UROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnosis for TC

A

Diagnosis is made by ultrasound of the scrotum

CT scan of abdomen and pelvis assess lymph node spread

Serum Tumour Markers: BHCG
Alpha-feta-protein

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2
Q

What are the histology of testicular cancer?

A

Germ Cell 95%

Non Germ Cell 5%

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3
Q

What is the peak age of presentation for testicular cancer?

A

20-40 years

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4
Q

Certain histology types of TC are associated with ?

A

Serum tumour markers BHCG and alpha feta protein and Lactate dehydrogenase (espeically non seminomatous germ cell tumours)

Placental ALP increased in germ cell seminoma

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5
Q

Where do tumour arise and invade from in testicular cancer?

A

Arise from testis and can invade locally into tunica albuignea and the spermatic cord

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6
Q

testicular cancer: Where is distant spread initially to ?

Where does it spread in later stages

A

Initally to the lymph nodes (drainage of the testes is to the paraaortic lymph nodes at level of L2 (adjacent to kidneys)

From here to the thoracic duct and supraclavicular nodes

Later stages: Liver, lung and brain

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7
Q

Treatment for testicular cancer

A
radical orchidectomy (srugical removal of testis and spermatic cord) 
\+ radio and chemo (very radio and chemo sensitive)
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8
Q

where is incision made for radical orchidectomy?

A

superficial ring rather than scrotum to allow resection of the cord in patient

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9
Q

Scrotum: two main groups what are they

A
Malignant masses (germ cell or non germ cell) 
Acute Scrotum (truama, torsion or epididymitis)
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10
Q

In absence of trauma in acute scrotum, what are thw two differentials?

A

Torsion

Epididymitis

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11
Q

Torsion of scrotum: ages it can occur and most commonly when it occurs

A

10-40

Most commonly 10-25 years of age

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12
Q

What occurs with torsion of scrotum?

A

testis twist on spermatic cord

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13
Q

What clinical features of patient present with torsion of scortum?

A

Acute instant onset pain

vomiting and nausea

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14
Q

What is seen on examination in testicular torsino?

A

exmaination :

testis is boggy, high riding and frequently lying more HORIZONTAL than normal

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15
Q

If torsion is suspected: What is management?

A

Management: Surgical exploration and untwisting before ischaemia becomes irreversible

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16
Q

Epididmyoorchitis : in younger group and older group what are these associated with?

A

younger patient: STD should be excluded

older group: urinary tract infection and catheter preences

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17
Q

Onset and clinical examination of epididymoorchitis?

A

onset over few days

tender testis, boggy, and tight and cellulitic scrotal skin

Vital signs

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18
Q

What is treatment of epididmyoorchitis?

A

Antibiotics:
Oral: Ciproflaxin
IV: Gentamicin

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19
Q

What is used in diagnostic for epidiymoochritis?

A

Ultrasound to rule out torsion or abcess

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20
Q

Urinary incontinence definition

A

failure of the lower urinary tract to store urine

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21
Q

Lower urinary tract comprises of:

A

bladder + outlet

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22
Q

female lower urinary tract comprises

A

bladder
4cm urethra
external sphincter surrounding middle 2/4 of the urethra
pelvic floor muscles

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23
Q

what is female bladder outlet characterised by?

male?

A

LOW resistance and resistance decreases with age due to pelvic floor atrophy

HIGH resistance and resistance increases with age due to prostate age related benign hyertrophy

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24
Q

Male lower urinary tract comprises of

A

bladder neck
prostate
external sphincter
20cm urethra

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25
Q

VOIDING CYCLE:

storage and voiding phase

A

storage phase when urine is stored = around 300-400mls and 0 pressure without sensation of distension (3-4 hours) until contractile capacity is rached and pressure inc and associated with sesnation of distension

voiding phase: relaxation of external sphincter which relaxes, bladder contracts and empties under voluntary control

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26
Q

4 catergoris of incontinence

A

4 catergories include:

