor forms?

A

Spirocerca lupi

Sarcomas

109
Q

What is the most common esophageal tumor? Where do they tend to form in cats and which sex is prediposed?

What is the other most likely DDx?

A

SCC

Middle 1/3 of esophagus just caudal to thoracic inlet, females prediposed (cats)

DDx: Leiomyosarcoma

110
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing esophageal tumors?

A

Biopsy via esophagoscopy

111
Q

What breeds are prediposed to gastric tumors? Sex prediliction?

A

Belgian Shepherds

Chow chows

Males >> Females

112
Q

What is the most common clinical sign with gastric tumors?

A

Anorexia

113
Q

What are the “Big 2” Ddx for gastric tumors in dogs? What is the most common gastric tumor in cats?

A

Dogs: ACA (adenocarcinoma), Leiomyosarcoma

Cats: LSA

114
Q

Where do gastric adenocarcinomas tend to form? What do they look like?

A

Pyloric antrum/lesser curvature

Often scirrhous (firm, white or serosal surface), Linitis plastica (leather bottle)

115
Q

What is the staging test of choice for gastric tumors? What is the best tool for assessing resectability?

A

Ultrasound (US-guided FNA/cytology)

Endoscopy

116
Q

Which gastric tumor has a better prognosis, ACA or leiomyosarcoma?

A

Leiomyosarcoma (MST 12-21 mo)

(ASA most dead within 6mo)

117
Q

Species: Large intestinal tumrs are more common than small intestinal tumors in ____ while the opposite is true in ____.

A

Dogs

Cats

118
Q

What are the “Big 3” DDx for intestinal tumors in dogs? Cats?

A

Dogs: LSA, ACA, Leiomyosarcoma

Cats: LSA, ACA, MCT

119
Q

Unlike other tumors, WHO staging for intestinal tumors depends on what rather than tumor size?

A

Depth of invasion

120
Q

What are negative prognostic indicators for dogs with intestinal LSA? Cats?

A

Dogs: failure to achieve remission, diarrhea at initial presentation (MST 2 mo)

Cats: poor response to chemo (MST<3.5mo vs >11mo if do respond)

121
Q

What is a negative prognostic indicator for dogs with ACA?

A

Being female (MST males 27days, females 28 days)

122
Q

From what cells do gastrointestinal stromal tumors originate? What is their prediliction site?

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

Cecum

123
Q

____ is a receptacle for metastasis and receives mets 2.5x more frequently than developing primary tumors in dogs. In cats primary tumors of this organ are more common than mets.

A

Liver

124
Q

What are the 4 general categories of primary liver tumors? What are these categories based on?

A

Hepatocellular

Bile duct

Neuroendocrine (carcinoid)

Mesenchymal

Based on cell of origin

125
Q

What do you call a primary hepatobiliary tumor that is large, solitary and confined to a single liver tobe? What tumor type is most commonly of this morphology?

A

Massive

Hepatocellular

126
Q

What is the morphologic descriptor for hepatocellular masses that are multifocal and involve all liver lobes? What tumor type is most commonly of this morphology?

A

Diffuse

Neuroendocrine

127
Q

What staging modality is recommended for staging an assessing resectability for large or infiltrative hepatobiliary tumors?

A

CT

128
Q

What is the most common liver tumor in dogs? Cats?

A

Dogs: HCC

Cats: Hepatocellular adenoma

129
Q

What dictates the treatability of hepatocellular tumors?

A

Morphologic subtype

130
Q

In division of the liver are complications of tumor removal most severe and why?

A

Right division

Vena cava runs through liver here

131
Q

T/F: MST for dogs who have had surgery to remove a liver mass is significantly higher than for patients who did not undergo surgery.

A

True (>1460 days vs 270 days)

132
Q

How much of the total mass of the liver can you remove and how long does it take for it to regain its original size?

A

75%

6 weeks

133
Q

What tumor is common in cats and account for >50% of all feline hepatobiliary tumors?

