UROLOGY 2 Flashcards

1
Q

List 5 types of renal stones:

A

Calcium oxalate
Calcium phosphate
Uric acid / urate
Cystine
Struvite

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2
Q

85% of renal stones are ? type:

A

Calcium oxalate

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3
Q

Which types of renal stones are radiolucent?

A

Uric acid

Xanthine

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4
Q

Pathophysiology of formation of a struvite stone:

A

Formed from magnesium, ammonia and phosphate - therefore associated with chronic infection and urease producing bacteria.

Crystals precipitate in the alkaline urine.

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5
Q

Major risk factor for formation of calcium oxalate stones:

A

Hypercalciuria

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6
Q

Which type of stone is more common in children with inborn errors of metabolism?

A

Uric acid

Precipitated when the pH is too low

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7
Q

Which type of stone may occur in RTA due to high urinary pH increasing supersaturation of urine with 2 electrolytes?

A

Calcium phosphate = RTA stone

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8
Q

When a stone is not available for analysis, the urine pH can help guide which type of stone was present:

A

> 7.2 = struvite
6.5 = cystine
6 = calcium oxalate
5.5 = calcium phosphate
5.5 = uric acid

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9
Q

What type of stone is a staghorn made from, and which 2 infections predispose their formation?

A

Struvite = Staghorn

Ureaplasma urealyticum

Proteus

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10
Q

Risk factors for renal stones:

A

Hypercalciuria
Dehydration
RTA
PKD
Hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcaemia

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11
Q

Drugs can both cause and prevent calcium stones, which drugs are these?

A

Cause: loop diuretics, steroids, acetazolamide and theophylline

Prevent: thiazide diuretics due to increased resorption at the distal tubule

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12
Q

Risk factors for urate stones specifically (2):

A

gout

ileostomy = loss of bicarbonate and fluid precipitates uric acid

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13
Q

What is the analgesia of choice for renal colic, + further options if not controlled / contraindicated?

A

NSAIDs first line

IV paracetamol

IM diclofenac inpatient

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14
Q

How do alpha blockers work and when are they indicated in renal colic?

A

Relax smooth muscle of the ureters, allowing stone to pass.

<10mm stones

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15
Q

Initial non-imaging investigations in suspected renal stones:

A

Urine dip and culture

U+Es, creatinine, renal function

FBC, CRP for associated infection

Calcium and urate levels

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16
Q

Imaging of renal stones, including time frames and when these differ:

A

NON-CONTRAST CTKUB within 24 hours.

IMMEDIATE if single kidney, fever, or uncertain about diagnosis e.g. Triple A within differential

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17
Q

What is the imaging of choice for renal stones in pregnancy and childhood?

A

US

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18
Q

All ureteric stones require input; what is the definitive management for ureteric stones of <10mm and 10-20mm?

A

<10mm = ESWL +/- alpha-blocker

10-20mm = Ureteroscopy , with stent left in place for 4 weeks

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19
Q

Renal stones are managed based on their size. Discuss the management for <5mm, 5-10mm, 10-20mm and >20mm

A

<5mm = watchful waiting

5-10mm = ESWL

10-20 = ESWL or ureteroscopy

> 20mm = percutaneous nephrolithotomy (intracorporeal SWL)

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20
Q

Calcium stones may be due to hypercalciuria, which is found in 5-10% of the general population. Give some preventative measures of hypercalciuria.

A

Hydration
Lemon in drinking water
Reduced carbonated drinks
Reduced salt
Potassium citrate may help
Thiazide diuretics

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21
Q

2 drugs that reduce urinary oxalate secretion:

A

Cholestyramine
Pyridoxine

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22
Q

Prevention of uric acid stones:

A

Allopurinol

Oral bicarb causing urinary alkalisation

23
Q

When should ‘combination therapy’ be used in BPH, and what does it consist of?

A

Mod-severe symptoms on IPSS and large prostate

Alpha-1 antagonist tamsulosin

5 alpha reductase inhibitor finasteride (effects may take 6m)

24
Q

Surgical management of BPH;

25
Q

Action and adverse effects of finasteride:

A

Finasteride; reduces conversion of testosterone to DHT which has been shown to induce BPH.

26
Q

What IPSS score is considered moderate-severe?