  1. stress
  2. urge
  3. mixed
  4. other - if no features of stress or urge consider uncommon such as fistula or overflow incontience
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27
Q

stress incontinence + pathogenesis

A

urine flow increased due to activity e.g. laughing/coughing

resitance in outlet reduced and overcome with inc intrabdominal pressure

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28
Q

urge incontinence

A

loss of urine due overwhelming urge to void during storage phase

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29
Q

etiology of stress incontience

A

middle aged women:
pelvic floor age related atrophy due to childbirth, chronic cough, chronic constipation, smoking

OTHERS:

injury during surgery
males (iatrogenic during prostate surgery)
Neurological: spina bifida /spinal injury - due to paralysis of sphincter and bladder neck

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30
Q

investgations stress incotinence

A

urodynamic studies (only if surgery contemplated

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31
Q

Treatment stress inctontinece

A

pelvic floor exercises
pubovaginal sling surgery
artifical urinary sphincter

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32
Q

Grading on stress incontinence

A

graded on acitivty:
on trampoline: mild
coughing or laughing: mild
rolling in bed/walking downhill:severe

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33
Q

Fistula: is this rare or common cause of incontinence

A

rare

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34
Q

most common fistula presenting as incotinince?

A

vestigovaginal fistula

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35
Q

vestigovaginal fistula presentation

A

dribbling incontinence

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36
Q

urge incontinence pathogenesis

A

increases in bladder pressure during storage phase, which causes unstable contractions of bladder and loss of compliance (inapporpriate level of pressure for amount of urine)

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37
Q

What is the etiology in neurologically normal patients for urge incontinence

A

Idiopathic bladder instability (common)
interstitial cystitis
radiation injury
carcinoma in situ (TCC)

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38
Q

What is the etiology in neurologically abnormal patients for urge incontinence

A

poor compliance of bladder and instability due to:

UMN spinal cord injury
Parkinsons
Multiple Sclerosis
Stroke (CVA)

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39
Q

Investigations for urge incontinence

A
  1. MSU to exclude infection
  2. Post void residual to exclude retention
  3. cytology if patient over 60 + haematuria
  4. renal US if upper tract reflux
  5. urodynmaics if resistance to anticholinergis or in context of nueorlogical disease.
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40
Q

Treatment for urge incontinence

A

Fluid management (over hydration and iduretics avoid)
Anticholinergics sucha s oxybutin
Botox
Bladder augmentation

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41
Q

If men have urge incontince day and night what needs to be done and why?

A

Vesicouteric junction - if pressures are high enough to overcome a high resistance male outlet, they may be high enough to overcome vesicoreteric junction)

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42
Q

Mixed incontience what is this ?

who is this more common in

A

mixed features of urge and stress incontinence:

more common in women

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43
Q

Other incontinence

A

If patients do not describe either stress or urge incontinence, they usually describe constant dribbling,
or incontinence without sensation ( just find myself wet.) This may be a reflection of severe stress
incontinence when any slight movement results in leakage. Urodynamics is required to sort this out.
Alternative diagnoses to be considered are:

overflow incontinence or fistula

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44
Q

What is overflow incontinence ?

A

overflow of urine with patients with chronic retention

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45
Q

how does overflow inctonence present?

A

Involuntary leakage of urine that results as a complication of urinary retention

NEW noctural urinating in elderly w symptoms of chronic retention

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46
Q

risk factors for fistula

A
complicated pelvic surgery 
chronic inflammation (Diverticular inflammatory mass or radiation) 
pelvic cancer (squamous cell)
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47
Q

Investigations for fistual

A

Cytoscopy MRI

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48
Q

treatment for fistula

A

catheter + surgery

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49
Q

chronic retention risk factors

A

eldelry
male
LMN
diabetic

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50
Q

investigations overflow incontence

A

post void residuals
upper tract US
serum creatinine level, which may be elevated if there is urinary retention (overflow bladder

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51
Q

Overflow inctonience is complicaiton of chornic retnetion: What are other complications ?

