Ortho Questions Flashcards

1
Q

90% of clinical cases result from prolapses at L4/5 and L5-S1 levels.
T or F

A

True = L5-S1 most common

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2
Q

Loss of the knee jerk is a good sign of L5-S1 disc prolapse.

A

false

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3
Q

What is the knee jerk myotome?

A

L4/5

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4
Q

Bladder dysfunction and paraplegia may result from disc prolapse and L5-S1?

A

true

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5
Q

Symptoms and signs of Disc prolapse will settle with conservative treatment in greater than 70% of cases.

A

true

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6
Q

Concerning the management of a compound tibial fracture:

Primary suture should not normally be carried out if the wound is more than 8 hours old.

A

true

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7
Q

Concerning the management of a compound tibial fracture:

Appropriate anti-tetanus prophylaxis should be prescribed.

A

true

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8
Q

tibial fracture: Ampicillin is the best choice of antibiotic to prevent infection.

A

false

flucloxacillin

IV 2 g every six hours

if concerned about MRSA add vancomycin
1000 to 2000 mg 12-hourly

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9
Q

External fixation of the fracture allows good access for continued wound management.

A

true

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10
Q

Concerning lateral dislocation of the patella:

it occurs more often in females true or false

A

true

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11
Q

Concerning lateral dislocation of the patella: It is frequently bilateral.

A

true

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12
Q

Concerning lateral dislocation of the patella: Fractures do not occur with this injury.

A

false (can fracture the patella)

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13
Q

Concerning lateral dislocation of the patella: Fractures do not occur with this injury.

A

false (can fracture the patella)

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14
Q

Concerning lateral dislocation of the patella: In the acute stage would be associated with a haemarthrosis.

A

true

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15
Q

Concerning osteoarthritis of the hip: Pyrophosphate crystals are always present in the synovium.

A

False

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16
Q

what are pyrophosphate crystals in synovium a sign of ?

A

Pseudogout (or “false gout”) is a form of arthritis that results from deposits of calcium pyrophosphate crystals (its medical term is calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal deposition disease, or CPPD). It commonly affects the knees and wrists.

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17
Q

Concerning osteoarthritis of the hip: Subchondral cysts are a typical radiological feature.

A

true

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18
Q

Concerning osteoarthritis of the hip: It may occur as early as the third decade, after congenital dislocation of the hip.

A

true

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19
Q

The typical patient has an abduction and internal rotation contracture of the
hip.

A

false - external rotation and adduction

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20
Q

Patient with carpal tunnel:

Wasting of the hypothenar eminence may occur

A

false

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21
Q

Median Nerve Motor Innervation:

A

Flexor Carpi Radialis
Flexor Digitorium Superficialis + lateral half FDP
Palmaris Longus
Pronator Teres
(supplies all in anterior forearm except FCU + Medial half of FDP)
Thenar eminence: LOAF muscles

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22
Q

Hypothenar muscles

A

Muscles of the 5th finger (opponens digiti minimi, Abductor digiti minimi and flexor digiti minimi)

23
Q

which nerve innervates hypothenar muscles

A

Ulnar nerve

24
Q

considering patient with carpal tunnel: Abnormal sensation around the fingernail of the middle finger. true or false

25
Q

Injury to Median Nerve will cause:

A

Sensation abnormalities of lateral 3.5 fingers (thumb) on palmar and dorsal distal half of 3.5 fingers)

Weak OKAY sign: Due to weakness of the thenar eminence + lateral two lumbricals and loss of FDS + FDP to index finger)

26
Q

considering patient with carpal tunnel: weakness of thumb abduction true or false

27
Q

considering patient with carpal tunnel: A positive phalens test true or false

28
Q

Concerning slipped upper femoral epiphysis: There may be a history of knee pain

A

true (referred knee pain with painful limp )

29
Q

Concerning slipped upper femoral epiphysis: Often associated with shortening and loss of internal rotation of the affected limb.

A

true (restricted movement internal rotation) and often holding in passive external rotation

30
Q

Concerning slipped upper femoral epiphysis: Tend to occur in adolescent males with a tendency to hypogonadism and obesity.

31
Q

Concerning slipped upper femoral epiphysis: more common in males or females?

32
Q

Concerning slipped upper femoral epiphysis: Often associated with loss of flexion of the ipsilateral knee.

A

false (can get knee PAIN but not restricted movement)

33
Q

Which of the following nerve and muscle combinations are true?

Median Nerve = pronator teres and FCR

34
Q

Which of the following nerve and muscle combinations are true?

Radial nerve - triceps and wrist extensors.

35
Q

Which of the following nerve and muscle combinations are true?

Median nerve - pronator terres and flexor carpi radialis.

36
Q

Which of the following nerve and muscle combinations are true?

Common peroneal nerve - tibialis anterior and peroneus brevis.

37
Q

Which of the following nerve and muscle combinations are true?Ulnar nerve - flexor carpi ulnaris and adductor pollicis.

What does ulnar nerve innervate?

A

true

FCU
Palmaris brevis

Almost all of hand:
medial half of FDP, adductor pollis, interossei muscles, hypothenar eminence (muscles associated with the little finger) as well as medial two lumbricals

Hypothenar muscles (a group of muscles associated with the little finger)
Medial two lumbricals (3 and 4th)
Adductor pollicis
Palmar and dorsal interossei of the hand

Palmaris brevis

Dorsal and palmar interossei
3rd and 4th lumbricals
Adductor pollucis brevis
Palmaris brevis

Opponens digiti minimi
Flexor digiti minimi
abductor digiti minimi

Flexor Carpi ulnaris
Medial half of the FDP

38
Q

Axillary Nerve motor innervation

A

Teres minor and deltoid

39
Q

A 50 year old male develops acute agitation and decreased oxygen saturation following a femoral shaft fracture. Which of the following are true: A blood transfusion is likely to help.

A

false (decrease in oxygen sats indicates not blood loss alone - potentially PE due to decrease air entrey)

40
Q

A 50 year old male develops acute agitation and decreased oxygen saturation following a femoral shaft fracture. Which of the following are true: Pain relief in the form of Opioids is required to control the agitation.

A

false - Analgesic required, not necessarily opiods

41
Q

A 50 year old male develops acute agitation and decreased oxygen saturation following a femoral shaft fracture.
Is high flow oxygen treatment harmful?

A

False - it is INDICATED

42
Q

A 50 year old male develops acute agitation and decreased oxygen saturation following a femoral shaft fracture.
Infection should be considered the most likely cause.

A

false –> Probably PE

43
Q

Concerning spinal osteomyelitis in adults:

Bacteriological diagnosis can be obtained by needle aspiration of the disc space.

44
Q

Concerning spinal osteomyelitis in adults:Between 40% and 50% of cases have had urinary infection or instrumentation.

45
Q

Concerning spinal osteomyelitis in adults:

The radiological appearances cannot be distinguished from tuberculosis.

46
Q

Changes of disc space loss and vertebral erosion are apparent before symptoms arise.

A

The correct answer is ‘False’.

Changes are late

47
Q

Vetebral levels:

C3

A

hyoid bone

48
Q

c4

A

bifurcation of common carotid + thyroid cartilage

49
Q

L2

A

renal veins

50
Q

L3

51
Q

L4

A

iliac crest

52
Q

S1

A

Sacral promontory

53
Q

T12

A

Aortic hiatus of the diaphragm