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MedTest CRAM > UROLOGY > Flashcards

UROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q 
Which plays the main role in the development of testicular tumor?
A)  injury
B)  testicular torsion
C)  retentio testis (cryptorchidism)
D)  genetic predisposition
A

C) retentio testis (cryptorchidism)

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2
Q 
In which typical disease complains the patient pain when touching his scrotum?
A)  	testicular tumor
B)  	epididymitis
C)  	hydrocele
D)  	varicocele
A

B) epididymitis

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3
Q 
The most specific palpation sign of prostate cancer is:
A)  	enlarged, pasta like
B)  	cartilage hard
C)  	enlarged, painful
D)  	enlarged, painless
A

B) cartilage hard

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4
Q

Why do we not see pus cells in the urine which was proved to be pus positive with KOH test?
A) the urine is alkaline
B) besides the pus cells, there are also bacterial cells too
C) the urine is acidic
D) there are crystals in the urine

A

A) the urine is alkaline

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5
Q

What is specific for the female urine
A) it has higher pH level
B) it contains a lot of epithelial cells
C) it contains always some red blood cells
D) it contains always some pus cells

A

B) it contains a lot of epithelial cells

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6
Q 
The normal serum creatinine level is:
A)  	60-120 micromol/liter
B)  	6-12 micromol/ liter
C)  	6-120 microgramm/ liter
D)  	60-120 milligram / liter
A

A) 60-120 micromol/liter

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7
Q 
The following diagnoses are synonyms. The only exception is:
A)  	hypernephroma
B)  	Grawitz- tumor
C)  	renal cell carcinoma
D)  	renal adenoma
A

D) renal adenoma

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8
Q 
The testicular torsion:
A)  	is always on both sides
B)  	children most likely wake up because of scrotal pain
C)  	immediately causes a high fever
D)  	is more common on the right side
A

B) children most likely wake up because of scrotal pain

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9
Q 
It is typical for renal colic, except:
A)  	kidney sensitivity
B)  	nausea, vomiting
C)  	pain in the labias or in the testicles
D)  	sensitivity at the McBurney’s point
A

D) sensitivity at the McBurney’s point

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10
Q 
The conversion of testosterone into dihydrotestosterone is done by:
A)  	5α-reductase
B)  	7-β-citosterine
C)  	aromatase
D)  	acid phosphatase
A

A) 5α-reductase

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11
Q 
Which of the following factors plays a certain role in the epidemiology of prostate cancer?
A)  	age
B)  	genetic factors
C)  	hormone levels
D)  	most likely all three
A

D) most likely all three

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12
Q 
The following factor has an important role in the etiology of urothelial cancer:
A)  	smoking
B)  	alcohol
C)  	bensidin
D)  	bensin
A

A) smoking

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13
Q 
Charrière =
A)  	0,5 mm
B)  	3 mm
C)  	1 mm
D)  	0,33 mm
A

D) 0,33 mm

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14
Q

The main symptom of stress incontinence is:
A) urination urgency
B) incontinence during nights
C) low abdominal pain
D) incontinence after increased abdominal pressure
E) burning in the vagina

A

D) incontinence after increased abdominal pressure

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15
Q 
Urodynamic examination is recommended:
A)  	in case of hematuria
B)  	in case of pyuria and fever
C)  	imperative urinary stimuli and involuntary discharge of urine from the bladder when coughing
D)  	in case of abnormal bleeding
A

C) imperative urinary stimuli and involuntary discharge of urine from the bladder when coughing

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16
Q

When feeling a painless node in the testis the next step should be:
A) observation, making up a next consultation
B) send him to urology
C) antibiotics and control
D) investigation because of potential chronic prostatitis

A

B) send him to urology

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17
Q

Dysuria can be a symptom of:

1) bladder stone
2) prostate cancer
3) acute prostatitis
4) phimosis

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

E) all of the answers are correct

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18
Q

Cause of pollakisuria:

1) Ormond’s disease
2) urine retention in the bladder
3) stress incontinence
4) urethritis

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

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19
Q

Cause of urinary total retention:

1) bladder tumor
2) prostatitis acuta
3) bladder stone
4) bladder paralysis

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

E) all of the answers are correct

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20
Q

Inflammations with fever:

1) acute pyelonephritis
2) acute prostatitis
3) acute epididymitis
4) acute cystitis

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

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21
Q

What tests can detect prostate cancer?

