Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Flashcards > Urology > Flashcards

Urology Flashcards

1
Q

Geniturinary tract pain could be due to

A
  1. Obstruction: stone/retention
  2. Inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Parenchymatous organ inflammation (pyelonephritis, epididmitis) produces_____ Pain, while inflammation of the mucosa of a hollow viscous, such as bladder produces________

A

Severe, discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Site of renal pain is

A

At the costovertebral angle just lateral to sacro-spinalis muscle, beneath 12th rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where does renal pain radiate to?

A

Flank anteriorly towards upper abdomen and umbilicus, and might be to the testis/labium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the character of renal pain?

A

Inflammatory: steady dull aching
Obstruction: fluctuating colicky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Justify: obstructive renal pain is associated with GI symptoms

A

Due to reflex stimulation of the celiac ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lower urinary tract symptoms divides into:

A
  1. Voiding (obstructice) symptoms
  2. Storage (irritative) symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mention bladder irritative symptoms

A

Frequency
Urgency
Nocturia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mention LUT obstructive symptoms

A

Hesitancy
Intermittency
Abdominal straining
Weak stream(bifid)
Post voiding dribbling
Sense of incomplete evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define hematuria

A

Presence of blood in urine > 3 RBC’s per high power microscopic field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Initial hematuria indicates

A

Indicates problem of urethra or prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Terminal hematuria

A

Bladder or prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Total hematuria

A

Kidney, ureter or bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define infertility

A

Couple failing to conceive after 1 yr of regular unprotected intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Normal Urine pH

A

5.5-6.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Highly acidic urine is found in

A

Hyperuricosuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normal WBCs in urine microscopy

A

Male: up to 2/ HPF
Females: up to 5/HPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Chemical dipsticks screen for:

A

Glucose, pH, protein, hemoglobin, ketones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Normal serum creatinine

A

Adults: 0.8-1.2mg/dl
Infants: 0.1-0.4 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why is BUN much less accurate than creatinine in indicating GFR

A

As its influenced by many factors such as: dietary protein and hydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Normal BUN/Creatinine ratio

A

10/1 to 20/1

High: dehydration, renal ds, bleeding
Low: pregnancy, low prtn diet and hepatic ds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

PSA

A

Prostatic specific antigen < 4 ng/ml

4-10 grey zone
>10 malignancy?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If PSA > 10, perform:

A

TRUS guided biopsy check for malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If PSA is in grey area what do we do next?

A

Grey zone 4-10 ng/ml

Get a PSA Free/ total ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

TRUS

A

Transrectal ultrasound scan: prostate viewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Most used screening imaging study in urology

A

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Disadvantage of U/S

A

No functional data
Poor anatomical imaging of ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

To detect mass and torsion in testis use

A

Scrotal Doppler U/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Advantages of IVU

A

Anatomical and functional data of urinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Disadvantage of IVU

A

Contract allergy and adverse effects
Radiation exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Phases of IVU imaging

A

Immediate film
Nephrogram phase (5-15min)
Ureterogram phase (30min)
Cystogram phase (45 min)
Post voiding film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cobra head appearance on IVU

A

Ureterocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Key hole sign

A

Posterior uretheral valve anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Uses of CT in urology

A
  1. Radiolucent/radio-opaque stone detection
  2. Tumor detection & staging
  3. Urinary tract trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Varicocele commonest side

A

Left side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Uses of MRI in urology

A

Replacing CT when contraindicated
Renal/ adrenal tumors
Vascular invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Renal isotope scan uses

A
  1. Need for surgery: onstructive or nonobstructive hydronephrosis
  2. Evaluate split renal function
  3. Monitor effect of therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MAG3 isotope

A

Evaluate Renal function and plasma flow as it is cleared by tubular secretion & no glomerular filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

DPTA

A

Evaluate obstruction and renal function as it is cleared by glomerular filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

DMSA isotope

A

Cleared by filtration and secretion
Used to evaluate renal scarring (renal cortical image)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most common type of kidney injury?