A
Bilateral hydropnephorisis (kidney swelling) and hydroureter (ureter swelling)  indicating g obstructive uropathy and renal failure (
urine is unable to drain into the blader because the bladder is always full and the pressure gradient even
with peristalsis has been obliterated
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52
Q

overflow incotninence surgery

A

catheterisation + TURP Males + surgery females(vaginal sling

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53
Q

Paediatric: Phimosis What is this?

A

inability to retract the foreskin (prepuce) covering the head (glans) of the penis - can be pathological or physiological)

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54
Q

What is phimosis most common reason for ?

A

circumscicion Although recurrent balanitis is also indication (inflammation of the glans)

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55
Q

at birth: adhesions present between glans penis and foreskin however when does seperationg occur ?

A

occurs at birth and continues to seperate - finishing around aged 2 . 9some adolescent boys retain adhesions)

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56
Q

Are adhesions of prepuce normal?

A

Adhesions are normal and should be treated only if they persist into adolescence and cause problems with masturbation and sexual intercourse

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57
Q

uf a non retractile foreskin is free of symptoms and self limiting, is circumscision needed?

A

NO

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58
Q

what is difference between non retractile forskin and phimosis ?

A

non retractile - ballons with urination however on examination urethral meatus is visible and with time will open and allow foreskin to retract normally. Phimosis (true) is where physically cannot usually due to scarring or balantitis

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59
Q

true phimosis treatment ?

what is the two indications

A

circumscision

steroid creams

recurrent balantitis
restrction to urine flow

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60
Q

Hypospadias what is this ?

A

condition in which the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis instead of at the tip.(underdevelopment of the urethra)

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61
Q

Hyposapdias how common?

surgery cure rate

A

2 in 1000 males

cure rate = 90%

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62
Q

in hypospadias: what is important to remember about circumscion?

A

circumcision should be deferred as the foreskin may be utilised in the correction)

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63
Q

cryptorchidism; What is this?

A

failure of one or both testes to fully descend into scrotum

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64
Q

what is normal for testicular descent

A

descend through inguinal canal in 7th month in urtero

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65
Q

Where can testes be located in cryptotorchidism?

A
Normal path of descent (inguinal canal (80%) + abdo) 
abnormal path (ectopoic testis) such as femoral perineal and suprapubic
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66
Q

What features are associated with crytoptorchidism?

A

low birth weight + prematurity

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67
Q

diagnosis of cryptotorchidism

A

tetes absent or cannot be manipulateed into scrotum with gentle pressure

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68
Q

KIDNEY STONES: What is most common type ?

A

calcium oxolate and calcium phosphate (80%)

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69
Q

What are the second most common two types of kindey stones?

What is least common?

A

uric acid %5 - hyperuricoasemia due to : excessive purine intake, definiciies in xanthine oxidase and myeloproliferative disorders

5% struvite (mg phosphate and amonia

cyestine 2%

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70
Q

Renal stones: Etiology is usually unknown but what is common precipitate

A

dehydration

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71
Q

Ureteric stones: What is presntation?

if fever present?

A

ureteric sspasm + obstruction presents as renal colic:

Lateralised loin pain colicky that radiation to the groin (testes/penis and vulva)
Onset random
comes in waves
Severe and nausea, vomiting and pallor

Fever present: must rule out pyelonephritis

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72
Q

Renal colic is most frequent?

A

urological cause of acute abdominal pain

73
Q

Where are three narrowest passage points for UPper tract stones?

A

pelvicoureteric junction
pelvic brim (where ureter crosses common iliac artery bifurcation)
vesicoureteric junction

74
Q

What is ACUTE treatment for renal stone simple and complicated:

A

Simple:
Supportive IV fluids
Analgesia (diclofenac 75mg IM)
alpha blocker 2mg doxazosin)

Complicated Stone:
Supportive IV fluids 
Analgesia (diclofenac 75mg IM) 
IV antibiotics Gentamicin
MET (medical expulsion therapy)  a- blockers (doxazocin 2mg) and calcium channel blockers
to facilitate stone  
passage (stones <5mm can typically pass through urethra 
Urgent Nephrostomy tube 
Admit to Urology Ward
75
Q

what size stones can typically pass through urethra?