1) PSA
2) DRE (digital rectal examination)
3) biopsy
4) abdominal CT

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

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22
Q

Cystography is indicated in:

1) bladder fistula
2) detecting or excluding bladder trauma
3) examine bladder diverticulum
4) diagnosing cystitis

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

23
Q

Ultrasound

1) is better than intravenous urography to detect kidney tumors
2) is better than intravenous urography to detect urothelial tumor
3) is better than CT to detect prostate diseases
4) in the urological ultrasound examinations the 15000-20000 Mhz frequency is used

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

24
Q

In the andrological examination the following hormone levels are measured:

1) testosterone
2) FSH
3) LH
4) Parathormone

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

25
Q

The testicular ultrasound examination is good to detect:

1) infertility
2) testicular tumor
3) azoospermia
4) orchidoepididymitis

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

26
Q

The chloride level can be high :

1) in kidney failure
2) after ureterosigmoideostomy
3) because of increased intake of sodium hydrogencarbonate from soda pops
4) in hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

27
Q

To prevent superficial bladder tumors bladder installation can be performed with:

1) BCG
2) Bleomycin
3) Mitomycin C
4) Vincristin

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

28
Q

Continent urinary diversions are:

1) ureterocutaneostomy
2) orthotopic ileal bladder
3) cutaneous uretero-ileostomy (Bricker bladder)
4) Sigma rectum pouch (Mainz pouch II)

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

In an ureterocutaneostomy the urethra is terminating on the abdominal wall. In the Bricker bladder, ureter is implanted in a short ileum segment, the other end of the intestinal tract is determined to the abdominal wall. These two methods are not continental urinary tract creating methods, because the urine is constantly flowing away, patients should wear urostomy bags. Orthotopic bladder formation is a bladder replacement from an isolated intestinal tract, in which case the bladder is sewn with the original urethra. The Mainz II. pouch is actually a low pressure, continental urine reservoir, in which case the ureter is implanted into the detubularized intestinal segment of the sigma.

29
Q

Invasive bladder tumor treatment options:

1) Mitomycin, Epirubicin
2) radical cystectomy
3) local chemotherapy
4) resection of bladder wall

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

Local chemotherapy is only suitable for the prevention of tumor recurrences after surgical treatment of superficial bladder tumors.

30
Q

Pyelonephritis gravidarum:

1) is mostly on the left side
2) therapy = pregnancy interruption
3) frequent in the first trimester
4) hydronephrosis can be detected with ultrasound

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

D) only the 4th answer is correct

31
Q

Not a transurethral procedure:

1) internal urethrotomy
2) ESWL (Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy)
3) inserting urethral catheter with cystoscopy
4) epicystostomy

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

Epicystostomy means percutaneous bladder punction.

32
Q

Which factors have negative effect on potency?

1) diabetes
2) hyperthyroidism
3) beta blockers used in hypertension
4) antidiabetics

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

POTENCY = Erection

33
Q

Acute kidney failure laboratory values:

1) hyperkalemia
2) hypermagnesemia
3) acidosis
4) hyponatremia

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

E) all of the answers are correct

34
Q

Cause of acute anuria:

1) fungal infections
2) methyl alcohol
3) ethylene glycol
4) sodium hydroxide

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

35
Q

Which are the testicular tumor markers?

1) PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen)
2) β-hCG
3) testosterone
4) AFP (Alpha-fetoprotein)

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

36
Q

Which of the following drugs are used to improve incontinence in females?

