UNIT J Flashcards

1
Q

A 16-year-old diagnosed with a conduct disorder (CD) has been in a residential program for 3 months. Which outcome should occur before discharge?
a. The adolescent and parents create and agree to a behavioral contract with rules,
rewards, and consequences.
b. The adolescent identifies friends in the home community who are a positive
influence.
c. Temporary placement is arranged with a foster family until the parents complete a
parenting skills class.
d. The adolescent experiences no anger and frustration for 1 week.

A

ANS: A
The adolescent and the parents must agree on a behavioral contract that clearly outlines rules, expected behaviors, and consequences for misbehavior. It must also include rewards for following the rules. The adolescent will continue to experience anger and frustration. The adolescent and parents must continue with family therapy to work on boundary and communication issues. It is not necessary to separate the adolescent from the family to work on these issues. Separation is detrimental to the healing process. While it is helpful for the adolescent to identify peers who are a positive influence, it is more important for behavior to be managed for an adolescent diagnosed with a CD.

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2
Q

A 15-year-old ran away from home six times and was arrested for shoplifting. The parents told the Court, “We can’t manage our teenager.” The adolescent is physically abusive to the mother and defiant with the father. Which diagnosis is supported by this adolescent’s behavior?

a. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
b. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
c. Intermittent explosive disorder
d. CD

A

ANS: D
CDs are manifested by a persistent pattern of behavior in which the rights of others and age-appropriate societal norms are violated. Intermittent explosive disorder is a pattern of behavioral outbursts characterized by an inability to control aggressive impulses in adults 18 years and older. Criteria for ADHD and PTSD are not met in the scenario.

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3
Q

A 15-year-old was placed in a residential program after truancy, running away, and an arrest for theft. At the program, the adolescent refused to join in planned activities and pushed a staff member, causing a fall. Which approach by nursing staff will be most therapeutic?

a. Planned ignoring
b. Establish firm limits
c. Neutrally permit refusals
d. Coaxing to gain compliance

A

ANS: B
Firm limits are necessary to ensure physical safety and emotional security. Limit setting will also protect other patients from the teen’s thoughtless or aggressive behavior. Permitting refusals to participate in the treatment plan, ignoring, coaxing, and bargaining are strategies that do not help the patient learn to abide by rules or structure.

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4
Q

An adolescent was arrested for prostitution and assault on a parent. The adolescent says, “I hate my parents. They focus all attention on my brother, who’s perfect in their eyes.” Which type of therapy might promote the greatest change in the adolescent’s behavior?

a. Family therapy
b. Bibliotherapy
c. Play therapy
d. Art therapy

A

ANS: A
Family therapy focuses on problematic family relationships and interactions. The patient has identified problems within the family. Play therapy is more appropriate for younger patients. Art therapy and bibliotherapy would not focus specifically on the identified problem.

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5
Q

An adolescent was arrested for prostitution and assault on a parent. The adolescent says, “I hate my parents. They focus all attention on my brother, who’s perfect in their eyes.” Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable?

a. Disturbed personal identity related to acting out as evidenced by prostitution
b. Hopelessness related to achievement of role identity as evidenced by feeling unloved by parents
c. Defensive coping related to inappropriate methods of seeking parental attention as evidenced by acting out
d. Impaired parenting related to inequitable feelings toward children as evidenced by showing preference for one child over another

A

ANS: C
The patient demonstrates a failure to follow age-appropriate social norms and an inability to problem solve by using adaptive behaviors to meet life’s demands and roles. The defining characteristics are not present for the other nursing diagnoses. The patient never mentioned hopelessness or disturbed personal identity. The problem relates to the patient’s perceptions of parental behavior rather than the actual behavior.

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6
Q

A 12-year-old has engaged in bullying for several years. The parents say, “We can’t believe anything our child says.” Recently this child shot a dog with a pellet gun and set fire to a neighbor’s trash bin. The child’s behaviors support the diagnosis of

a. ADHD.
b. intermittent explosive disorder.
c. oppositional defiant disorder (ODD).
d. CD.

A

ANS: D
The behaviors mentioned are most consistent with criteria for CD, including aggression against people and animals; destruction of property; deceitfulness; rule violations; and impairment in social, academic, or occupational functioning. Intermittent explosive disorder is a pattern of behavioral outbursts characterized by an inability to control aggressive impulses in adults 18 years and older. The behaviors are not consistent with attention deficit or oppositional defiant disorder (ODD).

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7
Q

An 11-year-old diagnosed with ODD becomes angry over the rules at a residential treatment program and begins cursing at the nurse. Select the best method for the nurse to defuse the situation.

a. Ignore the child’s behavior.
b. Send the child to time-out for 2 hours.
c. Take the child to the gym and engage in an activity.
d. Role-play a more appropriate behavior with the child.

A

ANS: C
The child’s behavior warrants an active response. Redirecting the expression of feelings into nondestructive age-appropriate behaviors, such as a physical activity, helps defuse the situation here and now. This response helps the child learn how to modulate the expression of feelings and exert self-control. This is the least restrictive alternative and should be tried before resorting to a more restrictive measure. Role playing is appropriate after the child’s anger is defused.

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8
Q

An adolescent acts out in disruptive ways. When this adolescent threatens to throw a heavy pool ball at another adolescent, which comment by the nurse would set appropriate limits?

a. “Attention everyone: we are all going to the craft room.”
b. “You will be taken to seclusion if you throw that ball.”
c. “Do not throw the ball. Put it back on the pool table.”
d. “Please do not lose control of your emotions.”

A

ANS: C
Setting limits uses clear, sharp statements about prohibited behavior and guidance for performing a behavior that is expected. The incorrect options represent a threat, use of restructuring (which would be inappropriate in this instance), and a direct appeal to the child’s developing self-control that may be ineffective.

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9
Q

The family of a child diagnosed with an impulse control disorder needs help to function more adaptively. Which aspect of the child’s plan of care will be provided by an advanced practice nurse rather than a staff nurse?

a. Leading an activity group
b. Providing positive feedback
c. Formulating nursing diagnoses
d. Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT)

A

ANS: D
The advanced practice nurse role includes individual, group, and family psychotherapist;
educator of nurses, other professions, and the community; clinical supervisor; consultant to professional and nonprofessional groups; and researcher. DBT is an aspect of psychotherapy. The distracters describe actions of a nurse generalist.

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10
Q

Shortly after the parents announced that they were divorcing, a 15-year-old became truant from school and assaulted a friend. The adolescent told the school nurse, “I’d rather stay in my room and listen to music. It’s easier than thinking about what is happening in my family.” Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable?
a. Chronic low self-esteem related to role within the family
b. Decisional conflict related to compliance with school requirements
c. Defensive coping related to adjustment to changes in family relationships
d. Disturbed personal identity related to self-perceptions of changing family
dynamics

A

ANS: C
Depression is often associated with impulse control disorder. The correct nursing diagnosis refers to the patient’s dysfunctional management of feelings associated with upcoming changes to the family. The teen displays self-imposed isolation. The distracters are not supported by data in the scenario.

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11
Q

A child known as the neighborhood bully says, “Nobody can tell me what to do.” After receiving a poor grade on a science project, this child secretly loaded a virus on the teacher’s computer. These behaviors support a diagnosis of

a. CD.
b. ODD.
c. intermittent explosive disorder.
d. ADHD.

A

ANS: B
ODD is a repeated and persistent pattern of having an angry and irritable mood in conjunction with demonstrating defiant and vindictive behavior. Loading a virus is a vindictive behavior in retribution for a poor grade. Persons with CD are aggressive against people and animals; destroy property; are deceitful; violate rules; and have impaired social, academic, or occupational functioning. There is no evidence of explosiveness or distractibility.

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12
Q

An 11-year-old diagnosed with ODD becomes angry over the rules at a residential treatment program and begins shouting at the nurse. What is the nurse’s initial action to defuse the situation?

a. Say to the child, “Tell me how you’re feeling right now.”
b. Take the child swimming at the facility’s pool.
c. Establish a behavioral contract with the child. d. Administer an anxiolytic medication.

A

ANS: B
Redirecting the expression of feelings into nondestructive, age-appropriate behaviors such as a physical activity helps the child learn how to modulate the expression of feelings and exert self-control. This is the least restrictive alternative and should be tried before resorting to measures that are more restrictive. A shouting child will not likely engage in a discussion about feelings. A behavioral contract could be considered later, but first the situation must be defused.

