OBGYN Flashcards

1
Q

A CTG is showing a single prolonged deceleration with baseline <100/min for >3 minutes. This is occuring in a prolonged labour. What is the management?

A

Inform senior

Preparation for urgent Category 1 CS

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2
Q

Vasa praevia can present similarly to placenta praevia in that they both have painless vaginal bleeding. What 2 other features would you expect of vasa praevia?

A

Fetal bradycardia

Membrane rupture

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3
Q

A woman is discovered to be GBS positive; how should this risk to the fetus be managed with respect to delivery?

A

Intrapartum antibiotics;

IV benpen given asap at start of labour and then 4 hourly until delivery.

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4
Q

Which SSRI is excreted in breast milk and because of it’s longer half life may potentially cause toxicity in babies?

A

Fluoxetine

(Citalopram is also secreted in breast milk but not thought to be an issue)

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5
Q

What are the antidepressants of choice in women who are breast feeding?

A

Paroxetine
Sertraline

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6
Q

What are the first and second line options for endometriosis?

A

NSAIDs and paracetamol

COCP (unless contraindicated e.g. migraine with aura) or POP

GnRH analogue; these act to induce a menopause state; side effects of menopause

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7
Q

What are the symptoms of endometriosis?

A

Deep dyspareunia
Dysmenorrhoea
Tender nodularity at the posterior vaginal fornix

Worse during the luteal pahse day 15-28 as pain is caused by ectopic endometrial tissue proliferating in response to rising oestrogen levels.

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8
Q

What is the agent of choice for stress incontinence?

A

Duloxetine

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9
Q

What are the parameters for medical treatment of a uterine fibroid, and what are the medical options?

A

<3cm in size
Not distorting the uterine cavity

Managing menorrhagia:
IUS
Mefenamic acid
Tranexamic acid
COCP
POP
Injectable progesterone

Shrinking:
GnRH agonists
Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy or uterine artery embolization

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10
Q

What is the first line treatment for menorrhagia?

A

IUS / Mirena (levonorgestrel)

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11
Q

The NHS now tests for high-risk HPV and then uses that result to define next management in their screening programme. Outline what will happen if a) HPV negative b) HPV positive

A

HPV negative = normal recall

HPV positive: cytology done.

Cytology ABNORMAL; colposcopy

Cytology NORMAL; repeat smear in 12 months

Cytology ‘inadequate’; repeat in 3 months; 2 consecutive inadequate samples = colposcopy

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12
Q

A woman is 24 weeks pregnant and presents within 24 hours of developing a chicken-pox rash. What is the treatment?

A

Oral aciclovir

If the woman in <20 weeks, aciclovir should be considered with caution.

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13
Q

Chickenpox exposure can be distressing for pregnant women; what should be done if a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, but she has not developed a rash?

A

Urgent varicella antibody check.

Oral aciclovir is given as PEP, but it is given at day 7-14 after exposure.

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14
Q

What is adenomyosis and how would it present?

A

Endometrial tissue embeds in the myometrium.
More common in women >30 who are multiparous.

Dysmenorrhoea
Menorrhagia
Enlarge, boggy uterus

TVUS first line
Similar treatments to fibroids

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15
Q

What happens to uterine fibroids in pregnancy?

A

They can grow due to the increased oestrogen.

They can grow too large for their blood supply though, and THEN degenerate.

Deep dyspareunia and pelvic pain can indicate this growth.

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16
Q

A girl is taking the COCP. She has missed 2 pills in week 3; what should she be advised to do?

A

Take missed pill now (1), and finish pills in current pack and start new pack immediately, omitting the pill free interval.

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17
Q

What is the MOA of tamoxifen in breast tissue, and how does it increase the risk of a certain type of other cancer?

A

Oestrogen receptor antagonist in breast tissues.

At other sites e.g. endometrium it may act as an agonist, therefore a reason for increasing risk of ENDOMETRIAL cancer.

18
Q

State some risk factors for endometrial cancer:

A

Excess oestrogen; early menarche, nulliparity, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen e.g. this is why prog is given in HRT

Metabolic syndrome e.g. obesity, DM, PCOS
Tamoxifen
HNPCC

19
Q

PMS symptoms management:

A

Moderate = new gen COCP

Severe = SSRIs

20
Q

A first degree perineal tear is superficial damage with no muscle involvement, and does not require any repair. What is classed as a 2nd, 3rd and 4th degree tear?