76
Q

What is interventional treatment for stone?
this is immediately when obstruction is dangerous

first line:
second line

A

when obstruction is dangerous such as sepsis, renal failure or hydronephrosis :

first Line: ureteric stent via cytoscopy

second line: image guided percutaneous neprhostomy

77
Q

diagnosis of renal stones: Labs

what are some additional labs that would be needed in recurrent calcium stone formers or paediatric cases?

Imaging:

A

Labs: CBC (WBC to assess infection) , U and E, ca2+ and phosphate , uric acid and urinalysis (routine and miscroscopy + culture and sensitivity)

Additional Labs: PTH and electrolytes (inc oxalate, citrate and cysteine)

Imaging:
KUB non contrast CT urogram (GOLD STANDARD)
follow up: KUB Xray

Paeds/obstetric: abdo US to avoid radiation

78
Q

what will urine analysis potentially see with stones?

A

gross or microscopic haematuria (85%) and an altered urine PH.

79
Q

A ureteric stone may? (3 things)

A
pass spontaneously (<4mm 90% chance 6 weeks) 
Lodged in ureter and pain controlled with analgesia
Become lodged in ureter and patient develops complications of obstructed stone
80
Q

What are 3 complications of obstructing ureteric stone?

A
  1. unrelenting pain
  2. urosepsis
  3. renal failure (single kindey or pre existing impaired function)
81
Q

Srugical Stone treatment

  1. Kidney stones
  2. ureteral stones
  3. Bladder stones
A
Kidney ESWL extra-corporeal showack lithotripsy (ESWL) uf stone <2cm ni renal pelvis 
Percutaenous neprholithotomy (PNL) if stone >2cm LARGE STONES  

ureteral stones
ESWL
Uterescopy stone fragmentation/lithotripsy

Bladder:
transurethral cystolitholapaxy)

82
Q

Stone prevention

A

Stone prevention
High fluid intake > 3L orally throughout the day
Normal calcium
Lowered sodium (salt and processed foods)
Referral to nephrology for 24 hr urine if recurrent stone formation

83
Q

what is most common diagnosed male cancer in NZ ?

A

prostate cancer

84
Q

what is second common cuase of cancer death in NZ?

A

second equal - equal to colo-rectal malignancy in men

85
Q

PSA: what causes increased PSA

A

non psecific, can increase with BPH, prostatitis (infection), trauma, and instrumentation such as cathertisiation, carcinoma

86
Q

what is diagnosis of prostate cancer based on?

A

both DRE and PSA blood test:

PSA greater than 4 on two or more occasions combined with palable nodule during the DRE then tyou should proceed to the next step:

87
Q

What is the next step if PSA is greater than 4 on two seperate occasions as well as palpable nodule ?

A

ultrasound guided transrectal biopsy

88
Q

what is function of PSA?

A

fertility and to make ejaculate less viscous and able to reach cervic

89
Q

screening guidelines for prostate cancer?

A

should begin earlier in african american men

only useful if men have more than 10 years to live as unlikely to be clinically signigcant within 10 years therefore 50-75 is age range

90
Q

PSA less than 4

A

prostate cancer uncommon

91
Q

PSA between 4 and 10

A

organ confined and will be present in 25% of biopsies

92
Q

PSA greater than 20

A

high grade

93
Q

4 main levels of treatment prostate cancer

A

watch and wait (many grow slowly

active surveillance interventional biopsies and MRI scans

radical treatment - radical prostatectomy
external beam readiation and brachytherapy (radioactive seeds) 10+ years

Hormonal treatment bilateral orchidectomy + anti-androgens such as flutamide

Supportive care

94
Q

risk of prostatetcomy

A

impotentce and inctonitence

95
Q

tightest point and most common place for stones

96
Q

3 layers of bladder and cell types

A

mucosa
lamina propria
detrusor muscle

Mucosa: whole urinary tract is transitional cell carcinoma

97
Q

Pressure in renal pelvis is higher than in ureters. pressure gradient alone not enough to conduct urine: what is needed?