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13
Q

Parents of an adolescent diagnosed with a CD say, “We don’t know how to respond when our child breaks the rules in our house. Is there any treatment that might help us?” Which therapy is likely to be helpful for these parents?

a. Parent–child interaction therapy (PCIT)
b. Behavior modification therapy
c. Multi-systemic therapy (MST)
d. Pharmacotherapy

A

ANS: A
In PCIT, the therapist sits behind one-way mirrors and coaches parents through an ear audio device while they interact with their children. The therapist can suggest strategies that reinforce positive behavior in the adolescent. The goal is to improve parenting strategies and thereby reduce problematic behavior. Behavior modification therapy may help the adolescent, but the parents are seeking help for themselves. MST is much broader and does not target the parents’ need.

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14
Q

An adolescent diagnosed with an impulse control disorder says, “I want to die. I spend my time getting even with people who hurt me.” When asked about a suicide plan, the adolescent replies, “I’ll jump from a bridge near my home. My father threw kittens off that bridge and they died.” Rate the suicide risk.

a. Absent
b. Low
c. Moderate d. High

A

ANS: D
The suicide risk is high. The child is experiencing feelings of hopelessness and helplessness. The method described is lethal, and the means to carry out the plan are available.

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15
Q

An adolescent diagnosed with CD has aggression, impulsivity, hyperactivity, and mood symptoms. The treatment team believes this adolescent may benefit from medication. The nurse anticipates the health care provider will prescribe which type of medication?

a. Second-generation antipsychotic
b. Antianxiety medication
c. Calcium channel blocker
d. -blocker

A

ANS: A
Medications for CD are directed at problematic behaviors such as aggression, impulsivity, hyperactivity, and mood symptoms. Second-generation antipsychotics are likely to be prescribed. -blocking medications may help to calm individuals with intermittent explosive disorder by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers reduce blood pressure but are not used for persons with impulse control problems. An antianxiety medication will not assist with impulse control.

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16
Q

An adolescent was recently diagnosed with ODD. The parents say to the nurse, “Isn’t there some medication that will help with this problem?” Select the nurse’s best response.
a. “There are no medications to treat this problem. This diagnosis is behavioral innature.”
b. “It’s a common misconception that there is a medication available to treat every
health problem.”
c. “Medication is usually not prescribed for this problem. Let’s discuss some
behavioral strategies you can use.”
d. “There are many medications that will help your child manage aggression and
destructiveness. The health care provider will discuss them with you.”

A

ANS: C
The parents are seeking a quick solution. Medications are generally not indicated for ODD. Comorbid conditions that increase defiant symptoms, such as ADHD, should be managed with medication, but no comorbid problem is identified in the question. The nurse should give information on helpful strategies to manage the adolescent’s behavior.

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17
Q

An adolescent diagnosed with a CD stole and wrecked a neighbor’s motorcycle. Afterward, the adolescent was confronted about the behavior but expressed no remorse. Which variation in the central nervous system best explains the adolescent’s reaction?
a. Serotonin dysregulation and increased testosterone activity impair one’s capacity
for remorse.
b. Increased neuron destruction in the hippocampus results in decreased abilities to
conform to social rules.
c. Reduced gray matter in the cortex and dysfunction of the amygdala results in
decreased feelings of empathy.
d. Disturbances in the occipital lobe reduce sensations that help an individual clearly visualize the consequences of behavior.

A

ANS: C
Adolescents with CD have been found to have significantly reduced gray matter bilaterally in the anterior insulate cortex and the amygdala. This reduction may be related to aggressive behavior and deficits of empathy. The less gray matter in these regions of the brain, the less likely adolescents are to feel remorse for their actions or victims. People with intermittent explosive disorder may have differences in serotonin regulation in the brain and higher levels of testosterone. Neuron destruction in the hippocampus is associated with memory deficits. The occipital lobe is involved with visual stimuli but not the processing of emotions.

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18
Q

Which assessment findings support a diagnosis of ODD?

a. Negative, hostile, and spiteful toward parents. Blames others for misbehavior.
b. Exhibits involuntary facial twitching and blinking; makes barking sounds.
c. Violates others’ rights; cruelty toward people or animals; steals; truancy.
d. Displays poor academic performance and reports frequent nightmares.

A

ANS: A
ODD is a repeated and persistent pattern of having an angry and irritable mood in conjunction with demonstrating defiant and vindictive behavior. The distracters identify findings associated with CD, anxiety disorder, and Tourette’s syndrome.

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19
Q

A nurse on an adolescent psychiatric unit assesses a newly admitted 14-year-old. An impulse control disorder is suspected. Which aspects of the patient’s history support the suspected diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)

a. Family history of mental illness
b. Allergies to multiple antibiotics
c. Long history of severe facial acne
d. Father with history of alcohol abuse
e. History of an abusive relationship with one parent

A

ANS: A, D, E
Parents who are abusive, rejecting, or overly controlling cause a child to suffer detrimental effects. Other stressors associated with impulse control disorders can include major disruptions such as placement in foster care, severe marital discord, or a separation of parents. Substance abuse by a parent is common. Acne and allergies are not aspects of the history that relate to the behavior.

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20
Q

What are the primary distinguishing factors between the behavior of persons diagnosed with ODD and those with CD? The person diagnosed with (Select all that apply)

a. ODD relives traumatic events by acting them out.
b. ODD tests limits and disobeys authority figures.
c. ODD has difficulty separating from loved ones.
d. CD uses stereotypical or repetitive language.
e. CD often violates the rights of others.

A

ANS: B, E
Persons diagnosed with ODD are negativistic, disobedient, and defiant toward authority figures without seriously violating the basic rights of others, whereas persons with CD frequently behave in ways that do violate the rights of others and age-appropriate societal norms. Reliving traumatic events occurs with PTSD. Stereotypical language behaviors are seen in persons with autism spectrum disorders.

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21
Q

A nurse works with an adolescent who was placed in a residential program after multiple episodes of violence at school. Establishing rapport with this adolescent is a priority because (Select all that apply)

a. it is a vital component of implementing a behavior modification program.
b. a therapeutic alliance is the first step in a nurse’s therapeutic use of self.
c. the adolescent has demonstrated resistance to other authority figures.
d. acceptance and trust convey feelings of security for the adolescent.
e. adolescents usually relate better to authority figures than peers.

A

ANS: B, D
Trust is frequently an issue because the adolescent may never have had a trusting relationship with an adult. Trust promotes feelings of security and is the basis of the nurse’s therapeutic use of self. Adolescents value peer relationships over those related to authority. Rewards for appropriate behavior are the main component of behavior modification programs.

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22
Q

A patient diagnosed with alcohol use disorder asks, “How will Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) help me?” Select the nurse’s best response.
a. “The goal of AA is for members to learn controlled drinking with the support of a
higher power.”
b. “An individual is supported by peers while striving for abstinence one day at a
time.”
c. “You must make a commitment to permanently abstain from alcohol and other
drugs.”
d. “You will be assigned a sponsor who will plan your treatment program.”

A

ANS: B
Admitting to being an alcoholic, making an attempt to remain alcohol-free for a day at a time, and receiving support from peers are basic aspects of AA. The other options are incorrect.

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23
Q

A nurse reviews vital signs for a patient admitted with an injury sustained while intoxicated. The medical record shows these blood pressure and pulse readings at the times listed:

0200: 118/78 mm Hg and 72 beats/minute 0400: 126/80 mm Hg and 76 beats/minute 0600: 128/82 mm Hg and 72 beats/minute 0800: 132/88 mm Hg and 80 beats/minute 1000: 148/94 mm Hg and 96 beats/minute What is the nurse’s priority action?
a. Force fluids.
b. Begin the detox protocol.
c. Obtain a clean-catch urine sample.
d. Place the patient in a vest-type restraint.

A

ANS: B
Elevated pulse and blood pressure may indicate impending alcohol withdrawal and the need for detox with medical intervention to prevent a hypertensive crisis and/or seizures. No indication is present that the patient may have a urinary tract infection or is presently in need of restraint. Hydration will not resolve the problem.

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24
Q

A nurse cares for a patient experiencing an opioid overdose. Which focused assessment has the highest priority?

a. Cardiovascular
b. Respiratory
c. Neurological
d. Hepatic

A

ANS: B
Opioid overdose causes respiratory depression. Respiratory depression is the primary cause of death among opioid abusers. The assessment of the other body systems is relevant but not the priority.

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25
Q

A patient admitted for injuries sustained while intoxicated has been hospitalized for 48 hours. The patient is now shaky, irritable, anxious, diaphoretic, and reports nightmares. The pulse rate is 130 beats/minute. The patient shouts, “Bugs are crawling on my bed. I’ve got to get out of here.” Select the most accurate assessment of this situation. The patient

a. is attempting to obtain attention by manipulating staff.
b. may have sustained a head injury before admission.
c. has symptoms of alcohol withdrawal delirium.
d. is having an acute psychosis.