A

Hepatobiliary cystadenoma

134
Q

What is a risk factor for bile duct carcinomas in dogs and cats?

A

Trematode infestation

135
Q

What is carcinomatosis and in what species does it occur?

A

Diffuse intraperitoneal mets from bile duct carcinomas

Cats

136
Q

T/F: Chemotherapy and RT are not effective for bile duct carcinomas.

A

True

137
Q

How are neuroendocrine tumors differentiated from carcinomas? Does this tumor occur in younger or older animals? Is it common?

A

Silver stains

Younger

No, rare

138
Q

What is the non-invasive interventional radiologic technique used to isolate affected liver lobes microvascularly (i.e. stop blood supply)?

A

Chemoembolization

139
Q

Why does chemotherapy not work well for liver tumors? How do you bypass the issues that make chemo ineffective?

A

Rapid development of drug resistance

Bypass by using chemoembolization

140
Q

Why does radiation therapy not work well for liver tumors?

A

Liver cannot tolerate the high levels of radiation (>30 Gy) required to achieve remissions

141
Q

Where is the preferential site of metastasis for renal tumors?

A

Lungs

142
Q

What are the 4 general categories of primary renal tumors?

A

Renal tubular carcinomas

Transitional cell carcinomas

Nephrobastic tumors

Non-epithelial tumors (Sarcomas and LSA)

143
Q

What PSA occurs in GSD with renal cystadenocarcinoma?

A

Nodular dermatofibrosis

Females get uterine leiomyomas

144
Q

What is the gold standard for assessing and staging renal tumors?

A

Abdominal ultrasound + US guided FNA/cytology

145
Q

Why do we tend to shy away from using excretory urography for renal tumors?

A

Contrast agents are nephrotoxic and could compromise the healthy kidney

146
Q

Why would you want to use CT to work-up/stage a renal tumor?

A

To ensure the caudal vena cava is not being infltrated

147
Q

What is the most common renal tumor in dogs? Is it usually uni- or bilateral? What is the most common PNS associated with this tumor?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

Unilateral

Polycythemia

148
Q

Aside from the autosomal dominant cystadenocarcinomas that GSD get, what congenital tumor also affects young dogs? What is this tumor called in humans?

A

Nephroblastomas

Humans: Wilms’ tumor

149
Q

What is the most common renal tumor in cats? Why is staging very important? Is it usually uni- or bilateral?

A

Lymphoma

Staging important because LSA is often multicentric

ALWAYS consider disease bilateral

150
Q

How is renal lymphoma treated in cats

A

Multi-agent chemotherapy

(NEVER SURGERY)

151
Q

What is the treatment for renal carcinoma in dogs?

A

Surgery (resistant to chemo, hormonal therapy and RT)

152
Q

What symptoms accopany functional adrenocortical tumors originating in the zona glomerulosa?

A

Cushinoid symptoms

153
Q

Where do pheochromocytomas originate? What do they produce?

A

Medulla of adrenal gland

Epi, norepi, dopamine

154
Q

If a dog is asymptomatic and has an adrenal mass that is ____cm it is probably benign. Serial US should be done every ________ to monitor the mass and track its growth.

A

<2cm

3 months

155
Q

What tests can you use to confirm functionality of an adrenocortical ACA or adenoma?

A

ACTH stim

U:C ratio

156
Q

What test can you perform to confirm that an adrenocortical tumor is adrenal dependent?

A

Endogenous ACTH

157
Q

What test can you use to diagnose a pheochromocytoma?

A

Metanephrine/Normetaneohrine to Creatinine ratio (urine test)

158
Q

If you suspect that a tumor is a pheochromocytoma, what should you pre-treat the animal with before surgery? Why?

A

Phenoxybenzamine (q2-3 weeks)

To minimize the potential for surges in blood pressure during surgery

159
Q

T/F: The prognosis is the same regardness of whether an adrenal tumor is an ACA or an adenoma.

A

True

SAM 2 scs RUSVM (14 decks)

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