Urology Flashcards

1
Q

causes of haematuria

A
tumours
infection
trauma
stones
nephrological causes (e.g. IgA nephropathy)
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2
Q

what type of cancer is a renal cell carcinoma?

A

adenocarcinoma of the renal parenchyma
derived from the PCT epithelium
~70% are clear cell which are associated with Von-Hippel Lindau disease

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3
Q

what is the classic triad of pt presentation of RCC?

A

seen in 10% –> loin pain, haematuria and a palpable mass

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4
Q

what paraneoplastic syndromes can RCC cause?

A
Stauffer's syndrome (abnormal LFTs)
hypercalcaemia 
hypertension 
polycythaemia/anaemia 
pyrexia
amenorrhoea, baldness, Cushings
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5
Q

what Ix are needed for visible haematuria?

A

FBC, U&Es, clotting
USS, CT Urogram with contrast
flexible cystoscopy with LA
cystoscopy and washout under GA if actively bleeding

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6
Q

risk factors for RCC

A

smoking
obesity
FH
genetic syndromes

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7
Q

how is RCC diagnosed?

A

USS initially and then CT with contrast to confirm and stage

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8
Q

staging of RCC

A

T1a = <4cm (needs partial nephrectomy and surveillance)
T2a = 7-10cm (laparoscopic radical nephrectomy)
T2b + >10cm (open radical nephrectomy)
T3a = perinephric fat and renal vein invasion (open radical nephrectomy)
T3b/c = involvement of the IVC (open nephrectomy and IVC thrombectomy/ resection)
T4 = into adjacent structures (open nephrectomy and resection of other structures and LNs)
N1 = regional lymph node spread (open nephrectomy and resection of other structures and LNs)
M1 = metastasis (nephrectomy and resection of mets, also give tyrosine kinase inhibitors)

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9
Q

what is Upper Tract Transitional Cell Carcinoma

A

an uncommon cancer of the renal pelvis
small and low grade tumours can be treated with laser ablation
non-metastatic tumours can be treated with nephroureterectomy laproscopically

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10
Q

penile cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma that is very rare
needs to be excised –> circumcision, glansectomy and partial/total penectomy plus inguinal/pelvis and sentinel node biopsy
if superficial can give topical 5 F-U as an adjuvant

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11
Q

what are the different types of bladder cancer?

A

~80% are TCC
20% are SCC
1% are adenocarcinomas

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12
Q

how is a bladder cancer assessed?

A

usually detected by flexible cystoscopy and then initial management is by a transurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURBT)
TURBT allows the histological assessment of type, grading and staging

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13
Q

what is the treatment of bladder cancer?

A

if a SCC or adenocarcinoma then they are invasive so must have radical treatment and scan for any metastasis
if a superficial TCC:
low risk - cytoscopic surveillance
intermediate risk - 6x weekly mitomycin instillations
high risk - BCG regimen (reduces progression), mitomycin (reduces recurrence) +/- cystectomy
if muscle invasive - organ confined then neoadjuvant chemo, cystectomy and chemoradiotherapy, if metastatic then palliative chemotherapy to slow progression of the disease

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14
Q

how does the BCG regimen used to treat high risk bladder TCCs work?

A

BCG (same as TB vaccines) regimen is given intravesically to stimulate type IV hypersensitivity reaction in order to active immune cells to the tumour antigen

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15
Q

what are the side effects of the BCG regimen?

A
dysuria
frequency 
urgency 
UTIs
haematuria 
rarely - systemic BCGosis, bladder contracture and ureteric stenosis can occur
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16
Q

what is a cystoprostatectomy?

A

a radical cystectomy in a male

involves removal of the bladder +/- urethra

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17
Q

what is an anterior exenteration?

A

a radical cystectomy in a female

involves removal of the bladder, uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries and anterior vaginal wall

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18
Q

types of urinary diversion

A

ileal conduit
neobladder
continent cutaneous diversion

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19
Q

what is an ileal conduit?

A

ureters are connected to a section of the small bowel which is brought out as a stoma and drains into a bag

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20
Q

what is a neobladder?

A

“new bladder” made of small bowel so the pt “voids” urine
CI if the tumour extends to the urethra
neobladder needs to be stretched so pt has to set alarms to void every 3 hours initially, it can kink so pts need to manipulate it to release the urine

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21
Q

what is a continent cutaneous diversion aka Indianna Pouch?

A

a pouch formed from the right hemicolon
the stoma is catheterisable
CI in those unable to self-catheterise, renal and hepatic impairment, and if their is inadequate small bowel e.g. in Crohn’s

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22
Q

risks of continent urinary diversions

A
hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis 
perforation 
stones
mucus
incontinence (leaking)
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23
Q

what type of cancer is prostate cancer?