A

ANS: C
Symptoms of agitation, elevated pulse, and perceptual distortions indicate alcohol withdrawal delirium. The findings are inconsistent with manipulative attempts, head injury, or functional psychosis.

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26
Q

A patient admitted yesterday for injuries sustained while intoxicated believes insects are crawling on the bed. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?

a. Disturbed sensory perception
b. Ineffective coping
c. Ineffective denial
d. Risk for injury

A

ANS: D
The patient’s clouded sensorium, sensory perceptual distortions, and poor judgment predispose a risk for injury. Safety is the nurse’s priority. The other diagnoses may apply but are not the priorities of care.

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27
Q

A hospitalized patient diagnosed with alcohol use disorder believes the window blinds are snakes trying to get in the room. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. The nurse can anticipate the health care provider will prescribe a(n)

a. narcotic analgesic, such as hydromorphone.
b. sedative, such as lorazepam or chlordiazepoxide.
c. antipsychotic, such as olanzapine or thioridazine.
d. monoamine oxidase inhibitor antidepressant, such as phenelzine.

A

ANS: B
Sedation allows for safe withdrawal from alcohol. Benzodiazepines are the drugs of choice in most regions because of their high therapeutic safety index and anticonvulsant properties.

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28
Q

A hospitalized patient diagnosed with alcohol use disorder believes spiders are spinning entrapping webs in the room. The patient is fearful, agitated, and diaphoretic. Which nursing intervention is indicated?

a. Check the patient every 15 minutes
b. One-on-one supervision
c. Keep the room dimly lit
d. Force fluids

A

ANS: B
One-on-one supervision is necessary to promote physical safety until sedation reduces the patient’s feelings of terror. Checks every 15 minutes would not be sufficient to provide for
safety. A dimly lit room promotes perceptual disturbances. Excessive fluid intake can cause overhydration, because fluid retention normally occurs when blood alcohol levels fall.

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29
Q

A patient diagnosed with alcohol use disorder says, “Drinking helps me cope with being a single parent.” Which therapeutic response by the nurse would help the patient conceptualize the drinking objectively?

a. “Sooner or later, alcohol will kill you. Then what will happen to your children?”
b. “I hear a lot of defensiveness in your voice. Do you really believe this?”
c. “If you were coping so well, why were you hospitalized again?”
d. “Tell me what happened the last time you drank.”

A

ANS: D
The correct response will help the patient see alcohol as a cause of the problems, not a solution, and begin to take responsibility. This approach can help the patient become receptive to the possibility of change. The other responses directly confront and attack defenses against anxiety that the patient still needs. They reflect the nurse’s frustration with the patient.

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30
Q

A patient asks for information about AA. Select the nurse’s best response. “AA is a

a. form of group therapy led by a psychiatrist.”
b. self-help group for which the goal is sobriety.”
c. group that learns about drinking from a group leader.”
d. network that advocates strong punishment for drunk drivers.”

A

ANS: B

AA is a peer support group for recovering alcoholics. Neither professional nor peer leaders are appointed.

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31
Q

Police bring a patient to the emergency department after an automobile accident. The patient demonstrates poor coordination and slurred speech but the vital signs are normal. The blood alcohol level is 300 mg/dL (0.30 g/dL). Considering the relationship between the assessment findings and blood alcohol level, which conclusion is most probable? The patient

a. rarely drinks alcohol.
b. has a high tolerance to alcohol.
c. has been treated with disulfiram (Antabuse).
d. has ingested both alcohol and sedative drugs recently.

A

ANS: B
A nontolerant drinker would have sleepiness and significant changes in vital signs with a blood alcohol level of 300 mg/dL (0.30 g/dL). The fact that the patient is moving and talking shows a discrepancy between blood alcohol level and expected behavior and strongly indicates that the patient’s body is tolerant. If disulfiram and alcohol are ingested together, an entirely different clinical picture would result. The blood alcohol level gives no information about ingestion of other drugs.

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32
Q

A patient admitted to an alcohol rehabilitation program tells the nurse, “I’m actually just a social drinker. I usually have a drink at lunch, two in the afternoon, wine with dinner, and a few drinks during the evening.” The patient is using which defense mechanism?

a. Denial
b. Projection
c. Introjection
d. Rationalization

A

ANS: A
Minimizing one’s drinking is a form of denial of alcoholism. The patient is more than a social drinker. Projection involves blaming another for one’s faults or problems. Rationalization involves making excuses. Introjection involves incorporating a quality of another person or group into one’s own personality.

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33
Q

Which medication to maintain abstinence would most likely be prescribed for patients with an addiction to either alcohol or opioids?

a. Bromocriptine
b. Methadone
c. Disulfiram
d. Naltrexone

A

ANS: D
Naltrexone (ReVia) is useful for treating both opioid and alcohol addiction. An opioid antagonist blocks the action of opioids and the mechanism of reinforcement. It also reduces or eliminates alcohol craving.

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34
Q

During the third week of treatment, the spouse of a patient in a rehabilitation program for substance abuse says, “After this treatment program, I think everything will be all right.” Which remark by the nurse will be most helpful to the spouse?
a. “While sobriety solves some problems, new ones may emerge as one adjusts to
living without drugs and alcohol.”
b. “It will be important for you to structure life to avoid as much stress as you can
and provide social protection.”
c. “Addiction is a lifelong disease of self-destruction. You will need to observe your
spouse’s behavior carefully.”
d. “It is good that you are supportive of your spouse’s sobriety and want to help
maintain it.”

A

ANS: A
During recovery, patients identify and use alternative coping mechanisms to reduce reliance on substances. Physical adaptations must occur. Emotional responses were previously dulled by alcohol but are now fully experienced and may cause considerable anxiety. These changes inevitably have an effect on the spouse and children, who need anticipatory guidance and accurate information.

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35
Q

The treatment team discusses the plan of care for a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia and daily cannabis abuse who is having increased hallucinations and delusions. To plan effective treatment, the team should

a. provide long-term care for the patient in a residential facility.
b. withdraw the patient from cannabis, then treat the schizophrenia.
c. consider each diagnosis primary and provide simultaneous treatment.
d. first treat the schizophrenia, then establish goals for substance abuse treatment.

A

ANS: C
Both diagnoses should be considered primary and receive simultaneous treatment. Comorbid disorders require longer treatment and progress is slower, but treatment may occur in the community.

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36
Q

Select the most therapeutic manner for a nurse working with a patient beginning treatment for alcohol addiction.

a. Empathetic, supportive
b. Skeptical, guarded
c. Cool, distant
d. Confrontational

A

ANS: A
Support and empathy assist the patient to feel safe enough to start looking at problems. Counseling during the early stage of treatment needs to be direct, open, and honest. The other approaches will increase patient anxiety and cause the patient to cling to defenses.

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37
Q

Which features should be present in a therapeutic milieu for a patient experiencing a hallucinogen overdose?

a. Simple and safe
b. Active and bright
c. Stimulating and colorful
d. Confrontational and challenging

A

ANS: A
Because the individual who has ingested a hallucinogen is probably experiencing feelings of unreality and altered sensory perceptions, the best environment is one that does not add to the stimulation. A simple, safe environment is a better choice than an environment with any of the characteristics listed in the other options. The other options would contribute to a “bad trip.”

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38
Q

When a patient first began using alcohol, two drinks produced relaxation and drowsiness. After 1 year, four drinks are needed to achieve the same response. Why has this change occurred?

a. Tolerance has developed.
b. Antagonistic effects are evident.
c. Metabolism of the alcohol is now delayed.
d. Pharmacokinetics of the alcohol have changed.

A

ANS: A
Tolerance refers to needing higher and higher doses of a drug to produce the desired effect. The potency of the alcohol is stable. Neither hypomagnesemia nor antagonistic effects account for this change.

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39
Q

At a meeting for family members of alcoholics, a spouse says, “I did everything I could to help. I even requested sick leave when my partner was too drunk to go to work.” The nurse assesses these comments as

a. codependence.
b. assertiveness.
c. role reversal.
d. homeostasis.

A

ANS: A
Codependence refers to participating in behaviors that maintain the addiction or allow it to continue without holding the user accountable for his or her actions. The other options are not supported by information given in the scenario.

