PERI-OPERATIVE CARE Flashcards

1
Q

Who should receive CMV negative blood?

A

Pregnancy

Intrauterine transfusion

Neonates (<28 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who should receive irradiated blood products?

A

1st, 2nd degree donor blood

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

H Stem cell transplant recently
Alemtuzumab therapy
Fludarabine
Intra-uterine infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Smallest cannula blood transfusion can be given through?

A

16G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Constituents of cryoprecipitate, which is given in DIC, VWBd and massive haemorrhage:

A

Fibrinogen, VWBf, VIII and fibronectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

2 main electrolyte abnormalities in PRC transfusion:

A

Hypocalcaemia

Hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Types of transfusion reaction, including whether they are acute or delayed:

A

Acute:
Acute haemolytic
TACO
TRALI
Anaphylaxis

Delayed:
GvHD
Infection
Iron overload e.g. thalassaemia patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Blood test results in an acute haemolytic reaction:

A

Reduced Hb and haptoglobin
High LDH
High Br
Positive DAT test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Patient factors for PONV:

A

Female
Younger age
Non-smoker
Previous PONV / motion sickness
Opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Surgical factors for PONV:

A

Long surgery
Middle ear / intracranial
Gynae
Poor post op pain control
Intrabd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Anaesthetic factors for PONV:

A

Spinal
Opioids
Gas induction e.g. sioflurance
Dehydration / bleeding
Overuse of BVM causing gastric dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Opioid induced PONV typically responds well to:

A

Ondansetron (5HT3r antagonitst)

Cyclizine (H1r antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Patients with impaired gastric emptying / stasis should be trialled on?

A

Prokinetic agent e.g. metoclopramide (dopamine antagonist) or domperidone (dopamine antagonist)

Unless bowel obstruction suspected!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Metoclopramide is a good anti-emetic of choice in which situations?

A

Metabolic or biochemical imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where does the vomiting centre receive input from?

A

Vestibular centre
Chemoreceptor trigger zone e.g. chemo
GI tract
Sight, smell, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most common cause of pyrexia in a post-operative patient is infection. The specific post-operative day which the fever develops may indicate the source of infection:

A

1-2 = resp
3-5 = resp / UTI
5-7 = SSI / abscess

Always consider lines / catheters etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define PUO, and give 4 potential causes:

A

> 38 degrees for 3 weeks or more with at least 1 week of inpatient investigation

Malignancy
Infection unknown
Connective tissue / vasculitits
Drug reaction

17
Q

A SOFA score of 2 or higher indicates likely sepsis in a patient with known or suspected infection. Which parameters does it measure?

A

Pao2
Platelets
Bilirubin
MAP and vasopressor requirement
GCS
Creatinine
Urine output

18
Q

What is the shortened version of the SOFA criteria?

A

RR>22
altered mental state
SBP <=100

19
Q

ERAS protocol points

A

Pre education, clear fluids until 2 hr prior, minimally invasive surgery, goal direted fluids.
Optimise health and medical conditions.

Multimodal / opioid sparing pain
Early intake post surgery, optimised nutrition
Good pain control

20
Q

Which types of surgery should antibiotic prophylaxis be given in?

A

Clean + prosthesis
Clean cont
Contaminated

Single dose IV <60 mins before incision