A

Blunt retroperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Meteorism

A

Abdominal distention, nausea and vomiting within 24-48 hr due to retroperitoneal hematoma involving splanchnic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Kidney injury grading

A

Grade 1: subcapsular hematoma only
Grade 2: perirenal hematoma and <1cm cortical laceration; without urinary extravasation
Grade 3: grade 2+ > 1cm cortical laceration
Grade 4: laceration thru corticomedullary junction with urinary extravasation + segmental vessel injury contained hematoma
Grade 5: shattered kidney, pedicle injury, avulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Early complications of kidney injury

A

1- anuria
2- clot retention
3. Paralytic ileus
4- perinephric abscess
5- urinary fistula
6. Pseudohematohydronephrosis
7. Intraperitoneal hem + peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Late complications of kidney injury

A
  1. Hydronephrosis: periureteral fibrosis
  2. Nephroptosis: tear of supporting tissue
  3. Hypertension: fibrosis of kidney
  4. Aneurysm of renal artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Gold standard investigation for kidney injury

A

CT contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Initial evaluation test for kidney injury

A

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Lack of parenchymal contrast enhancement using CT contrast suggests

A

Arterial injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Why is ultrasound not a gold standard test in renal injury?

A

It only identifies retroperitoneal hematoma, but does not clearly delneate lacerations or vascular or collecting injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is intravenous pyelography indicated in renal injury

A

“Single shot’’ intra-operative IVP in haemodynamically unstable patients is better instead of CT (no time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Indications of nephrectomy

A

In extensive renal injuries or unstable, patient in a normal contralateral kidney

In an unstable patient with low body temperature and coagulopathy in a normal contralateral kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The treatment of choice for the majority of renal injuries is

A

Non-operative management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Indications for surgical management of kidney injury

A
  1. Haemodynamically instability
  2. Exploration for associated injuries
  3. Grade 4 and 5 injury
  4. Expanding or pulsatile peirenal haematoma
  5. Pre-existing renal pathology requiring surgery
  6. Vascular injuries after failed and angiographic treatment.
54
Q

The two most common signs and symptoms of major bladder injuries are

A

Gross haematuria and abdominal tenderness

55
Q

The standards of care in urethral injury is

A

Suprapubic cystostomy

56
Q

Eggplant deformity

A

Trauma of penis: Swelling and ecchymosis of the penis due to rupture of Tunica Albina the cover the corporal cover no

57
Q

Tear in tunica albugenia is investigated by

A

Penile duplex

58
Q

Flame shaped collection of contrast in the pelvis

A

Extra-peritoneal injury

59
Q

Most extraperitonial bladder rupture heal within____ days

A

10 days

60
Q

Blunt extra peritoneal bladder rupture is managed by?

A

Foley catheter drainage

61
Q

What is the most common cause of urethral stricture?

A

Endoscopic / catheter trauma

62
Q

What are the management steps upon suspected testicular torsion?

A
  1. scrotal duplex to confirm diagnosis
  2. Immediate surgical exploration and don’t wait for laboratory studies.
63
Q

Clot retention is confirmed by?

A

Cystoscopy

64
Q

During distal radio-cephalic AV fistula care must be taken not to injure

A

Dorsal branch of radial nerve.

65
Q

Care must be taken not to injure_____ during brachio-cephalic or brachio-basilic fistula

A

Median nerve at cubital fossa

66
Q

Autogenous access needs _______weeks for proper vein maturation

A

6-8 weeks

67
Q

Advantages of autogenous AV access over prosthetic AV graft?