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40
Q

In the emergency department, a patient’s vital signs are BP 66/40 mm Hg; pulse 140 beats/minute; respirations 8 breaths/minute and shallow. The nursing diagnosis is Ineffective breathing pattern related to depression of respiratory center secondary to opioid intoxication.
Select the priority outcome.
a. The patient will demonstrate effective coping skills and identify community
resources for treatment of substance abuse within 1 week of hospitalization.
b. Within 4 hours, vital signs will stabilize, with BP above 90/60 mm Hg, pulse less
than 100 beats/minute, and respirations at or above 12 breaths/minute.
c. The patient will correctly describe a plan for home care and achieving a drug-free
state before release from the emergency department.
d. Within 6 hours, the patient’s breath sounds will be clear bilaterally and throughout
lung fields.

A

ANS: B
The correct short-term outcome is the only one that relates to the patient’s physical condition. It is expected that vital signs will return to normal when the CNS depression is alleviated. The patient’s respirations are slow and shallow, but there is no evidence of congestion.

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41
Q

Family members of an individual undergoing a residential alcohol rehabilitation program ask, “How can we help?” Select the nurse’s best response.

a. “Alcoholism is a lifelong disease. Relapses are expected.”
b. “Use search and destroy tactics to keep the home alcohol free.”
c. “It’s important that you visit your family member on a regular basis.”
d. “Make your loved one responsible for the consequences of behavior.”

A

ANS: D
Often, the addicted individual has been enabled when others picked up the pieces for him or her. The individual never faced the consequences of his or her own behaviors, all of which relate to taking responsibility. Learning to face those consequences is part of the recovery process. The other options are codependent behaviors or are of no help.

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42
Q

Which goal for treatment of alcohol use disorder should the nurse address first?

a. Learn about addiction and recovery.
b. Develop alternate coping strategies.
c. Develop a peer support system.
d. Achieve physiological stability.

A

ANS: D
The individual must have completed withdrawal and achieved physiological stability before he or she is able to address any of the other treatment goals.

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43
Q

A patient diagnosed with an antisocial personality disorder was treated several times for substance abuse, but each time the patient relapsed. Which treatment approach is most appropriate?

a. 1-week detoxification program
b. Long-term outpatient therapy
c. 12-step self-help program
d. Residential program

A

ANS: D
Residential programs and therapeutic communities help patients change lifestyles, abstain from drugs, eliminate criminal behaviors, develop employment skills, become self-reliant, and practice honesty. Residential programs are more effective for patients with antisocial tendencies than outpatient programs.

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44
Q

Select the priority nursing intervention when caring for a patient after an overdose of amphetamines.

a. Monitor vital signs.
b. Observe for depression.
c. Awaken the patient every 15 minutes.
d. Use warmers to maintain body temperature.

A

ANS: A
An overdose of stimulants, such as amphetamines, can produce respiratory and circulatory dysfunction as well as hyperthermia. Concentration is impaired. This patient will be hypervigilant; it is not necessary to awaken the patient.

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45
Q

Symptoms of withdrawal from opioids for which the nurse should assess include

a. dilated pupils, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, and elation.
b. nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, anxiety, and hyperreflexia.
c. mood lability, incoordination, fever, and drowsiness.
d. excessive eating, constipation, and headache.

A

ANS: B
The symptoms of withdrawal from opioids are similar to those of alcohol withdrawal. Hyperthermia is likely to produce periods of diaphoresis.

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46
Q

A patient has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for many years. When the patient tries to reduce smoking, anxiety, craving, poor concentration, and headache occur. This scenario describes

a. cross-tolerance.
b. substance abuse.
c. substance addiction.
d. substance intoxication.

A

ANS: C
Nicotine meets the criteria for a “substance,” the criterion for addiction is present, and withdrawal symptoms are noted with abstinence or reduction of dose. The scenario does not meet criteria for substance abuse, intoxication, or cross-tolerance.

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47
Q

Which assessment findings are likely for an individual who recently injected heroin?

a. Anxiety, restlessness, paranoid delusions
b. Muscle aching, dilated pupils, tachycardia
c. Heightened sexuality, insomnia, euphoria
d. Drowsiness, constricted pupils, slurred speech

A

ANS: D
Heroin, an opiate, is a CNS depressant. Blood pressure, pulse, and respirations will be decreased, and attention will be impaired. The distracters describe behaviors consistent with amphetamine use, symptoms of narcotic withdrawal, and cocaine use.

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48
Q

An adult in the emergency department states, “Everything I see appears to be waving. I am outside my body looking at myself. I think I’m losing my mind.” Vital signs are slightly elevated. The nurse should suspect

a. a schizophrenic episode.
b. hallucinogen ingestion.
c. opium intoxication.
d. cocaine overdose.

A

ANS: B
The patient who is high on a hallucinogen often experiences synesthesia (visions in sound), depersonalization, and concerns about going “crazy.” Synesthesia is not common in schizophrenia. CNS stimulant overdose more commonly involves elevated vital signs and assaultive, grandiose behaviors. Phencyclidine (PCP) use commonly causes bizarre or violent behavior, nystagmus, elevated vital signs, and repetitive jerking movements.

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49
Q

A nurse wants to research epidemiology, assessment techniques, and best practices regarding persons with addictions. Which resource will provide the most comprehensive information?

a. Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA)
b. Institute of Medicine (IOM)–National Research Council
c. National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)
d. American Society of Addictions Medicine

A

ANS: A
The SAMHSA is the official resource for comprehensive information regarding addictions. The other resources have relevant information, but they are not as comprehensive.

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50
Q

A patient is thin, tense, jittery, and has dilated pupils. The patient says, “My heart is pounding in my chest. I need help.” The patient allows vital signs to be taken but then becomes suspicious and says, “You could be trying to kill me.” The patient refuses further examination. Abuse of which substance is most likely?

a. PCP
b. Heroin
c. Barbiturates
d. Amphetamines

A

ANS: D
The physical symptoms are consistent with CNS stimulation. Suspicion and paranoid ideation are also present. Amphetamine use is likely. PCP use would probably result in bizarre, violent behavior. Barbiturates and heroin would result in symptoms of CNS depression.

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51
Q

Select the priority outcome for a patient completing the fourth alcohol detoxification program in the past year. Prior to discharge, the patient will

a. state, “I know I need long-term treatment.”
b. use denial and rationalization in healthy ways.
c. identify constructive outlets for expression of anger.
d. develop a trusting relationship with one staff member.

A

ANS: A
The correct response recognizes the need for ongoing treatment after detoxification and is the best goal related to controlling relapse. The scenario does not give enough information to determine whether anger has been identified as a problem. A trusting relationship, while desirable, should have occurred earlier in treatment.

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52
Q

A nurse prepares for an initial interaction with a patient with a long history of methamphetamine abuse. Which is the nurse’s best first action?

a. Perform a thorough assessment of the patient.
b. Verify that security services are immediately available.
c. Self-assess personal attitude, values, and beliefs about this health problem.
d. Obtain a face shield because oral hygiene is poor in methamphetamine abusers.

A

ANS: C
The nurse should show compassion, care, and helpfulness for all patients, including those with addictive diseases. It is important to have a clear understanding of one’s own perspective. Negative feelings may occur for the nurse; supervision is an important resource. The activities identified in the distracters occur after self-assessment.

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53
Q

A patient undergoing alcohol rehabilitation decides to begin disulfiram therapy. Patient teaching should include the need to (Select all that apply)

a. avoid aged cheeses.
b. avoid alcohol-based skin products.
c. read labels of all liquid medications.
d. wear sunscreen and avoid bright sunlight.
e. maintain an adequate dietary intake of sodium.
f. avoid breathing fumes of paints, stains, and stripping compounds.

A

ANS: B, C, F
The patient must avoid hidden sources of alcohol. Many liquid medications, such as cough syrups, contain small amounts of alcohol that could trigger an alcohol-disulfiram reaction. Using alcohol-based skin products such as aftershave or cologne, smelling alcohol-laden fumes, and eating foods prepared with wine, brandy, or beer may also trigger reactions. The other options do not relate to hidden sources of alcohol.

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54
Q

The nurse can assist a patient to prevent substance abuse relapse by (Select all that apply)
a. rehearsing techniques to handle anticipated stressful situations.
b. advising the patient to accept residential treatment if relapse occurs.
c. assisting the patient to identify life skills needed for effective coping.
d. advising isolating self from significant others until sobriety is established.
e. informing the patient of physical changes to expect as the body adapts to
functioning without substances.

