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ASU Yr4 Flashcards > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

lesion of scabies

A

Burrow (primary)
Pleomorphic: papule, scales, vesicles, bullae, crusts, pustules, nodules, excoriation

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2
Q

MOT of scabies

A

Man to man or animal to man by close contact

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3
Q

Infant lesion destribution of scabies

A

All over including scalp and face

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4
Q

In adults scabies itch spares?

A

Face, head and inter scapular region

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5
Q

Diagnosis if scabies

A

Scraping ~> kOH or mineral oil ~> microscope ~> eggs/ mites

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6
Q

DD of scabies

A
  1. Imperigo
  2. Insect bite
  3. Contact and atopic dermatitis
  4. Papular urticaria
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7
Q

Common lesion of infant scabies

A

Vesicular lesions in face, palms and soles plus the usual sites

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8
Q

Self limiting scabies

A

Animal contact (no burrow)

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9
Q

Itchy after adequate scabies therapy?

A
  1. Nodular scabies
  2. Inadequate? Therapy
  3. Re infection
  4. Irritation from treatment
  5. Acarophobia
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10
Q

Scabies clothing and bedding management

A

Boiled or ironed or closed in a bag for 10 days

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11
Q

Only topical scabies ttt for pregnant

A

Sulfur and permethrin preparations

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12
Q

Scabies topical ttt

A

All given at night
1. Permethrin: 2.5/ 5% day 1&8
2. Sulfur: 5,10% (3-5 days)
3. Gamma benzene hexachloride 1% day 1&8
4. Malathione 0.5% day 1&8
5. Crotamiton 10% (3-5days)
6. Benzyl benzoate emulsion 25-33%

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13
Q

Scabies systemic ttt

A

Ivermectin and oral antihistamines

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14
Q

Commonest site of affection of head louse

A

Occipital and post auricular

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15
Q

Ttt of pediculosis humanis capitis

A
  1. Treat pyogenic infec if present
    Medication day 1 then day 8 to kill nits
  2. Permethrin 2.5/5%
  3. Malathion 0.5%
  4. Gamma benzyl hexachloride 1%
  5. Benzyl benzoate emulsion 25%
  6. Oral ivermectin
  7. Remove remaining eggs with fine toothed comb+/- vinegar
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16
Q

Yeast

A

Unicellular + budding

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17
Q

Dermatophytes

A

Multicellular filamentous and spores forming

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18
Q

Trichophyton violaceum causes

A

Scaly ringworm and black dot ringworm

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19
Q

Scaly ringwork caused by

A

Trichophyton violeceum
Microsporum canis

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20
Q

Favus pathogen

A

Trichophyton schoenleinii

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21
Q

Kerion DD

A

Acute pyogenic abscess but
1. No LN
2. General condition is good
3. Drainage is CI
4. It is a painless swelling studded with pustules

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22
Q

Kerion is caused by

A

Trichophyton verrucosum
Trichophyton mentagrophytes

Zoophilic

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23
Q

DD of scaly scalp

A

Scaly ringworm
Impetigo
Psoriasis
Seborrheic dermatitis

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24
Q

Coconut hair

A

Favus

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25
Q

Cup shaped yellow crusts

A

Favus (sulfur cups or scutula)

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26
Q

Wood’s light

A

Microsporun canis and audeni: green
Trichophyton violaceum: does not
Malassezia yeast: golden yellow
Corynebacterium Minutissimum: coral red

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27
Q

Age of onset of scalp ringworm

A

Most Children except favus

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28
Q

Investigation of scalp ringworm

A
  1. Microscopy: scrape, KoH10-20% and gentle warming : hyphae and spores
  2. Culture: sabourad’s agar 2-4weeks
  3. Wood’s light (screening)
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29
Q

CI of Griesofulvin

A

Pregnancy
Hepatic failure
Photosensitivity

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30
Q

Side effects of griseofulvin

A

GI upset
Headsche
Photosensitivity
SLE

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31
Q

Griseofulvin dosage for tinea capitis

A

12.5mg/kg/day for 6-8 weeks (favus 8-10wks)