A
  1. Resist infection
  2. Longer estimated usage time
68
Q

Prothetic arteriovenous graft needs_______weeks to start using it

A

1-2 weeks

69
Q

Define a cyst

A

A sac containing fluid lined by epithelium or endothelium

70
Q

In dermoid or branchial cyst the contents are like ____

A

Tooth paste

71
Q

The wall of a false cyst is lined by

A

Fibrous or granulation tissue

72
Q

Examples of a pseudo cyst

A
  1. Pseudo cyst of the pancreas(encysted collection of fluid in the lesser sac)
  2. Tumor Cystic degeneration
73
Q

Complications of cysts

A
  1. Infection
  2. Hemorrhage
  3. Torsion
  4. Calcification
74
Q

Cock’s peculiar tumor

A

Infection complicating sebaceous cyst on the scalp by forming an ulcer

75
Q

Type or shape of the incision to treat sebaceous cyst

A

Elliptical incision to avoid recurrence

76
Q

Complications of sebaceous cyst

A

Infection
cock’s peculiar tumor: ulceration
sebaceous horn

77
Q

Mention 4 types of dermoid cyst

A

Sequestration dermoid
Tubulodermoid
Teratomatous dermoid
Implantation dermoid

78
Q

Common side of sebaceous cyst

A

Face, scalp and scrotum, but never palms and soles

79
Q

XRay or CT must be performed before excision of a head dermoid cyst. Why

A

Exclude communication with intracranial dermoid

80
Q

Describe a sequestration dermoid cyst

A

Cystic, smooth, rounded, not attached to skin, but maybe adherent to underling structures, there may be indentation of underlying bone. It is lined by epidermis and contain a paste like desquamated material.

81
Q

Mucus cyst more common in

A

Female
Middle age
Dorsal DIP Joint

82
Q

Immobile and ill-defined swelling at friction points (bone&skin)

A

Bursitis

83
Q

Hallmark symptom of bursitis is

A

Localized swelling at the joint

84
Q

Semimembranous bursitis is located on

A

Medial side of popliteal fossa

85
Q

Semimembranousus TTT

A

Primary type: excision
Secondary type: treat cause

86
Q

Midline popliteal fossa’s swelling

A

Baker’s cyst

87
Q

Baker’s cyst happens mostly secondary to:

A

Osteoarthritis

88
Q

Hallus valgus

A

Bunion

89
Q

Example for an adventitious bursae

A

Bunion

90
Q

Preferred type of biopsy in soft tissue tumours

A

True cut needle biopsy

91
Q

Common site for diffuse lipoma is

A

Neck

92
Q

Lipoma can occur anywhere in the body except

A

The cranium

93
Q

The line of cleavage in lipoma facilitates

A

Enucleation of the tumour

94
Q

The line of cleavage encapsulated lipoma occurs between

A

True capsule (fibrous capsule )
false capsule (surrounding tissue)

95
Q

Lipoma is classified according to

A

Capsule
Structure:
Site

96
Q

What is the commonest type of lipoma? And it’s favourable site.

A

Subcutaneous lipoma; back, shoulder buttocks, forehead and limbs

97
Q

Pathognomonic signs of subcutaneous lipoma

A

A well defined slippery edge and Dimpling of skin on displacement of the swelling (lobulation)

98
Q

Dercum’s disease (adiposis dolorosa)

A

Tender deposit of fat, specially on the trunk and is an associated condition with multiple lipomatosis

99
Q

Subsynovial lipoma can be mistaken for?

A

Baker’s cyst

100
Q

Retroperitoneal lipoma may grow into ______size

A

Enormous

101
Q

Most dangerous lipoma is:

A

Sub-mucous lipoma:
Larynx: respiratory obstruction
Intestine: intussusception

102
Q

Treatment of lipoma

A

Surgical excision indicated if a lipoma is causing trouble on account of its site, size, appearance, or the presence of pain

103
Q

Neurofibroma origin

A

Connective tissue of nerve sheet . In relation to cranial 5&8 or a peripheral nerve

104
Q

Describe neurofibroma

A

Arise from any nerve usually in subcutaneous tissue, firm, tender, well defined slowly growing swelling that can be moved across, but not along the nerve from which it arises.