A

ANS: A, C, E
Nurses can be helpful as a patient assesses needed life skills and in providing appropriate referrals. Anticipatory problem solving and role playing are good ways of rehearsing effective strategies for handling stressful situations and helping the patient evaluate the usefulness of new strategies. The nurse can provide valuable information about physiological changes expected and ways to cope with these changes. Residential treatment is not usually necessary after relapse. Patients need the support of friends and family to establish and maintain sobriety.

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55
Q

After discovering discrepancies and missing controlled substances, the nursing supervisor determines that a valued, experienced staff nurse is responsible. Which actions should the nursing supervisor take? (Select all that apply.)

a. Refer the nurse to a peer assistance program.
b. Confront the nurse in the presence of a witness.
c. Immediately terminate the nurse’s employment.
d. Relieve the nurse of responsibilities for patient care.
e. Require the nurse to undergo immediate drug testing.

A

ANS: A, D
Registered nurses may have personal substance use problems. The nursing supervisor should provide for safe patient care by relieving the nurse of responsibility for patient care. For those nurses experiencing addictions, there are nonpunitive alternatives to discipline programs in the form of peer assistance. Many state boards of nursing have developed an alternative to discipline program to help impaired nurses. Terminating the nurse’s employment and confronting the nurse in the presence of a witness are punitive actions. The peer assistance program will manage drug testing.

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56
Q

A new patient beginning an alcohol rehabilitation program says, “I’m just a social drinker. I usually have one drink at lunch, two in the afternoon, wine at dinner, and a few drinks during the evening.” Which responses by the nurse will be most therapeutic? (Select all that apply.)

a. “I see,” and use interested silence.
b. “I think you are drinking more than you report.”
c. “Social drinkers have one or two drinks, once or twice a week.”
d. “You describe drinking steadily throughout the day and evening.”
e. “Your comments show denial of the seriousness of your problem.”

A

ANS: C, D
The correct answers give information, summarize, and validate what the patient reported but are not strongly confrontational. Defenses cannot be removed until healthier coping strategies are in place. Strong confrontation does not usually take place so early in the program.

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57
Q

An older adult patient takes multiple medications daily. Over 2 days, the patient developed confusion, slurred speech, an unsteady gait, and fluctuating levels of orientation. These findings are most characteristic of

a. delirium.
b. dementia.
c. amnestic syndrome.
d. Alzheimer’s disease.

A

ANS: A
Delirium is characterized by an abrupt onset of fluctuating levels of awareness, clouded consciousness, perceptual disturbances, and disturbed memory and orientation. The onset of dementia or Alzheimer’s disease, a type of dementia, is more insidious. Amnestic syndrome involves memory impairment without other cognitive problems.

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58
Q

A patient with fluctuating levels of awareness, confusion, and disturbed orientation shouts, “Bugs are crawling on my legs. Get them off!” Which problem is the patient experiencing?

a. Aphasia
b. Dystonia
c. Tactile hallucinations
d. Mnemonic disturbance

A

ANS: C
The patient feels bugs crawling on both legs, even though no sensory stimulus is actually present. This description meets the definition of a hallucination, a false sensory perception. Tactile hallucinations may be part of the symptom constellation of delirium. Aphasia refers to a speech disorder. Dystonia refers to excessive muscle tonus. Mnemonic disturbance is associated with dementia rather than delirium.

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59
Q

A patient with fluctuating levels of consciousness, disturbed orientation, and perceptual alteration begs, “Someone get these bugs off me.” What is the nurse’s best response?

a. “No bugs are on your legs. You are having hallucinations.”
b. “I will have someone stay here and brush off the bugs for you.”
c. “Try to relax. The crawling sensation will go away sooner if you can relax.”
d. “I don’t see any bugs, but I can tell you are frightened. I will stay with you.”

A

ANS: D
When hallucinations are present, the nurse should acknowledge the patient’s feelings and state the nurse’s perception of reality, but not argue. Staying with the patient increases feelings of security, reduces anxiety, offers the opportunity for reinforcing reality, and provides a measure of physical safety. Denying the patient’s perception without offering help does not support the patient emotionally. Telling the patient to relax makes the patient responsible for self-soothing. Telling the patient that someone will brush the bugs away supports the perceptual distortions.

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60
Q

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with fluctuating levels of consciousness, disturbed orientation, and visual and tactile hallucinations?
a. Risk for injury related to altered cerebral function, fluctuating levels of
consciousness, disturbed orientation, and misperception of the environment
b. Bathing/hygiene self-care deficit related to cerebral dysfunction, as evidenced by
confusion and inability to perform personal hygiene tasks
c. Disturbed thought processes related to medication intoxication, as evidenced by
confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations
d. Fear related to sensory perceptual alterations as evidenced by visual and tactile
hallucinations

A

ANS: A
The physical safety of the patient is of highest priority among the diagnoses given. Many opportunities for injury exist when a patient misperceives the environment as distorted, threatening, or harmful or when the patient exercises poor judgment or when the patient’s sensorium is clouded. The other diagnoses may be concerns, but are lower priorities.

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61
Q

What is the priority intervention for a patient diagnosed with delirium who has fluctuating levels of consciousness, disturbed orientation, and perceptual alterations?

a. Distraction using sensory stimulation
b. Careful observation and supervision
c. Avoidance of physical contact
d. Activation of the bed alarm

A

ANS: B
Careful observation and supervision are of ultimate importance because an appropriate outcome would be that the patient will remain safe and free from injury. Physical contact during care cannot be avoided. Activating a bed alarm is only one aspect of providing for the patient’s safety.

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62
Q

A patient diagnosed with delirium is experiencing perceptual alterations. Which environmental adjustment should the nurse make for this patient?
a. Provide a well-lit room without glare or shadows. Limit noise and stimulation.
b. Maintain soft lighting day and night. Keep a radio on low volume continuously.
c. Light the room brightly day and night. Awaken the patient hourly to assess mental
status.
d. Keep the patient by the nurse’s desk while awake. Provide rest periods in a room
with a television on.

A

ANS: A
A quiet, shadow-free room offers an environment that produces the fewest sensory perceptual distortions for a patient with cognitive impairment associated with delirium. The other options have the potential to produce increased perceptual alterations.

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63
Q

Which assessment finding would be likely for a patient experiencing a hallucination? The patient

a. looks at shadows on a wall and says, “I see scary faces.”
b. states, “I feel bugs crawling on my legs and biting me.”
c. reports telepathic messages from the television.
d. speaks in rhymes.

A

ANS: B
A hallucination is a false sensory without a corresponding sensory stimulus. Feeling bugs on the body when none are present is a tactile hallucination. Misinterpreting shadows as faces is an illusion. An illusion is a misinterpreted sensory perception. The other incorrect options apply to thought insertion and clang associations.

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64
Q

Consider these cerebral pathophysiologies: Lewy body development, frontotemporal degeneration, and accumulation of protein -amyloid. Which diagnosis applies?

a. Cyclothymia
b. Dementia
c. Delirium
d. Amnesia

A

ANS: B

The listed cerebral pathophysiologies are all associated with development of dementia.

65
Q

Which medication prescribed to patients diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease antagonizes N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) channels rather than cholinesterase?

a. Donepezil
b. Rivastigmine
c. Memantine
d. Galantamine

A

ANS: C
Memantine blocks the NMDA channels and is used in moderate-to-late stages of the disease. Donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine are all cholinesterace inhibitors. These drugs increase the availability of acetylcholine and are most often used to treat mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease.

66
Q

An older adult was stopped by police for driving through a red light. When asked for a driver’s license, the adult hands the police officer a pair of sunglasses. What sign of dementia is evident?

a. Aphasia
b. Apraxia
c. Agnosia
d. Anhedonia

A

ANS: C
Agnosia refers to the loss of sensory ability to recognize objects. Aphasia refers to the loss of language ability. Apraxia refers to the loss of purposeful movement. Anhedonia refers to a loss of joy in life.

67
Q

An older adult drove to a nearby store but was unable to remember how to get home or state an address. When police intervened, they found that this adult was wearing a heavy coat and hat, even though it was July. Which stage of Alzheimer’s disease is evident?

a. Sundowning
b. Early
c. Middle
d. Late

A

ANS: C
In the middle stage, deterioration is evident. Memory loss may include the inability to remember addresses or the date. Activities such as driving may become hazardous, and frustration by the increasing difficulty of performing ordinary tasks may be experienced. The individual has difficulty with clothing selection. Mild cognitive decline (early-stage) Alzheimer’s can be diagnosed in some, but not all, individuals. Symptoms include misplacing items and misuse of words. In the late stage there is severe cognitive decline along with agraphia, hyperorality, blunting of emotions, visual agnosia, and hypermetamorphosis. Sundowning is not a stage of Alzheimer’s disease.