A

an adenocarcinoma

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24
Q

why aren’t men routinely screened for CaP?

A

as 80% of men >80 have prostate cancer but only 3% will die from it
screening would result in over diagnosis, overtreatment and reduced quality of life for those who would have died with their cancer and not from it

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25
Q

risk factors for CaP

A

age
FH
genetics (HPC1 and BRCA)
ethnic origin

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26
Q

what is PSA?

A

prostate specific antigen - a serine protease (seminal anticoagulant)

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27
Q

what can cause a raised PSA?

A

CaP (if >100 then likely to be metastatic)
UTI
BPH
urinary retention

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28
Q

ix for CaP

A

PSA
DRE
MRI
TRUS biopsy

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29
Q

what is the Gleason Grading (GG) used for?

A

to grade CaP
a grade of 3-5 is given based on differentiation, overall grade is the sum of the two highest found

low grade = GG 3+3=6
intermediate grade = GG 3+4=7
high grade = GG 4+3=7 or above

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30
Q

what are the treatment options for CaP?

A

if low grade then active surveillance/watchful waiting
radical prostatectomy (risk of incontinence and impotence)
external beam radiotherapy and hormones
brachytherapy (implantation of radioactive seeds/wires)
HIFU and cryotherapy (fringe/experimental)
if metastatic androgen deprivation therapy

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31
Q

what does androgen deprivation therapy for metastatic CaP consist of?

A

bicalutamine for 28 days
LHRH analogue injection after 14 days and then every 3/6 months
early docetaxel chemotherapy

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32
Q

how do you treat castrate resistant CaP?

ie PSA continues to be raised despite hormone therapy

A
add bicalutamide 
dexamethasone
docetaxel chemotherapy 
abiracterone/ enzalutamide
palliative care
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33
Q

testicular cancer types

A

are uncommon

are mainly Germ cell (non-seminomatous and seminoma) but can be lymphoma and Leydig Cell

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34
Q

non-seminomatous vs seminoma Germ Cell testicular cancer

A

NSGCT - raised AFP (specific), raised LDH and raised beta-HCG
seminoma (more common) - raised beta-HCG in 10% and raised LDH

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35
Q

O/E what is seen in testicular cancer?

A

a solid mass that is inseparable from the testis

need to do an USS and CT chest/abdo/pelvis to stage

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36
Q

what is the survival rate for testicular cancer with treatment?

A

98%

37
Q

how is testis cancer treated?

A

inguinal orchidectomy
retroperitoneal LN dissection for NSGCT
prophylactic/ if metastatic disease give chemo

38
Q

why are the testis removed via the inguinal canal in testicular cancer?

A

scrotal lymphatics = inguinal LN
testis lymphatic = paraaortic LN

testis are removed via the inguinal canal in order to maintain the integrity of the scrotal lymphatics and prevent spread during incision

39
Q

what are the risk factors for a UTI?

A
being female - shorter urethra length 
pregnancy 
UT malformation/obstruction 
bladder outlet obstruction 
calculi 
bladder diverticulum 
catheters
spinal injury 
trauma 
malignancy 
DM 
immunosuppression
40
Q

what is the definition of a recurrent UTI

A

> 2 infections in 6 months or >3 infections in 1 year

41
Q

how would you manage recurrent UTIs

A
oestrogen replacement therapy 
low dose Ax prophylaxis 
post-intercourse Ax
self start Ax therapy 
treat the underlying cause
42
Q

what is cystitis?

A

infection and/or inflammation of the bladder

often caused by E.coli

S&S - frequency, urgency, dysuria, small voids, suprapubic pain, haematuria, incontinence

43
Q

what is pyelonephritis?

A

inflammation of the kidney
presents with fever, flank pain, raised WCC, N&V, UTI symptoms
~80% caused by E.coli
complications –> renal papillary necrosis, pyonephrosis and perinephric abscess

44
Q

what is pyonephrosis?

A

pus in the renal pelvis due to infection - causes kidney distension
can cause irreversible AKI, renal failure, sepsis and death

45
Q

what is Fournier’s Gangrene?

A

NF of the external genitalia and the perineum
is an urological emergency - mortality is up to 30%
can be caused by aerobes (E.coli, enterococci) and anaerobes (clostridium)

risk factors include DM, local trauma, paraplegic and surgery to external genitalia

46
Q

how do you spot and treat Fournier’s Gangrene?