1 tablet = 125mg
Max daily dose = 6 tablets

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32
Q

Tinea denotes

A

Dermatophytes

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33
Q

DD of Tinea cruris

A

Erythrasma
Candida of groin
Intertrigo
Seborrheic dermatitis
Flexural psoriasis

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34
Q

Tinea cruris caused by

A

Trichophyton rubrum
Epidermiphyton floccosum

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35
Q

DD of tinea corporis

A

Circinate impetigo (not itchy, large vesicles, crusts and negative microscope)

Pytriasis rosea (oval, scales make collar, edge not raised and negative direct microscope

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36
Q

Castallini paint

A

Macerated toe web and chronic paronchyia

Antifungal anti bacterial anti-inflammatory drying agent

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37
Q

Chronic interdigital by

A

Tinea pedis macerated web space ( commonly 4,5th toe-web itchy
Topical imidazole or systemic itraconazole

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38
Q

Onychomycosis

A

Candida nail fold
Dermatophytes nail plate
Mould

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39
Q

Onychomycosis facilitated by

A

DM
Trauma
Moisture

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40
Q

Cigarette paper-like scales

A

Pityriasis versicolor

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41
Q

Imidazole

A

Tinea pedis
Pityriasis versicolor

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42
Q

TTT pityriasis versicolor

A

Topical:
Aqueous solution: Sodium hyposulphite 20-25%
Broad spectrum: imidazole group

Systemic: severe and extensive -> itra/flu/keto (conazoles)

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43
Q

Non infectious fungal skin discoloration

A

Pitryasis versicolor

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44
Q

C/P of pityriasis versicolor

A
  • Well defined hypo/hyper pigmented macules and patches covered by cigarette paper like scales, mainly trunk and neck
  • golden yellow by woods
  • high recurrence after ttt
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45
Q

Whitish curd like patches when scrubbed leave erthymatous base

A

Oral candidiasis

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46
Q

What is Candidal balanitis

A

Genital candida in glans penis - STD

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47
Q

Oral candidiasis is associated with

A

Angular stomatitis perleche

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48
Q

Festooned edge

A

Candidal intertrigo

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49
Q

Lesions with Active edge

A

Tinea

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50
Q

Satellite lesion outside the edge

A

Candida infection - intertrigo

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51
Q

DD of rash in napkin area

A
  1. Candidal intertrigo: well defined festooned and satellite lesion involving folds
  2. Napkin dermatitis: illdefined erthematous sparing folds
  3. Psoriasis: well defined no scales
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52
Q

Erosio interdigitalis blastomycetica

A

Wet workers who do not dry their hands properly

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53
Q

Griseofulvin is not effective in

A

Pityriasis versicolor and candidiasis

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54
Q

Terbinafine active against

A

Dermatophytes

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55
Q

Examples of imidazole group drugs

A

Clotrimazole
Econazole
Ketoconazole

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56
Q

Whitfield ointment

A

For candida/ fungal infection

Salicylic acid 3
Benzoic acid 6
Lanolin 10
Vaseline 100

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57
Q

Primamry lesion of eczema

A

Vesicles

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58
Q

Stages of eczema

A

Acute, subacute, chronic

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59
Q

Ill-defined erthymatous patch, papulo-vesicular eruption with exudation of serum

A

Acute eczema

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60
Q

Shbacute eczema

A

Erthyma and scalling

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61
Q

Chrinic stage of eczema

A

Dryness and lichenification

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62
Q

Mention ex of endogenous eczema

A
  1. Atopic dermatitis
  2. Pityriasis alba
  3. seborrheic dermatits
  4. Stasis dermatitis
  5. Discoid eczema
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63
Q

Allergic Vs irritant contact dermatitis

A

Irritant: physical/ chemical substance leading to direct noxious effect on skin barrier

