OTOLARYNGOLOGY Flashcards
About the function of the outher hair cells we can get objective information on A) tympanometry B) BERA C) otoacoustic emission D) investigation of stapedial reflex
C) otoacoustic emission
The otoacoustic emission objectively registers the low intensity sounds at the external ear canal,that have been produced by the outer hair cells.
The term "acoustic impedance" refers to the A) pressure in the middle ear. B) resonancy of the external ear. C) hearing loss of inner ear origin. D) acoustic resistance. E) spatial hearing.
D) acoustic resistance.
The part of the middle ear (tympanic membrane and ossicular chain) create an acoustic resistance against the sound wave pressure.
The patients has no ear pain in: A) perichondritis of the ear B) herpes zoster oticus C) angina D) otosclerosis E) lymphadenitis of the neck
D) otosclerosis
Only hearing loss.
Rinne's test is informative in: A) conductive hearing loss B) sensorineural hearing loss C) perforation of the tympanic membrane D) sudden hearing loss
A) conductive hearing loss
In Rinne test the patient hears the transmitted sound better on the bone due to bone conductivity, rather than in the air. This indicates a conductive hearing loss.
Tenderness with pressure on the tragus or traction on the auricle is typical in: A) othematoma B) external otitis C) mastoiditis D) otosclerosis
B) external otitis
The patient suffers from vertigo and unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for 1 hour. The probable diagnosis is: A) acoustic neurinoma B) neuronitis vestibularis C) vertebrobasilar insufficiency D) Ménière's disease
D) Ménière’s disease
The patient suffers from hearing loss on the right side. Weber test is lateralized to the right side. Probable cause of the hearing loss is:
A) otosclerosis on the left side
B) cerumen on the right side
C) Ménière’s disease on the right side
D) sensorineural hearing loss on the right side
B) cerumen on the right side
Weber test is heard louder to the affected side due to conductive hearing loss in the defective ear. The reason of conductive hearing loss most of the times is the existence of earwax.
By the help of Valsalva manouver we can A) diagnose otosclerosis B) ventilate the middle ear C) detect nystagmus D) exclude conductive hearing loss E) evaluate the respiratory function of the nose
B) ventilate the middle ear
The air goes from the nostrils to the middle ear.
Which part of the tympanic membrane should be preferred when doing a paracentesis? A) antero-inferior quadrant B) antero-superior quadrant C) postero-superior quadrant D) postero-inferior quadrant
A) antero-inferior quadrant
What can develop in the middle ear due to short-term obstruction of the Eustachian tube? A) transsudate B) haematoma C) tympanosclerosis D) acute inflammation E) exudate
A) transsudate
In adult patients with unilateral, recurring catarrh of the Eustachian tube you should exclude... A) peritonsillar abscess. B) adenoid hypertrophy. C) malignant tumor in the epipharynx. D) deviated septum.
C) malignant tumor in the epipharynx.
Possible complications of mastoiditis do not include: A) meningitis B) subperiosteal abscess C) cavernous sinus trombosis D) Bezold-abscess E) otogenic hidrocephalus
E) otogenic hidrocephalus
Adequate therapy of a confirmed otosclerosis is
A) mastoidectomy
B) paracentesis
C) transnasal Eustachian tube inflation
D) stapedectomy or stapedotomy
D) stapedectomy or stapedotomy
A choice of treatment in otosclerosis is removal of the sclerotic stapes and replacement by a prosthetic one: stapedectomy. Another type of operation is stapedotomy, when only the stapes superstructure is removed and replaced by a prosthesis.
Peripheral facial palsy cannot be caused by:
A) polyomyelitis
B) herpes zoster oticus
C) mastoiditis
D) chronic otitis media with cholesteatoma
E) otosclerosis
E) otosclerosis
The anatomic structure(s) opening into the middle nose cavity is/are:
A) nasofrontal and nasolacrimal ducts
B) sphenoidal sinus and Eustachian tube
C) maxillary sinus, frontal sinus and anterior and middle ethmoid cells
D) posterior ethmoid cells
E) only the maxillary sinus
C) maxillary sinus, frontal sinus and anterior and middle ethmoid cells
During the treatment of a nasal furuncle always avoid
A) hospitalization and bed rest
B) incision and pressing (squeezing) of the lesion
C) parenteral antibiotic therapy
D) application of warm compresses
B) incision and pressing (squeezing) of the lesion
Aggressive treatment on it can cause thrombophlebitis and further infection. Recommended treatment is antibiotics.
For the treatment of a simple rhinitis we recommend A) nasal drops for 5 to 7 days B) antibiotics C) NSAIDs D) corticosteroids
A) nasal drops for 5 to 7 days
Most relevant therapy of allergic rhinitis consists of: A) vasoconstrictor agents B) antibiotics C) NSAIDs D) elimination of the allergen
D) elimination of the allergen
Oezena
A) is a form of atrophic rhinitis
B) involves foul-smelling lesion of the mucosa
C) has unknown etiology
D) becomes better with aging
E) is characterized by all the above statements
E) is characterized by all the above statements
An elder patient presents with unilateral sanguinous, purulent, foul-smelling nasal discharge. You think of:
A) frontal sinusitis
B) malignant tumor of the nose or a paranasal sinus
C) ozaena
D) infected dental cyst
E) angiofibroma
B) malignant tumor of the nose or a paranasal sinus
Most common location of nasal bleeding: A) nasopharynx B) middle turbinate C) superior meatus D) anterior part of nasal septum E) posterior part of the nasal septum
D) anterior part of nasal septum
Most specifically at the Kisselbach area, whereas the mucosa is thinner and has a rich vascularity.
In acute upper airway infection of an infant, one-sided swelling of the upper and lower eyelid appears. Which condition would you think of? A) acute rhinitis B) acute maxillary sinusitis C) acute ethmoiditis D) allergic reaction
C) acute ethmoiditis
In this age the rest of the sinuses are either not fully developed or cannot cause eyelid swelling. In case of allergy, there is a symmetric swelling.
Adenotomy is indicated in A) chronic sinusitis B) otitis media C) sleep apnoe D) adenoid hypertrophy E) each of the above conditions
E) each of the above conditions
The term "blow-out fracture" refers to a(n) A) frontobasal fracture. B) zygomatic fracture. C) cheekbone fracture. D) orbital floor fracture. E) frontal bone fracture.
D) orbital floor fracture.
Osteoma of a paranasal sinus A) metastatizes to the bones B) is a congenital lesion C) most commonly affects swimmers D) should be surgically removed E) can be treated with radiotherapy
D) should be surgically removed
A middle-aged male patient has a painless, freely mobile mass of about 30 mm in one parotid gland for 5 years. Facial nerve funtion is intact. The probable diagnose is
A) osteoma in the external acoustic meatus
B) glomus caroticum tumor
C) pleomorph adenoma
D) salivary stone in the parotid gland
E) malignant tumor of the parotid gland
C) pleomorph adenoma
Pleiomorphic adenoma is the most frequent benign parotid tumor, accessible to remove surgically and does not give metastasis. The diagnosis is made by fine needle aspiration.
Necrotic, coated lesion of the tonsils suggests a(n) A) scarlatina-associated tonsillitis B) mononucleosis C) agranulocytic angina D) tonsillitis follicularis E) herpangina
C) agranulocytic angina