1) Doxycycline
2) Ditropan (oxybutynin)
3) Minipress (prazosin)
4) Ephedrine

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

37
Q

Cause(s) of erectile dysfunction:

1) antihypertensive drugs
2) induratio penis plastica
3) prostatovesiculitis
4) alcoholism

A)  	the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B)  	the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C)  	the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D)  	only the 4th answer is correct
E)  	all of the answers are correct
A

E) all of the answers are correct

38
Q

Which of the following can be used to separate kidney cyst from tumor?

1) ultrasound
2) IVP (Intravenous pyelogram)
3) CT
4) retrograde pyelography
5) angiography

A) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

A) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct

39
Q

Symptoms of acute pyelonephritis:

1) Both side kidney pain
2) kidney sensitivity to touch
3) fever
4) pyuria
5) macroscopic haematuria

A) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct

40
Q

Cause of pain associated with posture or movement can be:

1) rheumatic disease
2) vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)
3) kidney stone stuck in the ureter
4) nephroptosis
5) spinal disc herniation

A) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct

41
Q

Cause of macroscopic haematuria can be:

1) renal adenocarcinoma
2) acute pyelonephritis
3) vesicoureteral reflux
4) acute cystitis
5) bladder tumor

A) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct

42
Q 
Pair the lab marker with the most relevant number marked clinical status!
A)  	PSA
B)  	AFP
C)  	β-hCG
D)  	alkaline phosphatase
E)  	all of them
F)  	none of them

URO - 46 - Elevated level can be a predictive sign of bone metastases in prostate cancer.
URO - 47 - After the TUR surgery of bladder cancer it should be frequently checked.
URO - 48 - The normal level could be higher than 6,5 ng/ml after the age of 80.
URO - 49 - Elevated level can be found in the early stage prostate cancer too.
URO - 50 - In the case of seminoma extending through the tunica albuginea elevated level can be found.

A 
URO - 46 - D)
URO - 47 - F)
URO - 48 - A)
URO - 49 - A)
URO - 50 - F)
43
Q 
Pair the andrological abnormalities with the letter signed clinical references!
A)  	erectile dysfunction
B)  	infertility
C)  	male menopause
D)  	retrograde ejaculation

URO - 51 - It can caused by varicocele
URO - 52 - It appears as a frequent complication after TUR (transurethral resection) surgery.
URO - 53 - It can caused by beta blockers.
URO - 54 - One way of the treatment can be a vacuum constriction device

A

URO - 51 - B)
URO - 52 - D)
URO - 53 - A)
URO - 54 - A)

44
Q 
Pair the the kidney stone(s) to the typical description!
A)  	uric acid stone
B)  	cystine kidney stone
C)  	calcium oxalate kidney stone
D)  	struvite kidney stone

URO - 56 - A high, alkaline pH level increases the risk of developing these type of kidney stones.
URO - 57 - the so called negative stone
URO - 58 - Good solubility when treated with drugs.
URO - 59 - To prevent the recurrence D-Penicillamin or Thiola can be used.
URO - 60 - In case of presence, reduced meat diet is recommended

A 
URO - 56 - D)
URO - 57 - A)
URO - 58 - A)
URO - 59 - B)
URO - 60 - A)
45
Q

Pair the diagnostic procedure name(s) to the relevant description!
A) URS (ureterorenoscopy)
B) PCNL (Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy)
C) ESWL (Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy)
D) all of them
E) none of them

URO - 61 - non-endoscopic procedure
URO - 62 - used in kidney stone treatment
URO - 63 - Used in BPH treatment
URO - 64 - The procedure is performed through the skin
URO - 65 - It can be a diagnostic procedure too.
URO - 66 - The procedure is only performed in intubation narcosis

A 
URO - 61 - C)
URO - 62 - D)
URO - 63 - E)
URO - 64 - B)
URO - 65 - A)
URO - 66 - E)
46
Q

In case of acute renal colic the first choice should be narcotic pain medication, so patients having renal colic should be directed to urology department immediately.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

E) both the statement and the explanation are false

Renal colic with fever, chills and without vomiting can be treated in the patients home with iv. or im. analgesics and antispasmodics (eg Algopyrin, No-Spa). However, in the case of no response of medication, an institute referral is required. Here, with the assured diagnosis, we can add stronger painkillers. However, in order to avoid masking the symptoms of any other acute abdominal complaints on the spot, narcotic analgesics are prohibited.