Allergic: type 4 hypersensitivity reaction, it’s a sensitization dermatitis

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64
Q

Patch test

A

Diagnose allergic contact dermatits

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65
Q

Pathogenesis of atopic dermatitis

A

Genetic, environmental and immune dysregulation

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66
Q

C/P of atopic dermatitis

A

Constant Itching, dry xerotic skin with loss of its barrier function
Site and morphology depend on age

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67
Q

Neurodermatitis

A

Adulthood phase of atopic dermatitis

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68
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

-Infantile phase of atopic dermatitis

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69
Q

Erthymatous itchy oedematous papules discrete or confluent that mainly affects the face. May become exudative or crusted. 2ndry bact infection and LN are common

A

Infantile phase of atopic dermatitis

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70
Q

Childhood stage atopic dermatits

A

Erthymatous edematous papule replaced by lichenification; vesiculation in discoid patches
In flexural area

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71
Q

Symmetrical and bilateral demarcated coin shaped lesion on extensor aspect of limbs

A

Discoid eczema

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72
Q

Ulceration around malleoli is a complication of?

A

Stasis or varicose dermatits

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73
Q

Slate blue macules of hemosidrin deposits seen in?

A

Varicose dermatits

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74
Q

Stasis dermatitis

A

Varicose LL scaly oozing erthymatous area surrounded by slate blue macule of hemosiderin deposits

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75
Q

Malassezia

A

Pityriasis versicolor
Seborrheic dermatitis

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76
Q

Cradle cap

A

Infantile seborrheic dermatits
showing greasy yellowish scales on erthymatous area of scalp
In 2 weeks to 10 months of age

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77
Q

Precaution when you find a pompholyx lesion

A

Check feet for tinea pedis

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78
Q

Acute or subacute itchy vesicular eruptions that dry up in 2 weeks with desquamation of skin.

A

Dyshidroric eczema

Starts on sides of digits extending to soles deep seated vesicles

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79
Q

Allergic reaction to distant focus of infection happening in heavily perspiring individuals

A

Pompholyx (dyshidrotic eczema)

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80
Q

Ill-defined patch or erthymatous plaque with fine lamellar or branny whitish scalling

A

Pityriasis alba

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81
Q

Pitryasis alba Lesion subsides leaving

A

Scaling and hypopigmentation

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82
Q

Pityriasis alba is sometimes a manifestation of

A

Atopic dermatitis

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83
Q

Fine lamelar or branny whitish scalling

A

Pityriasis alba

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84
Q

TTT of eczema depends on

A

Clinical stage and almost irrespective to the type

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85
Q

What is the best line of treatment of eczema

A

Find the cause and avoid it

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86
Q

Long term use of moisturizers is indicated in

A

Atopic dermatitis

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87
Q

Acute eczema TTT

A
  1. Compresses:
    ~ potassium permanganate solution1/8k
    ~ 1/10.000 of lead sub acetate0.5% for oozing cases
  2. Topical CS cream
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88
Q

Transient skin or mucosal swelling due to plasma leakage

A

Urticaria

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89
Q

Primary lesion of urticaria?

A

Wheals

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90
Q

Define wheals

A

Primary lesion of urticaria characterized by an itchy pink or pale swelling of the superficial dermis that lasts less than 24hrs

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91
Q

Whats the difference b/w wheals and angioedema

A

Angioedema includes swellings in the deep dermis, and subcutanous tissue or the submucosa

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92
Q

Pathogenesis of wheals

A

Mast cell degranulation -> histamine, IL, TNF -> vasodilation and permeability

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93
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is allergic urticaria

A

Type I

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94
Q

Pathogenesis of non allergic urticaria

A

Direct mast cell degranulation without Ag/Ab interaction
Usually by drugs and physical agents

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95
Q

Types of physical urticaria

A
  1. Dermographism (mechanical)
  2. Cold/heat urticaria (weather)
  3. Solar urticaria (uv rays)
  4. Aquagenic urticaria (water)
  5. Cholinergic urticaria ( exercise)
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96
Q

Most cases of cases are idiopathic or follow URTI

A

Acute urticaria

97
Q

Lesion due to autoimmune process or physical stimuli; food could aggravate it but not the cause