A

must have a low threshold for suspicion

S&S - systemically unwell, erythema, tenderness, oedema, UTI symptoms, later get fever, sepsis, cellulitis and palpable crepitus

management is surgical debridement and Ax

47
Q

what is epididymo-orchitis and what causes it?

A

inflammation of the epididymis/testis

<35y/o then STI (Gonorrhoea or Chlamydia)
>35y/o then the usual uropathogens
rare causes include mumps orchitis, secondary to amiodarone and TB

48
Q

what is the clinical picture of epididymo-orchitis?

A

acute scrotal pain, swelling, erythema, reactive hydrocele, UTI symptoms and suprapubic pain

DDx - torsion - low threshold for scrotal exploration

49
Q

what is acute bacterial prostatitis?

A

infection and/or inflammation of the prostate
affects half of men at some point

S&S - systemic malaise, perineal and suprapubic pain, irritative and obstructive LUTS, DRE shows a tender prostate

50
Q

what antimicrobials are used in urology?

A

trimethoprim (is an antifolate so avoid in 1st trimester of pregnancy as increased risk of spina bifida, has a 30% resistance rate)

nitrofurantoin (doesn’t affect bowel flora, do not use if eGFR is <45, doesn’t work for pyelonephritis)

co-amoxiclav (used IV in pyelonephritis)

gentamycin (used form gram -ves, in pyelonephritis, need to monitor drug level as is nephrotoxic and oophrotoxic to pt and foetus)

ciprofloxacin (is broad spectrum, can be used in renal impairment and has a high oral bioavailability)

doxycycline

51
Q

types of renal stones

A

calcium oxalate (75%)
calcium phosphate (in hyperPTH)
struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate - alkaline urine)
urate (risk factors include obesity, T2DM, acid urine - not seen on a plain X-Ray)
cysteine
xanthine
pyruvate (congenital metabolic disorders)
indinavir (old HIV treatment, invisible on CT)

90% are radio-opaque ie contain calcium

52
Q

incidence of renal stones

A

10% of white males will develop one
peak incidence 20-50 years old
M:F 3:1

53
Q

risk factors for developing a renal stone

A
diet
dehydration 
stasis 
infection 
hyperparathyroidism 
gout
chemotherapy
54
Q

treatment of renal stones

A

fluids, analgesia (NSAIDs)
watchful waiting (if <4cm will probably pass)
symptomatic control (analgesia - PR Naproxen)
ESWL (extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy)
urethroscopy
PCNL (percutaneous nephrolithotomy)
open stone surgery

55
Q

what can a scrotal lump be?

A
hydrocele
epididymal cyst 
varicocele 
testicular tumour 
orchitis 
indirect inguinal hernia
56
Q

what is a hydrocele?

A

an abnormal quantity of fluid between the visceral and parietal layers of the tunica vaginalis
will transilluminate

57
Q

what is a varicocele?

A

a dilation of the pampiniform plexis - has the appearance of a bag of worms

58
Q

what is an epididymal cyst?

A

a cyst that is derived from the collecting tubules of the epididymis

59
Q

what is a phimosis?

A

when the foreskin cannot be retracted behind the glans of the penis
can be physiological or pathological

60
Q

what is a paraphimosis?

A

the foreskin is retracted behind the glans of the penis and cannot be reduced

61
Q

what is a hypospadias?

A

a congenital or acquired deformity where the urethral meatus is sited on the ventral (underside) of the penis

62
Q

causes of erectile dysfunction

A

vascular (IHD, early warning sign of CVD)
neurological (DM, CVA, spinal injury)
venogenic/ cavernosal (young and primary ED - venous leak or cavernosal eg from an untreated penile fracture)
hormonal (low testosterone)
medication (antidepressants, beta-blockers)
psychological (is it episodic, are early morning erections present, is the onset acute)

63
Q

Ix for erectile dysfunction

A

BP, lipids, BM, smoking Hx
early morning testosterone
Prolactin, LH, FSH

test PSA before commencing testosterone treatment

64
Q

treatment of erectile dysfunction

A
PDE5 inhibitors eg siddenafil (is CI if on nitrates for IHD)
treat low testosterone
intracavernosal prostaglandin injection 
vacuum tumescence device
inflatable penile prosthesis
65
Q

what is priaprism?

A

a prolonged erection in the absence of sexual stimulation
often becomes ischaemic
due to ED drugs, cocaine, HbS

can be high flow (rare) - AV malformation, pelvic trauma)
or low flow - give phenylephrine after aspiration

66
Q

presentation of penile fracture

A
audible pop
immediate loss of erection
aubergine deformity 
need to stitch 
untreated may lead to erectile dysfunction due to cavernosal tear
67
Q

presentation of renal colic due to ureteric stones

A

ipsilateral testicular/ labia pain
pt will move around a lot in an attempt to get comfortable
pyrexia, may get frequency, urgency and dysuria

DDx –> ruptured AAA so must CT within 10 minutes

68
Q

what is high pressure chronic retention?