68
Q

Consider these phenomena: accumulation of -amyloid outside the neurons, neurofibrillary tangles, and neuronal degeneration in the hippocampus. Which health problem corresponds to these events?

a. Huntington’s disease
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Vascular dementia

A

ANS: B
The pathophysiological phenomena described apply to Alzheimer’s disease. Parkinson’s disease is associated with dopamine dysregulation. Huntington’s disease is genetic. Vascular dementia is the consequence of circulatory changes.

69
Q

A patient diagnosed as mild stage Alzheimer’s disease tires easily and prefers to stay home rather than attend social activities. The spouse does the grocery shopping because the patient cannot remember what to buy. Which nursing diagnosis applies at this time?

a. Self-care deficit
b. Impaired memory
c. Caregiver role strain
d. Adult failure to thrive

A

ANS: B
Memory impairment begins at the mild stage and progresses in the subsequent stages. This patient is able to perform most self-care activities. Caregiver role strain and adult failure to thrive occur later.

70
Q

A patient has progressive memory deficits associated with dementia. Which nursing intervention would best help the individual function in the environment?

a. Assist the patient to perform simple tasks by giving step-by-step directions.
b. Reduce frustration by performing activities of daily living for the patient.
c. Stimulate intellectual function by discussing new topics with the patient.
d. Read one story from the newspaper to the patient every day.

A

ANS: A
Patients with cognitive impairment should perform all tasks of which they are capable. When simple directions are given in a systematic fashion, the patient is better able to process information and perform simple tasks. Stimulating intellectual functioning by discussing new topics is likely to prove frustrating for the patient. Patients with cognitive deficits may enjoy the attention of someone reading to them, but this activity does not promote their function in the environment.

71
Q

Two patients in a residential care facility are diagnosed with dementia. One shouts to the other, “Move along, you’re blocking the road.” The other patient turns, shakes a fist, and shouts, “You’re trying to steal my car.” What is the nurse’s best action?

a. Administer one dose of an antipsychotic medication to both patients.
b. Reinforce reality. Say to the patients, “Walk along in the hall. This is not a traffic intersection.”
c. Separate and distract the patients. Take one to the day room and the other to an activities area.
d. Step between the two patients and say, “Please quiet down. We do not allow violence here.”

A

ANS: C
Separating and distracting prevents escalation from verbal to physical acting out. Neither patient loses self-esteem during this intervention. Medication probably is not necessary. Stepping between two angry, threatening patients is an unsafe action, and trying to reinforce reality during an angry outburst will probably not be successful when the patients are cognitively impaired.

72
Q

An older adult patient in the intensive care unit is experiencing visual illusions. Which
intervention will be most helpful?
a. Use the patient’s glasses.
b. Place personally meaningful objects in view.
c. Position large clocks and calendars on the wall.
d. Assure that the room is brightly lit but very quiet at all times.

A

ANS: A
Illusions are sensory misperceptions. Glasses and hearing aids help clarify sensory perceptions. Without glasses, clocks, calendars, and personal objects are meaningless. Round-the-clock lighting promotes sensory overload and sensory perceptual alterations.

73
Q

A patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease calls the fire department saying, “My smoke detectors are going off.” Firefighters investigate and discover that the patient misinterpreted the telephone ringing. Which problem is this patient experiencing?

a. Hyperorality
b. Aphasia
c. Apraxia
d. Agnosia

A

ANS: D
Agnosia is the inability to recognize familiar objects, parts of one’s body, or one’s own reflection in a mirror. Hyperorality refers to placing objects in the mouth. Aphasia refers to the loss of language ability. Apraxia refers to the loss of purposeful movements, such as being unable to dress.

74
Q

During morning care, a nurse asks a patient diagnosed with dementia, “How was your night?” The patient replies, “It was lovely. I went out to dinner and a movie with my friend.” Which term applies to the patient’s response?

a. Sundown syndrome
b. Confabulation
c. Perseveration
d. Delirium

A

ANS: B
Confabulation refers to making up of stories or answers to questions by a person who does not remember. It is a defensive tactic to protect self-esteem and prevent others from noticing memory loss. The patient’s response was not sundown syndrome. Perseveration refers to repeating a word or phrase over and over. Delirium is not present in this scenario.

75
Q

A nurse counsels the family of a patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease who lives at home and wanders at night. Which action is most important for the nurse to recommend for enhancing safety?

a. Apply a medical alert bracelet to the patient.
b. Place locks at the tops of doors.
c. Discourage daytime napping.
d. Obtain a bed with side rails.

A

ANS: B
Placing door locks at the top of the door makes it more difficult for the patient with dementia to unlock the door because the ability to look up and reach upward is diminished. The patient will try to climb over side rails, increasing the risk for injury and falls. Avoiding daytime naps may improve the patient’s sleep pattern but does not assure safety. A medical alert bracelet will be helpful if the patient leaves the home, but it does not prevent wandering or assure the patient’s safety.

76
Q

Goals of care for an older adult patient diagnosed with delirium caused by fever and dehydration will focus on

a. returning to premorbid levels of function.
b. identifying stressors negatively affecting self.
c. demonstrating motor responses to noxious stimuli.
d. exerting control over responses to perceptual distortions.

A

ANS: A
The desired overall goal is that the delirious patient will return to the level of functioning held before the development of delirium. Demonstrating motor response to noxious stimuli is an indicator appropriate for a patient whose arousal is compromised. Identifying stressors that negatively affect the self is too nonspecific to be useful for a patient with delirium. Exerting control over responses to perceptual distortions is an unrealistic indicator for a patient with sensorium problems related to delirium.

77
Q

An older adult with moderately severe dementia forgets where the bathroom is and has episodes of incontinence. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to the patient’s family?

a. Label the bathroom door.
b. Take the older adult to the bathroom hourly.
c. Place the older adult in disposable adult briefs.
d. Limit the intake of oral fluids to 1000 mL/day.

A

ANS: A
The patient with moderately severe dementia has memory loss that begins to interfere with activities. This patient may be able to use environmental cues such as labels on doors to compensate for memory loss. Regular toileting may be helpful, but a 2-hour schedule is often more reasonable. Placing the patient in disposable briefs is more appropriate at a later stage.
Severely limiting oral fluid intake would predispose the patient to a urinary tract infection.

78
Q

A older patient diagnosed with severe, late-stage dementia no longer recognizes family members. The family asks how long it will be before this patient recognizes them when they visit. What is the nurse’s best reply?

a. “Your family member will never again be able to identify you.”
b. “I think that is a question the health care provider should answer.”
c. “One never knows. Consciousness fluctuates in persons with dementia.”
d. “It is disappointing when someone you love no longer recognizes you.”

A

ANS: D
Therapeutic communication techniques can assist the family to come to terms with the losses and irreversibility dementia imposes on both the loved one and themselves. Two incorrect responses close communication. The nurse should take the opportunity to foster communication. Consciousness does not fluctuate in patients with dementia.

79
Q

A patient with severe dementia no longer recognizes family members and becomes anxious and agitated when they attempt reorientation. Which alternative could the nurse suggest to the family members?

a. Wear large name tags.
b. Focus interaction on familiar topics.
c. Frequently repeat the reorientation strategies.
d. Place large clocks and calendars strategically.

A

ANS: B
Reorientation may seem like arguing to a patient with cognitive deficit and increases the patient’s anxiety. Validating, talking with the patient about familiar, meaningful things, and reminiscing give meaning to existence both for the patient and family members. The option that suggests using validating techniques when communicating is the only option that addresses an interactional strategy. Wearing large name tags and placing large clocks and calendars strategically are reorientation strategies. Frequently repeating the reorientation strategies is inadvisable because patients with dementia sometimes become more agitated with reorientation.

80
Q

What is the priority need for a patient diagnosed with severe, late-stage dementia?

a. Promotion of self-care activities
b. Meaningful verbal communication
c. Preventing the patient from wandering
d. Maintenance of nutrition and hydration

A
ANS: D
In severe (late-stage) dementia, the patient often seems to have forgotten how to eat, chew, and swallow. Nutrition and hydration needs must be met if the patient is to live. The patient is incapable of self-care, ambulation, or verbal communication.
81
Q

An older adult is prescribed digoxin and hydrochlorothiazide daily as well as lorazepam as needed for anxiety. Over 2 days, the patient developed confusion, slurred speech, an unsteady gait, and fluctuating levels of orientation. What is the most likely reason for the patient’s change in mental status?

a. Drug actions and interactions
b. Benzodiazepine withdrawal
c. Hypotensive episodes
d. Renal failure

A

ANS: A
Drug actions and interactions are common among elderly persons and predispose this population to delirium. Delirium is characterized by an abrupt onset of fluctuating levels of awareness, clouded consciousness, perceptual disturbances, and disturbed memory and orientation. The patient takes lorazepam on a prn basis, so withdrawal is unlikely. Hypotensive episodes or problems with renal function may occur associated with the patient’s drug regime, but interactions are more likely the problem.

82
Q

A hospitalized patient diagnosed with delirium misinterprets reality. A patient diagnosed with dementia wanders about the home. Which outcome is the priority in both scenarios? The patients will

a. remain safe in the environment.
b. participate actively in self-care.
c. communicate verbally.
d. acknowledge reality.

A

ANS: A
Risk for injury is the nurse’s priority concern. Safety maintenance is the desired outcome. The other outcomes are lower priorities and may not be realistic.

83
Q

An elderly patient is admitted with delirium secondary to a urinary tract infection. The family asks whether the patient will ever recover. Select the nurse’s best response.

a. “The health care provider is the best person to answer your question.”
b. “The confusion will probably get better as we treat the infection.”
c. “Unfortunately, delirium is a progressively disabling disorder.”
d. “I will be glad to contact the chaplain to talk with you.”

A

ANS: B
Usually, as the underlying cause of the delirium is treated, the symptoms of delirium clear. The distracters mislead the family.

84
Q

An elderly person presents with symptoms of delirium. The family reports, “Everything was fine until yesterday.” What is the most important assessment information for the nurse to gather?

a. A list of all medications the person currently takes
b. Whether the person has experienced any recent losses
c. Whether the person has ingested aged or fermented foods
d. The person’s recent personality characteristics and changes

A

ANS: A
Delirium is often the result of medication interactions or toxicity. The distracters relate to MAOI (monoamine oxidase inhibitor) therapy and depression.

85
Q

A nurse gives anticipatory guidance to the family of a patient diagnosed with mild early stage Alzheimer’s disease. Which problem common to that stage should the nurse address?

a. Violent outbursts
b. Emotional disinhibition
c. Communication deficits
d. Inability to feed or bathe self

A

ANS: C
Families should be made aware that the patient will have difficulty concentrating and following or carrying on in-depth or lengthy conversations. The other symptoms and problems are usually seen at later stages of the disease.

86
Q

A patient diagnosed with moderate stage Alzheimer’s disease has a self-care deficit ofdressing and grooming. Designate appropriate interventions to include in the patient’s plan of care. (Select all that apply.)

a. Provide clothing with elastic and hook-and-loop closures.
b. Label clothing with the patient’s name and name of the item.
c. Administer antianxiety medication before bathing and dressing.
d. Provide necessary items and direct the patient to proceed independently.
e. If the patient resists dressing, use distraction and try again after a short interval.

A

ANS: A, B, E
Providing clothing with elastic and hook-and-loop closures facilitates patient independence. Labeling clothing with the patient’s name and the name of the item maintains patient identity and dignity (provides information if the patient has agnosia). When a patient resists, it is appropriate to use distraction and try again after a short interval because patient’s moods are often labile. The patient may be willing to cooperate given a later opportunity. Providing the necessary items for grooming and directing the patient to proceed independently are inappropriate. Be prepared to coach by giving step-by-step directions for each task as it occurs. Administering anxiolytic medication before bathing and dressing is inappropriate. This measure would result in unnecessary overmedication.

87
Q

Which assessment findings would the nurse expect in a patient experiencing delirium? (Select all that apply.)

a. Impaired level of consciousness
b. Disorientation to place, time
c. Wandering attention
d. Apathy
e. Agnosia

A

ANS: A, B, C
Disorientation to place and time is an expected finding. Orientation to person (self) usually remains intact. Attention span is short, and difficulty focusing or shifting attention as directed is often noted. Patients with delirium commonly experience illusions and hallucinations. Fluctuating levels of consciousness are expected. Agnosia occurs with dementia. Apathy is associated with depression.

88
Q

Which nursing diagnoses are most applicable for a patient diagnosed with severe late stage Alzheimer’s disease? (Select all that apply.)

a. Acute confusion
b. Anticipatory grieving
c. Urinary incontinence
d. Disturbed sleep pattern
e. Risk for caregiver role strain

A

ANS: C, D, E
The correct answers are consistent with problems frequently identified for patients with late-stage Alzheimer’s disease. Confusion is chronic, not acute. The patient’s cognition is too impaired to grieve.

89
Q

A health care provider recently convicted of Medicare fraud says to a nurse, “Sure I overbilled. Everyone takes advantage of the government. There are too many rules to follow and I deserve the money.” These statements show

a. shame.
b. suspiciousness.
c. superficial remorse.
d. lack of guilt feelings.

A

ANS: D
Rationalization is being used to explain behavior and deny wrongdoing. The individual who does not believe he or she has done anything wrong will not manifest anxiety, remorse, or guilt about the act. The patient’s remarks cannot be assessed as shameful. Lack of trust and concern that others are determined to do harm is not shown.

90
Q

Which intervention is appropriate for an individual diagnosed with an antisocial personality disorder who frequently manipulates others?

a. Refer requests and questions related to care to the case manager.
b. Encourage the patient to discuss feelings of fear and inferiority.
c. Provide negative reinforcement for acting-out behavior.
d. Ignore, rather than confront, inappropriate behavior.

A

ANS: A
Manipulative people frequently make requests of many different staff, hoping one will give in. Having one decision maker provides consistency and avoids the potential for playing one staff member against another. Positive reinforcement of appropriate behaviors is more effective than negative reinforcement. The behavior should not be ignored; judicious use of confrontation is necessary. Patients with antisocial personality disorders rarely have feelings of fear and inferiority.

91
Q

As a nurse prepares to administer medication to a patient diagnosed with a borderline personality disorder, the patient says, “Just leave it on the table. I’ll take it when I finish combing my hair.” What is the nurse’s best response?
a. Reinforce this assertive action by the patient. Leave the medication on the table as
requested.
b. Respond to the patient, “I’m worried that you might not take it. I’ll come back
later.”
c. Say to the patient, “I must watch you take the medication. Please take it now.” d. Ask the patient, “Why don’t you want to take your medication now?”

A

ANS: C
The individual with a borderline personality disorder characteristically demonstrates manipulative, splitting, and self-destructive behaviors. Consistent limit setting is vital not only for the patient’s safety, but also to prevent splitting other staff. “Why” questions are not therapeutic.

92
Q

What is an appropriate initial outcome for a patient diagnosed with a personality disorder who frequently manipulates others? The patient will

a. identify when feeling angry.
b. use manipulation only to get legitimate needs met.
c. acknowledge manipulative behavior when it is called to his or her attention.
d. accept fulfillment of his or her requests within an hour rather than immediately.

A

ANS: C
This is an early outcome that paves the way for later taking greater responsibility for controlling manipulative behavior. Identifying anger relates to anger and aggression control. Using manipulation to get legitimate needs is an inappropriate outcome. The patient would ideally use assertive behavior to promote need fulfillment. Accepting fulfillment of requests within an hour rather than immediately relates to impulsivity control.

93
Q

Consider this comment to three different nurses by a patient diagnosed with an antisocial personality disorder, “Another nurse said you don’t do your job right.” Collectively, these interactions can be assessed as

a. seductive.
b. detached.
c. manipulative.
d. guilt-producing.

A

ANS: C
Patients manipulate and control staff in various ways. By keeping staff off balance or fighting among themselves, the person with an antisocial personality disorder is left to operate as he or she pleases. Seductive behavior has sexual connotations. The patient is displaying the opposite of detached behavior. Guilt is not evident in the comments.

94
Q

A nurse reports to the treatment team that a patient diagnosed with an antisocial personality disorder has displayed the behaviors below. This patient is detached and superficial during counseling sessions. Which behavior by the patient most clearly warrants limit setting?

a. Flattering the nurse
b. Lying to other patients
c. Verbal abuse of another patient
d. Detached superficiality during counseling

A

ANS: C
Limits must be set in areas in which the patient’s behavior affects the rights of others. Limiting verbal abuse of another patient is a priority intervention and particularly relevant when interacting with a patient diagnosed with an antisocial personality disorder. The other concerns should be addressed during therapeutic encounters.