A

Chronic urticaria (single causative factor rarely found)

98
Q

C/P of urticarial wheal

A

Very itchy sudden onset edematous plaques of various sizes subsiding within a few hours

99
Q

Investigation of acute urticaria

A

Skin prick test of little value

100
Q

Investigation of chronic urticaria

A

Check for Autoantibodies

101
Q

First line management of urticaria

A

2nd generation antihistamine
- daily for 2-3 weeks ~> no control ~> incr dose x4 the recommended
- single agent better than combination

102
Q

Biological therapy of urticaria

A

Monthly subcutaneous Anti-IgE Ab

103
Q

In management of urticaria: systemic steroid

A

a short course in severe cases only

104
Q

Adrenaline is CI in

A

HTN and heart ds

105
Q

Adrenaline dose in airway obstruction

A

1/1000 1cc subcutaneously

106
Q

Type4 hypersensitivity to insect bite

A

Papular urticaria

107
Q

Prurigo of Hebra

A

Severe papular urticaria in an atopic person

108
Q

C/P of papular urticaria

A

Edematous itchy papule then becomes firm pruritic papule lasts for few days
Groups in cluster/ crops at irregular interval and may vesiculate
Associated with scratch mark & possible 2• bacterial infection

109
Q

Target or iris lesion

A

Erythema multiforme

110
Q

Most common cause of erthyma multiforme

A

As an immune reaction to infection by HSV

111
Q

Bilateral symmetrical lesions

A
  1. Discoid eczema
  2. Erythema multiforme
  3. Psoriasis vulgaris
  4. Drug eruption (symmetrical& generalized)
  5. Pityriasis rosae rash ( symmetrical& generalized)
  6. Secondary syphillis
112
Q

Erythema multiforme lasts for

A

1-2 weeks (appears as successive crops at intervals for few days)

113
Q

If EM is recurrent secondary to HSV

A

Give acyclovir 400mgx2 day for 6-12 weeks

114
Q

Cutanous reaction to topically applied drug is?

A

Allergic Contact dermatitis

115
Q

Dusky violaceous sharply margunated erythematous patch

A

Fixed drug eruption

116
Q

Permanent slate blue discoloration

A

Healing fixed drug eruption

117
Q

Commonest sites of FDE

A

Lips, dorsum of hands, penis

118
Q

If bullae develop on a FDE lesion and rupture if will leave?

A

Superficial erosions

119
Q

FDE TTT

A

Stop drug
Emollient and topical steroid

120
Q

Acne is

A

Chronic inflammation of sebaceous hair follicle

121
Q

Pathogenesis of acne

A
  1. Incr sebum production
  2. Pilosebaceous duct cornification
  3. Colonization by P. Acne
  4. Inflammatory mediators
122
Q

Sebum of acne prone skin is deficient in?

A

Leinoleic acid

123
Q

Leinoleic acid

A

Important for normal cornification of cells of pilosebaceous follicles

124
Q

Open comedone

A

Black head

125
Q

Whitehead lesion

A

Closed comedones

126
Q

Deficient leinoleic acid in sebum leads to

A

Hyperkeratosis of pilosebaceous duct -> obstruction of pathway

127
Q

Lipase by P. Ance

A

Cause of inflammation in acne by:
1. Degrade TAG ~> FFA ~> irritant~> hyperkeratosis
2. Chemoattractant

128
Q

Cyproterone acetate

A

Anti-androgens for acne
CI in males

129
Q

Post acne scar ttt

A
  1. Dermabrasion
  2. Laser resurfacing: Fractional co2 laser
  3. Chemical peeling
130
Q

Silvery laminated scales

A

Psoriasis

131
Q

Psoriasis is a ds of adults except

A

Napkin Psoriasis and guttate psoriasis

132
Q

Patho of psoriasis

A

Prob immune reaction involving T cell. Incr in epidermal cell proliferation 20x and vascular proliferation
More than 30% +ve family historyb