105
Q

Von Recklinghausen’s disease

A

Generalized neurofibromatosis (AD)

106
Q

Types of neurofibroma

A
  1. Solitary neurofibroma
  2. Generalized neurofibromatosis
  3. Acoustic neuroma
  4. Plexiform neurofibomatosis
  5. Elephentiasis neurofibromatosa
107
Q

Gamma knife radio-surgery

A

Acoustic neuroma

108
Q

Pachydermatocele

A

Plexiform neurofibromatosis

109
Q

Types of neuroma

A

Tumors in sympathetic system
1. Gangiloneuroma
2. Neuroblastoma
3. Myelinic neuroma

110
Q

Neuroblastoma resembles_______ and disseminate by________ and is treated by_______

A

Round cell sarcoma, blood , surgery +/- chemo

111
Q

Common sites of Gangileoneuroma

A

Connection with sympathetic plexus so:

In the neck, thorax or retroperitoneal tissue

112
Q

Myelinic neuroma consists of_______only and arises in connection with ________ or ______

A

Nerve fibers, spinal cord or pia matter

113
Q

A lobulated encapsulated, soft, whitish swelling that displace the nerve from which it rises

A

Schwanoma (neurilemmoma)

114
Q

Varieties of fibroma

A
  1. Soft subcutaneous nodule (fibroma mole)
  2. Pedunculate lesion of oral mucosa ( fibroma durum)
  3. Pleomorphic fibroma
115
Q

Aggressive fibromatosis

A

Desmoid tumor

116
Q

Example of intermediate tumor (locally invasive)

A

Desmoid tumor

117
Q

Histology of desmoid tumor

A

Uncapsulated, composed of fibrous tissue containing multinucleated giant cells

118
Q

Soft tissue tumours that can be treated by chemo

A

Desmoid tumor and neuroblastoma

119
Q

Commonest site of desmoid tumor

A

Anterior abd wall and shoulder girdle

120
Q

Urine will pass to _______ in an interior bulbar urethra injury (fall astride)

A

Connective tissue of scrotum

121
Q

Pelvic fracture with highly displaced prostate (non palpable on PR) and a perineal oedema is suggestive of

A

Membranous urethral rupture

122
Q

What is the normal intra-vesical pressure at the beginning of micturition?

A

30 cm of water

123
Q

Mention some features seen in bladder compensation to BPH

A

Detrusor muscle hypertrophy
Trabiculation
Cellules
Diverticula

124
Q

Describe trabiculations of the bladder

A

muscle bundle with deposit of interstitial collagen fibers, becomes taut, and give an interwoven appearance to the mucosa)

125
Q

Score used to ttt BPH

A

IPSS International prostate symptom score

0-7 mild
8-19 moderate
20-35 severe

126
Q

If BPH is associated with hematuria then _________ is mandatory to rule out other bladder pathology

A

Cystoscopy

127
Q

DD and what to exclude when making a diagnosis of BPH

A

Urethral stricture (cystoscopy)
Bladder neck contracture (cystoscopy)
Trauma (history)
Bladder stone (pain and hematuria)
UTI (urinalysis and culture)
Cancer prostate (DRE and high PSA)
Neurogenic bladder DM

128
Q

Adverse effects of alpha blockers

A

Asthenia
First dose phenomenon
Dizziness
Postural hypotension
Retrograde ejaculation

129
Q

Finastride is a competitive injibitor of type ___ 5alpha reductase enzyme while dutasteride is a competitive inhibitor for type ______
Maximum volume suppression of BPH achieved after ______

A

2 (prostate only)
1&2 (1 in prostate, liver and skin)
6 months

130
Q

Relative surgery indication in BPH

A
  1. Hematuria
  2. Recurrent lower UTI
  3. Bladder stone
  4. Moderate symptoms (moderate IPSS)
  5. Bad compliance
131
Q

Absolute indication of surgery in BPH

A
  1. Severe symptoms (severe IPSS)
  2. Recurrent acute retention
  3. Upper urinary tract affection
  4. Uraemia
  5. Failure of medical treatment

Clinical Flashcards (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions