Community Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Epidemiology is the study of_____,_____,&_____ of health related states and events in a defined population the _______ of this study to the control of health problems

A

Distribution
Dynamic
Determinants
Application

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2
Q

Distribution includes a description of the disease frequency by?

A

Person, time and place

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3
Q

The interaction between different factors in transmission of a disease is

A

Dynamics of a disease

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4
Q

Risk factors or the factors that determine the probability of occurrence of a disease is also called

A

Determinants of the disease

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5
Q

Infection is:

A

The entry and multiplication of an infectious agent

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6
Q

Endemic is

A

a constant presence of a disease in a given area or population

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7
Q

The occurrence of a disease in the community in excess number of cases more than expected to this specified location and during the specified period of time during the past years is

A

Epidemic

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8
Q

The occurrence of one case of a completely and globally, eradicated disease should drink the bell for the beginning of an?

A

Epidemic

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9
Q

When the epidemic occurs in a small confined area, for example, school, camp or hospital, we call this

A

An Outbreak (a localized epidemic)

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10
Q

An epidemic affecting more than one country or a wide geographical area or region is called

A

A pandemic

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11
Q

Mention the components of the epidemiologic triad

A

agent
host
environment

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12
Q

For a disease to occur, a harmful agent should come into contact with a susceptible host under specified environmental condition. This is known as.

A

The epidemiologic triad

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13
Q

What is the difference between risk attributes and social traits?

A

Risk attributes are non-modifiable host factors
social traits are the modifiable host factors

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14
Q

Give a an example for each of a physical biological and sociocultural environmental factors

A

Physical: climate, pollution, residency
Biological: vectors such as mosquitoes
Socio-cultural: overcrowding, poverty, dietary habits

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15
Q

What is the role of community medicine in the stage of positive health?

A

Primary preventative measures such as health, promotion, counseling, and care of special groups

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16
Q

What is the role of community medicine in the stage of susceptibility?

A

Its role is primary preventative measures such as risk assessment, preventative measures, and susceptibility detection

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17
Q

What are the stages in the natural history of diseases?

A

Stage of positive health
Stage of susceptibility
Stage of pre-pathogenesis and subclinical
Stage of manifest disease, clinical disease
Stage of disability
Stage of death

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18
Q

What is the role of community medicine in the stage of manifest disease?

A

Its role is secondary preventative, measures such as control, epidemiology, registry, and disease burden

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19
Q

What is the role of community medicine in the stage of disability?

A

It is a tertiary preventative measures, such as disability evaluation, assessment of burden and rehabitation

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20
Q

Mention the role of community medicine in the stage of death

A

Registry, mortality rates, and economic impact

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21
Q

What is the stage of susceptibility?

A

The stage at which the disease has not developed, but the presence of risk factors favours it’s occurrence

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22
Q

What is the stage of pre pathogenesis?

A

The stage at which disease process has begun, but there are no detectible signs or symptom
E.g atherosclerosis happening before any sign of the disease appear

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23
Q

The practice of preventative medicine include includes:

A
  1. prevent the occurrence of the disease
  2. Health promotion
  3. Restore health impairment and minimize suffering
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24
Q

Examples of incubatory carriers

A

Mumps
Poliomyelitis
Hepatitis B

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25
Q

Examples of convalescent carrier

A

Typhoid fever

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26
Q

What is a healthy carrier and give an example?

A

Our contact carriers that emerge from clinical or sub clinical case, they are apparently healthy, but they are shedding the organism
Eg poliomylities and cholera

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27
Q

Examples of chronic carriers

A

Typhoid, gonorrhea, and hepatitis B

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28
Q

Human carriers are classified according to duration into

A

Temporary carriers : shed for short periods of such as incubatory, convalescent, and healthy carriers

chronic carriers: shed for indefinite periods months and years: typhoid, hepatitis B, and gonorrhoea

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29
Q

Mention modes of direct infection transmission

A

Direct contact: HIV, gonorrhea, leprosy, eye infection
Droplet : mumps and common cold
Transplacental : German measles ( rubella ), HIV, toxoplasmosis

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30
Q

What is the difference between droplet borne and airborne infections?

A

Droplet borne is a direct MOT, agent is more than 5 µm example mumps and common cold

Airborne is an indirect MOT, agent is less than 5 µm example TB and influenza

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31
Q

Examples of a vector borne infections

A

Malaria, plague, filariasis, and rift Valley fever

32
Q

Fomite borne Infections

A

Hepatitis A and eye diseases

33
Q

Enumerate the indirect modes of transmission

A

Vector borne
Vehicle transmission
Airborne
Fomite-borne

34
Q

Examples of common droplet infection

A

Measles, rubella, mumps, chickenpox, Rheumatic fever, influenza (airborne), COVID-19 meningitis tuberclosis (airbirne)

35
Q

Indications of screening for STDs

A

High risk groups: sexually active females, pregnant females, and homosexuals

36
Q

Mention specific measures to reduce transmission of sexually transmitted disease diseases

A

Immunization against HPV
Co-treatment of sexual partners
Screening for STDs

37
Q

Examples of common contact transmitted diseases

A

Tetanus, schistosomiasis, perpural sepsis, Ebola virus disease

38
Q

What are general and special measures to reduce transmission of common contact diseases?

A

General measure:
Proper chemotherapy
Snail control (schistosomiasis)
Health education
Environmental sanitation
Care during delivery and puerperium

Special measures:
Active immunization (tetanus)
Mass and individual treatment (schistosomiasis)

39
Q

What are the four isolation categories (precautions in hospital)

A

Standard precaution
Airborne precaution
Droplet precaution
Contact precaution

40
Q

What are the eight items of standard precautions?

A

Hand hygiene
PPE
Aseptic techniques
Proper waste management
Environmental cleaning
Safe injection practises
Reprocessing of instruments
Respiratory hygiene and cough etiquette

41
Q

What are the airborne precautions made at the hospital?

A

Standard precautions plus
-Negative air pressure room
-Limited movement and transport of patient
-Patient use surgical mask if are moved

42
Q

Six core component or building blocks of health care systems are:

A

Service delivery
Health workforce (human resource)
Health information
Access to essential medicines
Financing
Leadership and governance

43
Q

What are the 3 vaccinations that could be administered at birth to a newborn?

A

BCG
Polio
Hepatitis B

44
Q

High risk children are those who have/ is?

A
  1. Congenital anomaly.
  2. Mental abnormalities.
  3. Malnutrition.
  4. Chronic diseases.
  5. Birth weight < 2.5 KG.
  6. Stunted weight and height during the first 3 months.
  7. Bottle fed child
  8. Dead parents.
  9. Born in a big family.
45
Q

When is the second tetanus toxoid dose taken during pregnancy?

A

4 weeks after first dose or 3 weeks before delivery

46
Q

What is the percent protection of the first tetanus toxoid vaccination during pregnancy? When is it given?

A

Zero%
At 1st antenatal visit provided being after 12 weeks of gestation

47
Q

Neonatal death rate is an indicator of?

A

Effective woman health care service (mortality rate)

48
Q

_________ is the most suitable health education method for elderly In egypt

A

Mass education

49
Q

Mention 2 methods of healthcare education in elderly

A

Mass media
Counselling

50
Q

Pap smears are done every_____ after a woman has had a normal smear

A

3 yrs

51
Q

What are the screening tests done for the elderly?

A

Weight and height
Dipstick for diabetes
Blood pressure
Hearing and visual acuity
Annual mammography
Pap smear
Bone density for osteoporosis
Annual PSA
Annual faecal occult blood test
Alpha-fetoprotein

52
Q

T/F
Screening for hepatocellular carcinoma using alpha-fetoprotein is done for all the elderly group

A

False; only for individuals serologically positive for hepatitis B surface antigen or hepatitis C virus positive

53
Q

The activities of daily living (ADL) and the instrumental activities of daily living(IADL) is a measure of

A

Secondary prevention in the elderly (early detection, assessment and screening)

54
Q

Travellers are advised to consult a physician________weeks before departure in order to allow sufficient time for immunization schedule

A

4-8 weeks

55
Q

17D vaccine is

A

Yellow fever vaccine

56
Q

Yellow fever, single injection vaccine validity begins after______ and persists for_______

A

10 days, life

57
Q

Booster of tetanus and diphtheria is are recommended to be taken every____

A

10 years

58
Q

Typhim Vi is a single dose given intramuscularly at least______ before travel

A

2 weeks

59
Q

Dramaamine (antihistaminic anticholinergic) is used to prevent travellers from?

A

Motion sickness

60
Q

_______ is the leading cause of travellers’ diarrhea

A

Enterotoxigenic E.Coli

61
Q

Which vaccination must be shown for the Hajj visa

A

Meningococcal vaccination

62
Q

Most common causes of hospital admission during Hajj season is

A

Pneumonia

63
Q

The most feared trauma hazard in Hajj is

A

Stampede

64
Q

A person with experience in coding the causes of death according to the ICD

A

Nosologist

65
Q

Define the viability of the fetus

A

The point at which the fetus can be supported to live outside his mother’s uterus

66
Q

What is the international and Western timeline for viability of the foetus

A

Internationally 28th weeks of gestation
Western countries 20th weeks of gestation

67
Q

The duration from point of viability (28th week) till the 7th day after birth is called

A

Perinatal period

68
Q

The most sensitive index for the health status of a community and one of the indices used to evaluate the development of a country is

A

Infant mortality rate

69
Q

What is the most common and important cause of maternal mortality?

A

Hemorrhage (Anti-partum and postpartum)

70
Q

Incidence rate of disease is a measure of

A

Risk; estimate the probability of healthy people to develop the disease during a specific time.

71
Q

Prevalence rate measure_________ in the community and it’s measured by______ studies

A

The burden of diseases, cross-sectional

72
Q

Child bearing period is

A

15-49yrs

73
Q

Crude fertility rate is an indicator for

A

Fertility and population estimation in-between census years

74
Q

Reproduction rates measure the replacement of the _________ population only

A

Female

75
Q

The ultimate goal of family planning program is to______ the net reproduction rate to________

A

Reduce, one