A

is characterised by late onset enuresis, recurrent UTIs, a tense, palpable bladder, hypertension, and progressive renal impairment associated with bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter commonly leading to uraemia and death

can occur due to chronic obstruction eg due to BPH leading to detrusor muscle thickening and leading to a diverticular

69
Q

what is the best analgesia for renal colic?

A

diclofenac

70
Q

CKD indications for dialysis

A

stage 5 CKD (eGFR <15ml/ml)
symptomatic uraemia (despite conservative treatment)
renal bone disease –> osteomalacia (vit. D def.), hyperparathyroidism (increased serum phosphate), osteosclerosis (due to prolonged hyperparathyroidism) and osteoporosis
pericarditis
volume overload (despite fluid restriction and diuretics)
hyperkalaemia (despite treatment)

71
Q

indications for haemodialysis

A

hypotension
hypovolaemia
hypokalaemia
disequilibration syndrome (cerebral oedema)
dialysis related amyloidosis (beta2-microglobulin accumulation causing peripherally neuropathy)

72
Q

voiding/ obstructive LUTS

A

hesitancy, poor and/or intermittent stream, straining, prolonged micturition, feeling of incomplete bladder emptying, dribbling

73
Q

storage/ irritative LUTS

A

frequency, urgency, urge incontinence, and nocturia

74
Q

causes of urethral strictures

A
STI
trauma 
radiotherapy 
recurrent UTIs
vaginal atrophic changes
75
Q

Tamsulosin uses (alpha-blockers)

A

rapid action
relaxes the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, making it easier to urinate
used in BPH

76
Q

Dutasteride uses (5-alpha-reductase inhibitors)

A

delayed onset
inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone hence shrinking the prostate
used in BPH

77
Q

Mirabegron uses (beta-3 agonist)

A

relaxes the detrusor smooth muscle to allow for a larger bladder capacity

78
Q

how would you treat nocturnal polyuria?

A

diuretics in the evening to empty bladder and oral desmopressin

79
Q

what does urodynamics do?

A

measure detrusor pressure ie the compliance of the bladder (the ability of it to fill without the pressure increasing)

80
Q

why does peripheral oedema cause nocturnal polyuria?

A
no effect of gravity
fluid pools centrally
increased CO 
kidneys produce ADH 
more urine produced
81
Q

kidney stone presentation and treatment

A

fever, vomiting and acute flank pain, if <1cm then may pass spontaneously

treatment: 
analgesia and antiemetic
IV fluids
percutaneous nephrostomy 
ureteric stent insertion 
shock wave lithotripsy if radio-opaque
82
Q

nephrotic syndrome

A

> 3g/24hrs of protein - leads to hypoalbuminaemia and oedema (and hyperlipidaemia, they are hypercoagulable) - due to podocyte or supepithelial injury

  • minimal change glomerulonephritis
  • focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
  • membranous glomerulonephritis
  • diabetes mellitus
  • amyloidosis
83
Q

nephritic syndrome

A

blood in urine - due to endothelial injury

  • IgA nephropathy
  • vasculitis
  • good pastures syndrome
  • Alport syndrome
  • thin GBM disease
84
Q

chronic kidney disease

A

features: “AEIOU” - acidosis, electrolyte problems (hyperkalaemia), insult, overload (fluid retention), ureamina
complications - bone disease, hyperparathyroidism, anaemia, metabolic acidosis
treatment: NaHCO3, EPO, ACEi, furosemide (for HTN), RRT (usually id eGFR is <10 or <15 if diabetic)

85
Q

renal replacement therapy

A
  • haemodialysis
  • peritoneal dialysis
  • kidney transplant
86
Q

stages of AKI

A

stage 1 = >1.5-1.9 times baseline creatinine
stage 2 = 2-2.9 times baseline creatinine
stage 3 = >3 times baseline creatinine

87
Q

symptoms of AKI

A

reduced renal output
pulmonary and peripheral oedema
arrhythmias
features of uraemia - pericarditis, encephalopathy

88
Q

causes of AKI

A

pre-renal: ischaemia due to hypovolaemia - dehydration/ renal artery stenosis/ shock and reduced renal perfusion
renal/intrinsic: toxins, immune mediated, rhabdomyolysis, tumour lysis syndrome
post-renal: urinary retention - kidney stone, BPH