A

The ureters are peristaltic and this together with
the gradient conducts boluses of urine to the bladder. ( Pathophysiology of congenital PUJ obstruction
nicely illustrates this ).

98
Q

asymptomatic macroscopic (visible) haematuria: what % chance of malignancy?

vs

MICROSCOPIC

99
Q

which cases of haematuria should be investigated?

A

all macroscopic

microscopic only those 2/3 shown 20 million RBCS or more per litre of urine

100
Q

history haematuria 3 key questions

A

1/ visible or not

  1. painful or note
  2. where in the stream did this occur
101
Q

painful haematuria more likely

painless

A

infection /stones

painless = malignancy

102
Q

examiniation haematuria

A

full uro + abdo + prostate

103
Q

Haematuria: investigations:

A

full imaging CT or US of upper tract

cystoscopcy of lower

104
Q

before cytoscopcy what screening is undertaken for haematuria?

A

CX triage test (to rule out bladder cancer) if below 4 + radiology normal no cysotosxcopy needed

105
Q

3 associated diseases with RCC

A

Hippell Lindauer
polycystic kidney
renal cystic disease of CKD

106
Q

what is variocele?

What does this indicate?

A

variocele is enlargement of veins in scrotum

  • indicates RCC as does any other abnormal abdo massess
107
Q

What can RCCS produce?

A

paraneoplastic syndromes causing anaemia, hypercalcimia, polycythemia, liver dysfunction ( Stauffer’s syndrome)

108
Q

Management

A

radical open nephrectomy
laparscopic nephrectomy
partial nephrectomy

  • TCC ureter removed to avoide urothelium recurrence
109
Q

what is haematuria CT

A

CT taken ebfore and after injection of contrast

110
Q

Investigations RCC

A

urinarlysis + cytology

Haematuria CT, Chest Xray , LFTS, Serum creatine and calcium

111
Q

if ALP is elevated in RCC?

A

OR bony pain must do Bone scan

112
Q

Spread of RCC

A

immediately to adacent organs
tumour thrombus spread to renal vein, IVC and aorta
distant spread: para aortic nodes, lung and bone

113
Q

does RCC respond to radiation?

114
Q

survival RCC :

A

80% if <7cm and only in one kidney
lymph node spread drops to 20%
mets = v few

115
Q

Ta Bladder

A

superficial transitional cell caricnoma: confined to mucosa low rate invasion

116
Q

T1 bladder

A

high risk TCC invades lamina propria still good outcome

117
Q

T2 bladder

A

invasive bladder cancer through detrusor muscle

118
Q

age of TCC

female to male

A

rarely under 40

usually over 65

119
Q

what is MOST significant risk of transitional cell caricnoma ?

What do patients presentw ith ?

A

SMOKING and male

painless macroscopic haematuria

120
Q

investigations

bloods
imaging
labs
procedure

A

CBC
urinalysis + cytology
renal ultrasound? ct abdo
cytoscopy + biopsy gold standard

121
Q

Superficial (non muscle invasive treatment of TCC

A

transurethral resection of bladder lesions (TURBT) + intravesical chemo BCG or mitomycin

122
Q

Invasive TCC treatment and prognosis

A

50% 5 year mortality
radical cystectomy
OR if not fit enough TURBT + radiotherapy intravesciel

123
Q

cystecomty: what are outcomes

A
stoma and urine bag (ileal conduit)
orthotopic neobladder (using bowel no external bag)
124
Q

UTI simple: two commonest pathogens

A

E coli

Enterococcus faecialis

125
Q

urosepsis: what indicates bacteraemia?

what are first signs of sepsis?