47
Q

3 months after the TUR surgery of bladder tumor cystoscopy should be performed because this is the best way to detect the possible recurrence.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;

48
Q

After the TUR surgery of superficial bladder tumors local BCG bladder installation should be performed, because this is the only drug for this procedure.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;

In the case of superficial bladder tumors, the recurrences are very common, as prevention immunomodulatory agents can be locally used such as BCG, Interferon or Interleukin instillation.

49
Q

If the urine flows through the small intestine constant bacteruria will be detected, so patients will have hyperchloremic acidosis.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true

In the case of small bowel bladder replacement - if secondary superficial infection has not occurred - urine is not bacteriuretic. After bladder replacement with intestinal segregation, hyperchloraemic acidosis is always present. This is due to the fact that chloride and ammonium ion are absorbed from the intestine and due to the protons that are removed from the ammonium ion in the liver, the pH level of the blood is shifted in the acidic direction.

50
Q

Before radical prostatectomy (PSA under 10 ng/ml) regional lymph node dissection should be performed, because the result influences the possibly occurring adjuvant therapy.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;

Radical prostatectomy means the „en bloc” removal of the prostate and the seminal vesicles. This surgery is indicated only at an early stage (prostate-restricted tumor), so it can not be performed in lymph node positivity. The lymph nodes are removed before surgery or laparoscopically in the first part of the operation and if the frozen section is positive, prostate removal can not be performed.

51
Q

Renal colic is a relative contraindication to IVP, because no filtration appears in the kidneys during the colic period.
A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;

During renal colic, the affected kidneys are obstructed, so a reduced degree of contrast agent will be visible. Thus, the IVP test performed at that time will not be valuable.

52
Q 
First diagnostic procedure: A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of frequent urination. He also complains about low back and leg pain. There is no blood in the urine, urination is not painful, comes in weak yellow stream.
A)  	DRE (digital rectal examination)
B)  	PSA (prostate specific antigen)
C)  	Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)
D)  	prostate biopsy
A

A) DRE (digital rectal examination)

When examining male patients with urinary complaints, the first test to be performed is the urinalysis and then the rectal digital examination, which is the simplest and the cheapest and is always mandatory.

53
Q

By performing the TRUS procedure an increased, non homogenic prostate is found. The capsule is ruptured. The PSA level is 20 ng/ml. The DRE shows a large, not sensitive prostate with hard, uneven surface. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of frequent urination. He also complains about low back and leg pain. There is no blood in the urine, urination is not painful, comes in weak yellow stream.
A) PCA (prostate cancer)
B) BPH (Benign prostatic hyperplasia)
C) chronic prostatitis
D) acute prostatitis

A

A) PCA (prostate cancer)

54
Q

As a result of the diagnostic steps a prostate cancer of stage T3cN1M1 is found, the treatment can be: A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of frequent urination. He also complains about low back and leg pain. There is no blood in the urine, urination is not painful, comes in weak yellow stream.

1) radical prostatectomy
2) bilateral orchiectomy
3) hormone therapy with LHRH agonists
4) Anti-androgen therapy
5) estrogen hormone therapy

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
C) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
D) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
E) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct

A

E) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct

A T3c, N1, M1 stage prostate cancer is a late metastatic carcinoma, so only palliative treatment is possible. This is a method of suspending androgenic activity, which can be achieved by surgical or pharmacological castration (reduction of androgenic hormone levels), antiandrogens (receptor inhibition). Radical prostatectomy can only be performed in early stage prostate cancer, as it is already late.

MedTest CRAM (11 decks)

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