133
Q

Koebner phenomenon

A

psoriasis at site of trauma
Napkin psoriasis is a presentation of it

134
Q

Guttate psoriasis

A

Streptococcal throat infection

135
Q

Psoriasis precipitating factors

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Stretococcal sore throat
  3. Puberty and menopause
  4. Pregnancy ( improve or worsen to generlized pustular)
  5. Stress
  6. Sun, humidity, hot weather (improve it)
  7. Hypocalcemia
  8. Antimalarial, BB, lithium : vulgaris
    While sys steroids erythrodermic/ pustular
136
Q

Primary lesion of psoriasis

A

Erythematous Papule

137
Q

Erthymatous papule covered with silver scales coalesing to a well defined plaque

A

Psoriasis

138
Q

Drop-like lesions on trunk preceded by acute strep infection

A

Guttate psoriasis

139
Q

All psoriasis has silver scales except

A

Flexural psoriasis due to moisture sites and continuous friction

140
Q

30-50% of localized psoriasis are

A

Psoriasis of the nails

141
Q

Commonest form of psoriasis is

A

Psoriasis vulgaris

142
Q

Psoriasis of nail characterized by

A
  1. Pitting of nail
  2. Transverse lines
  3. Subungal hyperkeratosis
  4. Onycholusos
143
Q

Test for diagnosis of psoriasis

A

Grattage test ~> auspitz sign (pinpoint bleeding after scraping the membrane)

144
Q

TTT of psoriasis depends on?

A

Extent, impact on life, side effect

145
Q

Phototherapy and photo-chemotherapy used in

A

Specific ttt of psoriasis (NB-UVB - PUVA)

146
Q

Systemic ttt of psoriasis

A

Methotrexate
Cyclosporin
Acitretin
Biologics

147
Q

Mainstay ttt of moderate to severe psoriasis

A

NB-UVB - safe in pregnancy, lactation and children

148
Q

Intra-lesion steroids in

A

Resistant nail psoriasis lesion
Hypertrophic lichen planus
Alopecia areata

149
Q

Anthralin (dithranol)

A

Psoriasis ttt
Antimitotic
Highly Effective but Irritant & Stains skin

150
Q

Goekerman technique

A

Tar preparation (coal tar) + UVB for psoriasis

151
Q

Tar preparation side effect

A

Unpleasant odour and stain cloth

152
Q

Methotrexate side effect

A

BM suppression and hepatotoxicity
CI in pregnancy and liver ds

153
Q

Side effects of acitretin

A

Teratogenicity and increase serum cholesterol

CI in children and pregnancy

154
Q

Bran-like scales

A

Pityriasis rosea

155
Q

First clinical sign of pityriasis rosea

A

Herald patch

156
Q

Commonest site of pityriasis rosae

A

Anterior chest (trunk)

157
Q

Christmas tree pattern

A

2ndry rash of pityriasis rosea in the back which follow line of cleavage of skin

158
Q

Prognosis of piyriasis rosea

A

-Lesion disappear in 6-8 weeks unless severe/atypical form lasts longer
-Recurrence uncommom

159
Q

Treatment hastens pityriasis rosea clearance

A

Fasle

160
Q

Rosea is usually self-limiting (6-8weeks) asymptomatic with variable degress of itching

A

True

161
Q

TTT note for pityriasis rosea

A

Reassurance of patient

162
Q

DD of pityriasis rosea

A
  1. Tinea circinate
  2. Guttate psoriasis
  3. Secondary syphillitis rash
  4. Pityrisiform drug eruption
163
Q

How long after herald patch does the rash of rosea erupt?