A

fever + rigors

hypotension, reactive tachycardia and reduced sats

126
Q

UTI uncomplicated: Who does this occur in

A

young sexually active females

127
Q

complicated UTI: Who does this occur in

A

rest of cases

128
Q

uncomplicated UTI investigations?

129
Q

complicated LOWER UTI

A

urine culture required

130
Q

complicated UPPER UTI

A

CBC, U and E urinarlysis RM + Culture and sensitivty +/- blood cultures

U/S (abcess)

131
Q

clnical presentaiton lower uti

upper uti

A

lower uti - dysuria, urgency, haematuria, suprapubic pain

upper UTI: same but more severe fever chills, + flank pain

132
Q

uncomplicated lower uti

A

empirical nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim (NOT TO BE USED IN FIRST TRIMESTER AS IS FOLATE ANTAGONIST AND CAN CAUSE NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS

133
Q

uncopmlicted upper UTI

A

fluids, analgesia + admission

IV gentamicin + co-trimaxole 10 days

134
Q

complicated UTI

A

fluids, analgesia + admission

IV gentamicin + co-trimaxole 10 days but TREAT FOR LONFER 2 weeks and guide by empiiric

135
Q

recurrent uncomplicated UTI indicates?

treatment

A

colonic colonistaiton get urine culture and use prophylatic antbitiocs for 12 weeks

136
Q

usually upper urinaty tract infection is due to ascending, what is the one exception to this?

A

diabetic abcess = haematogenous spread

137
Q

1) What is the biggest risk factor for developing female urinary incontinence?
Age
Number of complicated vaginal deliveries
BMI
Number of uncomplicated vaginal deliveries

138
Q
The classic ’triad’ of symptoms of renal cell carcinoma does NOT include which of the following?
Haematuria
Flank pain
Proteinuria
A palpable mass
A

proteinuria: classic triad is haematuria, flank pain and mass

139
Q

what is the genetic disease associated with RCC?

A

Von HIppel Lindaeur disease

140
Q
Which of the following is not a cause of elevated PSA?
Increased BMI
Prostate inflammation
Age
Prostate cancer
A

increased BMI

141
Q

PSA has a high sensitivity and specificity for it to be used as a routine population screening test
Routine PSA testing decreases prostate cancer-related mortality
Men aged between 50-75 are most likely to benefit from PSA cancer screening
A PSA value of >20ng/L is diagnostic for prostate cancer

142
Q
Which of the following microbes is not a common cause of UTIs?
Staph saprophyticus
Klebsiella
Strep pyogenes
E coli
Enterococcus faecalis
A

strep pyogenes

143
Q

) Which of the following would be sound advice for a patient suffering from recurrent UTIs?
Improving personal hygiene
Using contraceptives other than spermicides
Not ‘holding in’ their urine for too long
Keeping well hydrated
All of the above

A

all of above

144
Q

How does testicular cancer usually present?
Painless lump which transilluminates
Painless lump which does not transilluminate
Usually painless lump which is hard/craggy
Painless lump which is separable from the testis

A

painless lump that is seperateable from testis

145
Q

Choose the statement that is most true
Biopsy is an appropriate investigation for testicular cancer
U/S can definitively diagnose testicular cancer
Testicular cancer which has metastasised to the brain can be cured
Contraception cannot occur immediately following chemotherapy for testicular cancer

A

Testicular cancer which has metastasised to the brain can be cured

146
Q

4) Which of the following is not a cause of hypercalcaemia in patients with RCC?

Lytic bone metastases
Over-production of PTHrP (parathyroid hormone related
Stauffer syndrome (hepatitis - assocatied with disturbed LFTS)
Increased prostaglandin production

A

tauffer syndrome = hepatic T cell mediated hepatitis

147
Q

Urodynamics in stress incontinence:

A

reduced resistance and so when intra abdominal increases this causes overflow

148
Q

Urodynamics in urge inctonteince

A

increasde detrusor muscle acitvity + increased bladder pressure

149
Q
A urodynamic stress test showed incontinence with increased vaginal pressure and no increase in true detrusor pressure. This is consistent with:
Stress incontinence
Urge incontinence
Mixed incontinence
Neurological abnormality
A

stress incontinence

150
Q

PUJ definition:

A

obstruction fo flow of urine from renal pelvis to proximal ureter

151
Q

What is PUJ most common cause of ?

