Urological cancers Flashcards
Which type of bladder tumour is most common in the West?
Transitional cell carcinoma
Which type of bladder tumour is most common in Africa?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Give 3 risk factors for transitional cell carcinoma
Smoking
Aromatic amines
Pelvic irradiation
Give 2 risk factors for squamous cell bladder carcinoma
Chronic cystitis due to UTIs/stones
Schistosomiasis
Which investigations can be done to assess lymph node involvement in bladder cancer?
MRI or lymphangiography
What is the surgical procedure of choice in bladder cancer with no muscle invasion?
Transurethral resection of bladder tumour
Give 2 drugs that can be used for bladder cancer with no muscle invasion
Mitomycin C
BCG
Describe the use of mitomycin C in bladder cancer
Introduced into the bladder for 1 hour post-TURBT to reduce recurrence
Describe the indications for intravesical BCG for bladder cancer
Multiple small tumours
Carcinoma in situ
High grade tumours that have not invaded the bladder muscle
What is the gold standard surgical management for muscle invasive bladder cancer?
Radical cystectomy
What does radical cystectomy also remove in men, besides the bladder?
Prostate
What does radical cystectomy also remove in women, besides the bladder?
Uterus
Fallopian tubes
Ovaries
Front of the vagina
What survival advantage does post-radical cystectomy chemotherapy give?
5%
Give 2 ways the ureters are exteriorised following radical cystectomy
Ileal conduit
Neobladder made from a pouch of bowel
What is the management of metastatic bladder cancer?
Palliative chemotherapy, radiotherapy and immunotherapy
Give an example of a biological drug used in metastatic bladder cancer
Atezolizumab (PDL1 inhibitor)
Give 2 strategies used to relieve symptoms in metastatic bladder cancer
Chronic catheterisation or diversion to relieve pain
Alum solution bladder irrigation for intractable haematuria
Give one contraindication of alum solution bladder irrigation
Renal failure
Give 3 routes of bladder cancer metastasis
Local spread to pelvic structures
Lymphatic spread to para-aortic and iliac lymph nodes
Spread in the bloodstream to the liver and lungs
From where does renal cell carcinoma arise?
Renal parenchyma
From where does clear cell RCC arise?
Proximal tubule
Give 2 benign lesions that can mimic RCC on CT
Oncocytoma
Angiomyolipoma
Give 4 things associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Renal cysts
Clear cell RCC
Retinal and cerebellar haemangioblastoma
Phaeochromocytoma
What percentage of haemodialysis patients develop RCC?
15%
What percentage of RCC are found incidentally?
50%
What is the “too late triad” of RCC?
Haematuria
Palpable mass
Loin pain
What is the definition of stage 1 RCC?
<7cm and limited to kidney
What is the definition of stage 2 RCC?
> 7cm and limited to the kidney
What is the definition of stage 3 RCC?
Tumour in major veins or adrenal gland, within Gerota’s fascia, or one regional lymph node involved
What is the definition of stage 4 RCC?
Tumour beyond Gerota’s fascia or more than one regional lymph node involved
Which types of renal cysts are likely to be malignant?
Bosniak types 3 and 4
What is the management of Bosniak type 2F renal cysts?
Follow-up CT and ultrasound for 4 years
Give 2 surgical options for early stage RCC
Radical nephrectomy
Robot assisted partial nephrectomy
Give 2 options for early stage RCC in patients unfit for surgery
Cryotherapy
Radiofrequency ablation
What is the first line treatment for metastatic or unresectable RCC?
Nivolumab and ipilimumab
What is the mechanism of action of nivolumab?
PD1 inhibitor
What is the mechanism of action of ipilimumab?
CTLA4 inhibitor
What is the mechanism of bevacizumab?
VEGF inhibitor
What is the mechanism of lenvatinib?
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
What is the mechanism of everolimus?
mTOR inhibitor
From where does Wilms’ tumour originate?
Primitive renal tubules and mesenchymal cells
How does Wilms’ tumour classically present?
Abdominal mass and haematuria
What congenital condition is associated with 10% of testicular tumours?
Undescended testes
What type of tumour is a choriocarcinoma?
Non-seminomatous germ cell tumour
Which endocrine condition is associated with choriocarcinoma?
Secondary hyperthyroidism due to ectopic hCG secretion
What is the first line investigation for distinguishing a testicular tumour from a benign lump?
Ultrasound
Give 2 useful markers in testicular cancer
Alpha-fetoprotein
Beta-HCG
What is the surgical management of testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Which type of testicular cancer is particularly sensitive to radiotherapy?
Seminoma
What is the pharmacological management of metastatic non-seminomatous germ cell tumours?
3 cycles of bleomycin, cisplatin and etoposide
What is the main type of prostate cancer?
Adenocarcinoma of the peripheral region
Give 3 risk factors for prostate cancer
Family history
Genetic mutations e.g. BRCA1/2
Increased testosterone
What percentage of prostate cancers present as emergencies?
10-20%
Give 3 indications for a PSA and DRE
Man with any LUTS
Man with erectile dysfunction
Man with visible haematuria
Give 2 indications for urgent 2 week referral for suspected prostate cancer
Prostate feels malignant on DRE
PSA level above age-specific reference range
What imaging is used to stage prostate cancer?
MRI
What imaging is used to detect prostate cancer metastases?
CT-PET using prostate specific membrane antigen ligand
Which grading system is used to grade prostate cancer?
Gleason grading (higher numbers are more aggressive)
Give 2 risks of radical prostatectomy
Incontinence
Sexual dysfunction
What are the side effects of external beam radiotherapy?
Collateral damage to the rectum, causing bleeding and diarrhoea, and collateral damage to the bladder, causing urinary irritability and bleeding
When is brachytherapy used for prostate cancer?
Used in younger men with low grade cancers who want to preserve sexual function
What hormonal therapies can be used for metastatic prostate cancer?
GnRH agonists e.g. goserelin
Anti-androgens e.g. cyproterone, abiraterone
GnRH antagonists e.g. degarelix
What are the 4 “T” stages for prostate cancer
T1 – contained within the prostate
T2 – nodule on the surface prostate
T3 – invading seminal vesicle
T4 – invading other structures
Give 3 risk factors for penile cancer
Chronic irritation
Viral infections
Smegma
Give 3 indications for urgent 2 week referral for suspected penile cancer
Penile mass or ulcer where STI has been excluded
Persistent penile lesion after STI treatment has been completed
Unexplained or persistent symptoms affecting the foreskin or glans
What is the management of early stage penile cancer?
Radiotherapy
Iridium wires
What is the management of late stage penile cancer?
Lymph node dissection
Amputation