Uro Path Flashcards

1
Q

these specialized epithelial cells allow the urothelium to expand and contract while staying water tight

A

umbrella cells

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2
Q

name 5 renal cystic diseases

A

multicystic renal dysplasia, adult polycystic kidney disease, infantile polycistic kidney disease, simple renal cysts, acquired cystic kidney disease

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3
Q

pathologic hallmark of renal dysplasia

A

undifferentiated tubules and ducts surrounded by mesenchyme (may contain muscle or cartilage)

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4
Q

renal dysplasia is almost always associated with?

A

other urinary tract abnormalities and obstruction to urine flow in utero

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5
Q

most common cause of abdominal mass in newborn

A

multicystic renal dysplasia

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6
Q

differences between adult and infantile polycystic disease

A

AD vs AR, midlife vs birth (75% die in utero), distorted vs smooth kidneys, bunch of cysts + normal kidney vs dilated collecting system (big blown up kidney)

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7
Q

simple renal cysts are usually found in the?

A

renal cortex

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8
Q

microscopy of simple renal cyst shows?

A

lined by single layer of flattened epithelium (internal septations can mimic cancer)

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9
Q

acquired cystic kidney disease occurs in?

A

pts with long-term dialysis hx

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10
Q

acquired cysts are bad because?

A

they may turn into RCC

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11
Q

intrinsic causes of kidney obstruction

A

stones, blood clots, tumors of urinary tract, posterior urethral valves, strictures

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12
Q

renal cell carcinoma is cancer of what cell type?

A

adenocarcinoma (clear cell or papillary) that arises from renal tubular epithelium

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13
Q

abnormalities in which chromosome are associated with clear cell vs. papillary RCC?

A

chr 3 with clear cell; 7 and 17 with papillary

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14
Q

late stage signs of RCC (tho usually detected before this)

A

hematuria, flank pain, abdominal mass

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15
Q

if you see a solid renal mass, what should you do next?

A

straight to surgery usually (rather than biopsy)

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16
Q

infectous causes of cystitis

A

coliform bacteria, TB, schistosomiasis

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17
Q

non-infectious causes of cystitis

A

radiation and/or chemo

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18
Q

these patients can have severe intractable cystitis from chronic use of indwelling catheter

A

paraplegics

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19
Q

bladder obstruction usually occurs in (men/women) secondary to?

A

men; BPH

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20
Q

90% of bladder cancers are?

A

urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma

21
Q

paraplegic’s and people with schistosomiasis infection get this type of bladder cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma

22
Q

risk factors for urothelial neoplasms

A

industrial exposure to carcinogens, tobacco use (big one!), cyclophophamide

23
Q

usual clinical presentation of bladder cancer

A

hematuria or dysuria

24
Q

diagnosis of bladder cancer is made by?

A

urine cytology and/or cytoscopy + biopsy

25
Q

adenocarcinoma of the bladder may be associated with?

A

congenital anomalies or metaplasias

26
Q

the bladder may be home to mets from what primary tumors?

A

local invasion by tumors of the cervix, prostate, colon; mets from melanoma, stomach, breast, and lung cancer

27
Q

major risk factors for germ cell neoplasms of the testis

A

cryptorchidism, fam hx, gonadal dysgenesis

28
Q

etiologic agents of orchitis

A

gram neg bacteria, syphilis, mumps

29
Q

testicle torsion is due to twisting of the?

A

spermatic cord

30
Q

what happens when a testicle is twisted?

A

hemorrhagic infarct +/- necrosis with time

31
Q

most primary testicular germ cell tumors present as?

A

painless, solid masses within the testis

32
Q

this tumor marker is suggestive of yolk sac differentiation

A

alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

33
Q

this tumor marker is suggestive of chorionic/trophoblastic differentiation

A

beta HCG

34
Q

this is a non-specific marker seen of bulky tumors of many types

A

lactic dehydrogenase

35
Q

this is the most common pure germ cell tumor (40-50%) of the testis

A

seminoma

36
Q

gross appearance of seminoma

A

solid, grayish-white mass without necrosis or hemorrhage (mets common)

37
Q

microscopic appearance of seminoma + tumor markers

A

uniform, large tumor cells and lymphocytes; elevated LDH ONLY

38
Q

peak age for seminoma

A

4th decade (30-40 years)

39
Q

peak age for embryonal carcinoma

A

3rd decade (20s)

40
Q

gross appearance of embryonal carcinoma

A

gray-white solid mass WITH necrosis and hemorrhage (often)

41
Q

tumor markers for embryonal carcinoma of the testis

A

may be AFP+, usually BHCG – (also show sheet-like pattern on histo)

42
Q

yolk sac tumors are often characterized by a ____ appearance microscopically

A

microcystic

43
Q

_____ are pathognomonic for yolk sac tumors

A

Schiller-Duval bodies

44
Q

classic presentation of choriocarcinoms

A

tiny hemorrhagic and necrotic primary tumor in testis with widespread mets

45
Q

microscopic appearance of choriocarcinoma + tumor markers

A

must have both syncytiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts, greatly elevated serum BHCG

46
Q

this testicular tumor has tissues from all 3 germ layers and is more aggressive in adults

A

teratoma

47
Q

management of mixed germ cell tumors of the testis

A

based on individual components

48
Q

what is Peyronie disease?

A

focal asymmetric fibrosis of the shaft of the penis, results in a bent penis when erect

49
Q

cancer of the penis is generally ______ and only occurs in?

A

squamous cell carcinoma; uncircumcized males