INFECTIOUS DISEASE 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which 2 clinical parameters may indicate septic shock rather than sepsis alone, and what treatment does it require:

A
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2
Q

Patients with ‘red flag’ symptoms in sepsis are at high risk of severe illness and mortality. What are these red flags?

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3
Q

What does a SOFA score of 2 reflect?

A

(Sequential Sepsis-Related Organ Failure Assessment score)

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4
Q

qSOFA score criteria?

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5
Q

Hyposplenism due to e.g. splenectomy increases the risk of sepsis, especially from encapsulated organisms. Vaccination and abx prophylaxis are crucial for prevention. Give the recommended vaccinations and abx prophylaxis:

A
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6
Q

When does neutropenic sepsis most commonly occur, and how is it diagnosed, + most common organisms:

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7
Q

Treatment of neutropenic sepsis:

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8
Q

Malaria is caused by Plasmodium protozoan parasites; which is the most common type, and how is it spread?

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9
Q

5 types of malaria:

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10
Q

How is malaria spread / reproduced / life cycle:

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11
Q

Describe difference in fever spikes between the types of malaria:

A
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12
Q

Many of the symptoms of malaria are non-specific, including extremely high fever, fatigue, myalgia, headache, n&v. What signs may you see on examination, and what is the normal incubation period (if not dormant):

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13
Q

Diagnosis of malaria:

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14
Q

What is required to exclude a diagnosis of malaria and why?

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15
Q

Management of uncomplicated falciparum malaria:

A
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16
Q

Management of severe falciparum malaria:

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17
Q

Complications of P.falciparum malaria:

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18
Q

Features of severe malaria:

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19
Q

Most common cause of non-falciparum malaria:

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20
Q

Where are vivax, ovale and knowlesi most commonly found?

A
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21
Q

Which two types have a hyponozoite / latent phase (malaria):

22
Q

Patients diagnosed with ovale or vivax malaria should be given what following acute treatment, and why?

23
Q

Discuss malaria treatment in pregnancy:

24
Q

Antimalarial medications are not 100% effective and come with side effects. Give the options and state some of the side effects

25
Q

?Quinine toxicity cinchonism

26
Q

What kind of cells does the HIV RNA retrovirus destroy?

27
Q

Infections / disorders that may be associated with a CD4 count of 200-500:

28
Q

Infections / disorders that may be associated with a CD4 count of 100-200:

29
Q

Infections / disorders that may be associated with a CD4 count of 50-100:

30
Q

Infections / disorders that may be associated with a CD4 count of <50:

31
Q

Discuss the differences between focal neurological lesions caused by HIV:

32
Q

Management of toxoplasmosis vs primary CNS lymphoma:

33
Q

What is the most common fungal infection of the CNS, and give some clinical features, including CSF features and CT results.

34
Q

Features of PML vs AIDS dementia complex:

35
Q

Factors reducing vertical transmission of HIV in pregnancy:

36
Q

Delivery type advice for woman with HIV + breast-feeding:

37
Q

Discuss neonatal antiretroviral therapy:

38
Q

When is IV zidovudine given in the context of labour / delivery?

39
Q

What is the window of time that PEP can be given in, and give the options for PEP and PrEP:

40
Q

Who gets prophylactic co-trimoxazole and why?

41
Q

Normal CD4 count:

42
Q

Management of HIV:

43
Q

Treatment aims, and why is combination of 2 different types of drugs recommended in HIV?

44
Q

HIV and HPV:

45
Q

Toxic shock syndrome describes a severe systemic reaction to staphylococcal exotoxins. What specific toxin is this, and what are the clinical features?
Management is remove source, IV fluids and IV antibiotics.

46
Q

What investigation should be done in all patients with confirmed S.aureus bacteraemia?

47
Q

Collection and monitoring of blood cultures in S.aureus bacteraemia:

48
Q

MRSA accounts for <4% of SAB infections in Scotland. What is the first line abx of choice in MSSA and MRSA respectively:

49
Q

OPAT referral points for SAB:

50
Q

Who should be screened for MRSA, and how are they screened for MRSA?

51
Q

Suppression of MRSA in a) nasal and b) skin