A

2nd; perineal muscle involvement but NOT anal sphincter.

3a <50% External Anal Sphincter involvement

3b >50% EAS

3c IAS involvement

4 rectal mucosa involvement

21
Q

Describe the management of perineal tears.

A

2nd degree = suture on ward

3rd degree = repair in theatre

4th degree = repair in theatre

22
Q

The normal dose of preconception folic acid is 0.4 mg OD. Some women are at increased risk of NTD and require a higher dose. Who are these women (6) and what dose do they require?

A

5mg

Previous child with NTD
Diabetes mellitus
Women on antiepileptics
BMI >30
HIV positive taking cotrimoxazole
Sickle cell disease

23
Q

What organism may present with a ‘strawberry cervix’, what other features may it have and how is it managed?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis = strawberry cervix

Also ‘musty’, frothy, green vaginal discharge.

Treat with ORAL METRONIDAZOLE

24
Q

What is Amsel’s criteria, and how should a positive result be treated?

A

For diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis.
3 out of 4 should be present.

Thin, white, homogenous discharge
Clue cells
Vaginal pH >4.5
Positive whiff test / fishy odour

Treat with ORAL METRONIDAZOLE

25
Q

What are the layers of tissue between the skin and the baby that must be cut through during a CS?

A

Superficial and deep fascia
Anterior rectus sheath
Rectus abdominis (pushed aside)
Transversalis fascia
Extraperitoneal connective tissue
Peritoneum
Uterus

26
Q

Discuss the increased risk / protective ability of the COCP for 4 different types of gynaecological cancers.

A

PROTECTIVE AGAINST: ovarian and endometrial

INCREASES RISK OF: cervical and breast

27
Q

When is acute fatty liver of pregnancy most likely to occur, and give some clinical features.

A

3rd trimester or immediately after delivery

Abdo pain
N&V
Headache
Jaundice
Hypoglycaemia
Severe = pre-eclampsia

ALT >500

28
Q

Obstetric cholestasis occurs in 1% of pregnancies and is generally seen in the 3rd trimester. What are some clinical features, and how is it managed?

A

Raised bilirubin
Pruritis often in palms and soles
NO RASH

Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief
Weekly LFTs
Induction at 37 weeks

29
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumour in women under 25:

A

Dermoid / teratoma

30
Q

Most common cause of uterine enlargement in women of reproductive age?

A

Follicular cyst

And also most common type of ovarian cyst

31
Q

What does the Pearl Index describe?

A

Efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.

It described the number of pregnancies that would be seen if 100 women were to use that method of contraception for 1 year.

32
Q

Describe the different category types of CS.

A

Cat1 - immediate threat to life, should be done within 30 minutes.

Cat2 - maternal or fetal compromise not immediately life threatening (within 75 mins)

Cat3 - delivery required but everyone is stable

Cat4 - elective

33
Q

Contraindicatins to VBAC:

A

Previous uterine rupture

Classical (vertical) caesarean scar

34
Q

What are the diagnostic thresholds for gestational diabetes?

A

Fasting >5.6
2 hour >7.8

If fasting <7 , trial diet and exercise and then metformin

If fasting >=7 then initiate insulin straight away

35
Q

When should pregnant women be advised to avoid flying?

A

> 37 weeks if no additional risk factors

> 32 weeks if multiple pregnancy

36
Q

Mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes increase risk of which cancers?

A

Breast
Ovarian

37
Q

Treatment of moderate PMS:

A

New generation COC, e.g. containing drospirenone

38
Q

What are the stages of postpartum thyroiditis and how is it usually managed?

A
  1. Thyrotoxicosis
    2.Hypothyroidism
  2. Normal thyroid function, but has high recurrence rate in future pregnancies

Propanolol for symptom control of thyrotoxicosis.

Hypothyroid phase = thyroxine.

39
Q

A transgender man is taking testosterone, which contraceptive options are not available to him?

A

Anything containing oestrogen, as can antagonist the effects of testosterone therapy.

40
Q

You need to establish a woman’s mid-luteal progesterone levels. When should the test be taken in regards to her menstrual cycle?

A

7 days before the end of the regular cycle.

41
Q

Which type of surgical management is first line for an ectopic pregnancy in a woman who has no other risk factors for infertility?

A

LAPAROSCOPIC SALPINGECTOMY