A

1-2 weeks after

164
Q

Well defined reddish brown patch, no active edge, fine scales @ intertriginous area

A

Erythrasma by Corynebacterium minutissimum

Coral red by wood’s light

165
Q

Koebner phenomenon or isomorphic response

A

Skin lesions appearing in lines of trauma

Lichen, psoriasis , plane wart, molluscum, linear pattern vitiligo

166
Q

Lichen planus associated with

A

HCV and autoimmune ds

167
Q

Lichen planus is ppt by

A

Sun and trauma

168
Q

Lichen planus not common at extremes of age

A

True

169
Q

Wickham’s striae

A

Lichen planus

170
Q

4 P of Lichen Planus

A

Pruritic (marked symptom)
Polygonal
Purple
Papule

171
Q

Flat topped purple papule

A

Lichen planus

172
Q

Sites commonly affected in lichen planus

A

Front of wrist and forearm, leg and genitalia

173
Q

Moth eaten alopicia

A

Secondary syphillis

174
Q

Exclamation mark hairs

A

Thin proximal and thick distal : alopecia areata

175
Q

Follocular miniaturization

A

Terminal hair to villus under effect of androgen

176
Q

Melanocytes

A

Dendritic cells in basal layer

177
Q

Normal skin color

A

Melanin
Blood
Carotenoids

178
Q

Depigmentation examples

A

Vitiligo localized
Albinism diffuse

179
Q

How to differentiate b/w dermal and epidermal melasma

A

Wood’s light

180
Q

Mainstay treatment of vitiligo

A

NB-UVB phototherapy

181
Q

When can perform surgical auto-grafting in vitiligo

A

If ds is stationary for one yeat

182
Q

Topical TTT Vitilgo

A

Potent topical steroid
Topical Calcineurin inhibitors

183
Q

Tranexamic acid

A

Ttt of melasma

184
Q

Association of melasma

A

Pregnancy
Ovarian cancer
Oral contraceptive
Idopathic sometimes

185
Q

H. Ducreyi

A

Chancroid

186
Q

Primary lesion of chancroid

A

Papule

187
Q

C/P of chancroid

A
  1. Soft papules surrounded by erythema ~> pustules ~> erode ~> ulcer (tender and painful)
  2. Vesicles never seen
  3. Ulcer: ragged & undermined edge with soft granulation at base that bleeds on manipulation
  4. Accompanied by unilateral painful & tender matted LN ~> suppurate + sinuses
188
Q

Corkscrew rotation

A

T.pallidum

189
Q

Incubation period of syphillis

A

9-90 days

190
Q

Chancroid incubation period

A

4-10 days

191
Q

Syphillitic Chancre heal in

A

2-6 weeks

192
Q

Snail track ulcers
Moth eaten alopecia
Condyloma lata

A

2ndry syphillis

193
Q

Non itchy rash affecting whole body including palm and soles

A

Syphillitic rash

194
Q

+ve serology but no s/s of suphillis

A

Latent stage of syphillis

195
Q

Relapse of syphillis occurs during

A

Early latent phase (first 2 years)

196
Q

Fate of untreated latent syphillis

A
  1. Spontaneous cure/ burnt out 30%
  2. Presistant latent syphillis 30%
  3. Benign tertiary syphillis 15%
  4. Chronic inflammation of vital organs 25%
197
Q

FTA-ABS IgM

A

Rule out false positive reagin test and detect late syphillis
It is the first specific test to become +ve and most sensitive
Only one to diagnose neonatal syphilis
Use nichol’s strain

198
Q

Most specific treponemal test

A

Treponema pallidum immobilization test (TPI)

199
Q

Best indication of succesful syphyillis therapy is?

A

Falling non treponemal titre

200
Q

Ttt of syphillis

A
  1. Long acting benzathine penicillin:
    - early: 2.4million single IM
    - late : 2.4 million per week for 3 weeks

2.Erythromycin/ tetracycline 2gm daily (500mg x4 daily) for 15 days (early) 30 days (late)

201
Q

Stratified squamous epithelium is resistant to infection by

A

N. Gonorrhea

202
Q

N. Gonorrhea

A

Infects columnar and transitional epithilium using pili and fimbrae

Gram-ve, kidney shaped, intracellular diplocci in PMN cells

203
Q

Birth canal gonorrhea

A

Ophthalmia neonatorum

204
Q

Male is protected from trichomonas vaginalis by?