A

most common cause of antenatal hydronephrosis

152
Q

Who is antenatal hydronephrosis most common in ?

A

most common in males compared to females

153
Q

What kidney is PU more likely to affect?

What % is bilateral?

A

left kidney 70%

10% cases bilateral

154
Q

Wjat is most common congenital cause of PUJ obstruction?

A

Aperistaltic segment of the ureter most Common

155
Q

common acquired causes of PUJ obstruction?

A

PUJ obstruction - stones, structures , malignancy

156
Q

diagnosis infant PUJ

A

ultrasound scan : hydronephrosisi is seen

157
Q

treatment: PUJ

A

surveillance: USS + MAG3 (isotope renography scan)

pyeloplasty

158
Q

indications for pyeloplasty

A

pain infection and stones

increased hydroneprhorisis and decreased renal function

159
Q

diagnosis infant PUJ

A
FLANK MASS
Uti 
haematuria 
flank mass
failure to thrive
160
Q

diagmosis adult PUJ

A

ABDO PAIN
Dietl’s crisis: Intermittent abdominal or flank pain that may worsen during brisk diuresis, for example, after consumption of caffeine or alcohol. +/- nausea and vomiting.

161
Q

what is rountine with PUJ

A

Routine antenatal ultrasound scans means that the majority of congenital PUJ obstruction are diagnosed antenatally. Asymptomatic cases may be detected incidentally

162
Q

in PUJ if less than 10% of kidney function left: what should occrur

A

neprhectomy

163
Q

neonatal hydronephrosis all patients diagnosed need

A

US

MCU -cysto-urothgram xray

164
Q

Vesicoureteric junction reflux
in neonatal preiods what is distribution?

In later life what is distribution?

A

neonatal = equal in sexes

later life = more common in females

165
Q

Veiscouteric presentation in childhood

A

comment UTIS

166
Q

Treatment of Vesicouteric relfux conservative and why

A

tends to be conservative in nature as reflux stops spontaneously in large proportino of patients

faily co trimazole

167
Q

Surgical treatment of vesicourtereic reflux

A

ureteral re-implanation

168
Q

what 3 elements should be taken into account with reflux?

A

REflux leads to infection which leads to bladder instability, dysfunctional voiding and therefore further reflux

169
Q

what is one recent advance of treatment of vesicoutereic reflux?

A

Endoscopic injfection of teflon in submucosa (concerns of polyethelene particle migration a concern)

170
Q

outflow obstruction: presentation in males

A

generally outflow obstruction result of strictures

171
Q

outflor obstruction male or female disease

A

male disease

172
Q

mostt common cause of outflow obstruction is?

A

BPH in ageing male

173
Q

BPH treatment with outflow obstruction medication

A

alpha blockers

alpha 5 reductase inhibitros (Tamulosin)

174
Q

BPH surgical treatment:

Name three early complications of TURP

A

TURP

  1. acute hyponatraemia from irrigating fluids
  2. bleeding
  3. urosepsis infected urine due to urine contact with open spaces
175
Q

what incidences increases urosepsis following TURP ?

A

pre op instrumentation

176
Q

prostate cancer: spread

A

lymph nodes first then bones principally

177
Q

indications for flexible cytoscopy with outflow obstruction ?

A

over 50 impaired bladder empyting
risk factor for structure
rapid onset symptoms
failure to respond to therapies

178
Q

s bladder neck dyssynergia treatment (cause of obstruction to outflow)

A

endoscopic bladder neck incision

179
Q

Late complications of prostate cancer

A

stricture
retrograde ejaculation
incontinence
recurrence (10%)