27
Q

Cause of TURP syndrome, and electrolyte abnormalities observed:

A

TURP syndrome is caused by excess glycine used during TURP surgery.
Glycine is hypotonic, and it gets into the systemic system via the open prostatic venous sinuses, causing severe symptoms.

Hyponatraemia
Hyperammonia after glycine has been broken down in the liver

28
Q

Risk factors for developing TURP syndrome.

A

Surgery >1 hour
Height of bag >70cm
Weight removed 60g
Large blood loss
Perforation
Large amount of fluid used
Poorly controlled congestive heart failure

29
Q

IPSS scoring system cut offs:

A

0-7 = mild

8-19 = mod

20-35 = severe

30
Q

ED can be broadly split into organic, psychogenic and mixed causes. Give 3 factors that favour an organic cause;

A

Normal libido
Lack of tumescence
Gradual onset

31
Q

ED can be broadly split into organic, psychogenic and mixed causes. Give 3 factors that favour a psychogenic cause:

A

Acute onset
Relationship change or difficulty
Spontaneous / self stimulated erections are achieved
Reduced libido
Hx of psychological problems
Hx of premature ejaculation

32
Q

Cardiovascular risk factors for ED:

A

Dyslipidaemia
Obesity
Metabolic syndrome
Hypertension
Diabetes
Alcohol
Smoking

33
Q

2 classes of drugs that are risk factors for ED:

34
Q

Initial investigations for ED:

A

10 year CV risk, including lipids and fasting glucose level

Free testosterone, taken between 9 and 11 am

35
Q

Free testosterone was measured in a man who had presented with ED. What tests are recommended next, and what is the further management if these ones are abnormal?

A

Repeat the free Testosterone

Add FSH, LH and prolactin

If abnormal, refer to endocrinology

36
Q

What class of drug is sildafenil? 2nd line option for ED?

A

PDE-5 inhibitor

Vacuum erection device

37
Q

4 potential departments you could need to refer someone presenting with ED to;

A

Cardiology - high cardiac risk where sex may be unsafe or PDE-5i is contraindicated.

Mental health services

Endocrinology - low serum testosterone, or abnoramlities of fsh, lh and prolactin

Urology - young man always had problems, penile structural abnormality or abnormal testicular examination

38
Q

Where does renal cell cancer arise from?

A

Proximal renal tubular epithelium

39
Q

Most common histological subtype of renal cell cancer, + 2nd and 3rd:

A

Clear cell

Papillary
Chromophobe

40
Q

Classical triad of RCC:

A

Haematuria
Loin pain
Abdominal mass

41
Q

Endocrine effects of RCC (3)

A

EPO secretion causing polycythaemia

PTHrP secretion cause hypercalcaemia (could also be due to bony mets)

ACTH

42
Q

What is Stauffer syndrome?

A

LFT derangement without renal mets

Cholestasis, hepatosplenomegaly.

IL-6 increased

43
Q

A RCC is compressing veins due to mass effect. What is a likely outcome of this?

A

Varicocele

44
Q

A RCC has invaded into Gerota’s fascia, what T stage is it?

45
Q

T1 vs T2 stage RCC:

A

<=7 confined to kidney =T1

> 7 = confined to kidney = T2

46
Q

2 structures a T3 RCC would invade into, and 2 that it would not at this stage:

A

Major veins e.g. renal vein, then IVC, perinephric tissue

NOT into gerota’s fascia or the ipsilateral adrenal gland

47
Q

Which type of immunotherapy is superior in RCC?

A

TKI e.g. sorafenib

48
Q

Risk factors for RCC:

A

Obesity
Smoking
Von Hippel Lindau
Tuberous sclerosis
Hypertension
End stage renal failure

49
Q

RCC is the common primary of cannonball mets in the lungs. Give the next most common type of cancer associated with them:

A

choriocarcinoma (placenta)

50
Q

Staging scan in RCC:

A

CT thorax abdo pelvis

51
Q

Most common bacterial cause of epididymo-orchitis in elderly patients:

52
Q

Epididymo-orchitis is most commonly caused by local spread of sexual infection in young men. 2 organisms, investigations and management:

A

Chlamydia
Neisseria gonorrhoea

STI screen NAAT swabs

Unknown organism IM CEFTRIAXONE SINGLE DOSE, + ORAL DOXY 14 DAYS

53
Q

Empirical treatment of elderly patients with epididymo-orchitis:

A

Send MSU

Oral quinolone for 2 weeks e.g. ofloxacin