A

Prostatic secretions and absence of glycogen

205
Q

T vaginalis incubation period

A

3 days to 3 weeks

206
Q

Strawberry cervix and offensive discharge

A

T. Vaginalis

207
Q

Dark field microscopy for

A

T. Pallidum and T. Vaginalis

208
Q

Starts anterior urthera the. Posterior if untreated after 2 weeks

A

Gonococcal urthritis

209
Q

Papanicolaou stain

A

T. Vaginalis stained smear
(Less reliable)

210
Q

Ttt T. Vaginalis

A

metronidazole/tomodazole 2 gm Single dose
Or metro 500mg bid 7 days in resistant

Ttt partner too

211
Q

Most common presenting symptom of female gonorrhea

A

Vaginal discharge from endocervicitis thats thin, purulent, mildly odorus

212
Q

Painful erection and heamospermiaa

A

N. Gonorrhea in male complicated by seminal vesiculitis

213
Q

Female complications of N gonnorrhea

A
  1. Skenitis
  2. PID
  3. Batholonotis
  4. Perihepatitis with salpingitis
214
Q

If gonococcal cervisitis

A

Mostly minimum or non-discharge
Cervix 90%, urethra 80% site of affection

215
Q

Predisposing factors to N. gonnorhea in children

A
  1. Immature s. squamous in valvuvaginal epithilium ~> low glycogen and alkaline pH
  2. Sexual abuse
  3. G. Ophthalmia during birth from mother

1,2 ~> gonococcal vulvovaginitis

216
Q

Disseminated gonorrhea infection more in?

A

Females.

Fever, joint affection and skin rash + positive blood culture of gonorrhea

217
Q

Morning drop in

A

Gonorrhea smear test for acute cases / complicated chronic

218
Q

Smears from over night urine for

A

Test contact for gonorrhea

219
Q

When is culture preferred for gonorrhea

A

Female
Rectal
Oral
Disseminated infection

220
Q

Selective media for n. Gonorrhea

A

Thayer martin medium
Chocolate agar: growth media
Aerobic

221
Q

Most sensitice gonoccocal test is?

A

Radioimmune assay against fimbrae

222
Q

Gonococcal follow up

A

3rd day no discharge ~> successful ttt

223
Q

Coexisting chlamydial infection give?

A

Azithromycin oral 1gm single dose
Also prevent post gonococcal urethritis

224
Q

First line ttt for gonococci

A

Ceftriaxone 250mg IM single dose

225
Q

Alternative ttt for gonococci

A

Spectinomycin 2g IM single dose

226
Q

Elementary body

A

Infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis
Adapted to cellular environment

227
Q

Inclusion body

A

Intracellular replicating form

228
Q

Incubation period of chlamydia trachomatis

A

2 to 3 weeks

229
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis discharge is different from gonococcal discharge by

A

Being mucoid or Muco-purulent discharge, and it is milder than arthritis.

230
Q

Vertical infection of chlamydia causes

A

Conjunctivitis pneumonia, otitis media

231
Q

Reiter’s syndrome caused by

A

Chlamydia trachomatis, ureaplasma, mycoplasma infection in male

232
Q

Why is chlamydia trachomatis, mycoplasma and ureplasma dangerous in pregnancy?

A

It is a cause of abortion, still birth, premature labour

233
Q

Investigation of chlamydia is done by

A

Serodiagnosis or DNA by PCR as it does not grow on artificial media

234
Q

Mycoplasma plasma differs from chlamydia by

A

It can grow on artificial media

235
Q

Fried egg colonies

A

Mycoplasma media on culture

236
Q

Nongonoccoal urthritis ttt

A

Azithro 1gm single dose
Tetra 500mg x 1 x 4 x 14
Doxcii 100mg x1 x 2 x 14
Erythro 500mg x 1 x 4 x 14 (pregnancy)

237
Q

Salmon red annular lesion

A

Psoriasis

238
Q

Non vesicular full body rash including palm and soles

A

2ndry syphilis

ASU Yr4 Flashcards (6 decks)

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