95
Q

A patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder has a history of self-mutilation and suicide attempts. The patient reveals feelings of depression and anger with life. Which type of medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed?

a. Benzodiazepine
b. Mood stabilizing medication
c. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
d. Cholinesterase inhibitor

A

ANS: B
Mood stabilizing medications have been effective for many patients with borderline personality disorder. Cholinesterase inhibitors are prescribed for persons diagnosed with neurocognitive disorders. Use of anxiolytic medications is not supported by data given in the scenario. MAOIs require great diligence in adherence to a restricted diet and are rarely used for patients who are impulsive.

96
Q

A person’s spouse filed charges after repeatedly being battered. The person sarcastically says, “I’m sorry for what I did. I need psychiatric help.” Which statement by this person supports an antisocial personality disorder?

a. “I have a quick temper, but I can usually keep it under control.”
b. “I’ve done some stupid things in my life, but I’ve learned a lesson.”
c. “I’m feeling terrible about the way my behavior has hurt my family.”
d. “I hit because I am tired of being nagged. My spouse deserves the beating.”

A

ANS: D
The person with an antisocial personality disorder often impulsively acts out feelings of anger and feels no guilt or remorse. Persons with antisocial personality disorders rarely seem to learn from experience or feel true remorse. Problems with anger management and impulse control are common.

97
Q

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder who has made threats against staff, ripped art off the walls, and thrown objects?

a. Risk for other-directed violence
b. Risk for self-directed violence
c. Impaired social interaction
d. Ineffective denial

A

ANS: A
Violence against property, along with threats to harm staff, makes this diagnosis the priority. Patients with antisocial personality disorders have impaired social interactions, but the risk for harming others is a higher priority. They direct violence toward others; not self. When patients with antisocial personality disorders use denial, they use it effectively.

98
Q

When a patient diagnosed with a personality disorder uses manipulation to get needs met, the staff applies limit-setting interventions. What is the correct rationale for this action?

a. It provides an outlet for feelings of anger and frustration.
b. It respects the patient’s wishes, so assertiveness will develop.
c. External controls are necessary due to failure of internal control.
d. Anxiety is reduced when staff assumes responsibility for the patient’s behavior.

A

ANS: C
A lack of internal controls leads to manipulative behaviors such as lying, cheating, conning, and flattering. To protect the rights of others, external controls must be consistently maintained until the patient is able to behave appropriately.

99
Q

One month ago, a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder and a history of self-mutilation began dialectical behavior therapy. Today the patient phones to say, “I feel empty and want to hurt myself.” The nurse should

a. arrange for emergency inpatient hospitalization.
b. send the patient to the crisis intervention unit for 8 to 12 hours.
c. assist the patient to choose coping strategies for triggering situations.
d. advise the patient to take an antianxiety medication to decrease the anxiety level.

A

ANS: C
The patient has responded appropriately to the urge for self-harm by calling a helping individual. A component of dialectical behavior therapy is telephone access to the therapist for “coaching” during crises. The nurse can assist the patient to choose an alternative to self-mutilation. The need for a protective environment may not be necessary if the patient is able to use cognitive strategies to determine a coping strategy that will reduce the urge to mutilate. Taking a sedative and going to sleep should not be the first-line intervention because sedation may reduce the patient’s ability to weigh alternatives to mutilating behavior.

100
Q

What is the most challenging nursing intervention with patients diagnosed with personality disorders who use manipulation?

a. Supporting behavioral change
b. Maintaining consistent limits
c. Monitoring suicide attempts
d. Using aversive therapy

A

ANS: B
Maintaining consistent limits is by far the most difficult intervention because of the patient’s superior skills at manipulation. Supporting behavioral change and monitoring patient safety are less difficult tasks. Aversive therapy would probably not be part of the care plan because positive reinforcement strategies for acceptable behavior seem to be more effective than aversive techniques.

101
Q

The history shows that a newly admitted patient is impulsive. The nurse would expect behavior characterized by

a. adherence to a strict moral code.
b. manipulative, controlling strategies.
c. acting without thought on urges or desires.
d. postponing gratification to an appropriate time.

A

ANS: C
The impulsive individual acts in haste without taking time to consider the consequences of the action. None of the other options describes impulsivity.

102
Q

A patient says, “I get in trouble sometimes because I make quick decisions and act on them.” Select the nurse’s most therapeutic response.

a. “Let’s consider the advantages of being able to stop and think before acting.”
b. “It sounds as though you’ve developed some insight into your situation.”
c. “I bet you have some interesting stories to share about overreacting.”
d. “It’s good that you’re showing readiness for behavioral change.”

A

ANS: A
The patient is showing openness to learning techniques for impulse control. One technique is to teach the patient to stop and think before acting impulsively. The patient can then be taught to evaluate outcomes of possible actions and choose an effective action. The incorrect responses shift the encounter to a social level or are judgmental.

103
Q

A patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder was hospitalized several times after multiple episodes of head banging and carving on both wrists. The patient remains impulsive. Which nursing diagnosis is the initial focus of this patient’s care?

a. Self-mutilation
b. Impaired skin integrity
c. Risk for injury
d. Powerlessness

A

ANS: A
The scenario describes self-mutilation. Self-mutilation is a nursing diagnosis relating to patient safety needs and is therefore of high priority. Impaired skin integrity and powerlessness may be appropriate foci for care but are not the priority related to this therapy. Risk for injury implies accidental injury, which is not the case for the patient with borderline personality disorder.

104
Q

Which statement made by a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder indicates the treatment plan is effective?

a. “I think you are the best nurse on the unit.”
b. “I’m never going to get high on drugs again.”
c. “I felt empty and wanted to hurt myself, so I called you.”
d. “I hate my mother. I called her today, and she wasn’t home.”

A

ANS: C
Seeking a staff member instead of impulsively self-mutilating shows an adaptive coping strategy. The incorrect responses demonstrate idealization, devaluation, and wishful thinking.

105
Q

When preparing to interview a patient diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder, a nurse can anticipate the assessment findings will include

a. preoccupation with minute details; perfectionist.
b. charm, drama, seductiveness; seeking admiration.
c. difficulty being alone; indecisive, submissiveness.
d. grandiosity, self-importance, and a sense of entitlement.

A

ANS: D
The characteristics of grandiosity, self-importance, and entitlement are consistent with narcissistic personality disorder. Charm, drama, seductiveness, and admiration seeking are seen in patients with histrionic personality disorder. Preoccupation with minute details and perfectionism are seen in individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Patients with dependent personality disorder often express difficulty being alone and are indecisive and submissive.

106
Q

For which behavior would limit setting be most essential? The patient who

a. clings to the nurse and asks for advice about inconsequential matters.
b. is flirtatious and provocative with staff members of the opposite sex.
c. is hypervigilant and refuses to attend unit activities.
d. urges a suspicious patient to hit anyone who stares.

A

ANS: D
This is a manipulative behavior. Because manipulation violates the rights of others, limit setting is absolutely necessary. Furthermore, limit setting is necessary in this case because the safety of at least two other patients is at risk. Limit setting may occasionally be used with dependent behavior (clinging to the nurse) and histrionic behavior (flirting with staff members), but other therapeutic techniques are also useful. Limit setting is not needed for a patient who is hypervigilant and refuses to attend unit activities; rather, the need to develop trust is central to patient compliance.

107
Q

The nurse caring for an individual demonstrating symptoms of schizotypal personality
disorder would expect assessment findings to include
a. arrogant, grandiose, and a sense of self-importance.
b. attention seeking, melodramatic, and flirtatious.
c. impulsive, restless, socially aggressive behavior.
d. socially anxious, rambling stories, peculiar ideas.

A

ANS: D
Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder do not want to be involved in relationships. They are shy and introverted, speak little, and prefer fantasy and daydreaming to being involved with real people. The other behaviors would characteristically be noted in narcissistic, histrionic, and antisocial personality disorder. (The educator may reformat this question as multiple response.)

108
Q

Others describe a worker as very shy and lacking in self-confidence. This worker stays in an office cubicle all day, never coming out for breaks or lunch. Which term best describes this behavior?

a. Narcissistic
b. Histrionic c. Avoidant d. Paranoid

A

ANS: C
Patients with avoidant personality disorder are timid, socially uncomfortable, withdrawn, and avoid situations in which they might fail. They believe themselves to be inferior and unappealing. Individuals with histrionic personality disorder are seductive, flamboyant, shallow, and attention-seeking. Paranoia and narcissism are not evident.

109
Q

What is the priority intervention for a nurse beginning to work with a patient diagnosed with a schizotypal personality disorder?

a. Respect the patient’s need for periods of social isolation.
b. Prevent the patient from violating the nurse’s rights.
c. Teach the patient how to select clothing for outings.
d. Engage the patient in community activities.

A

ANS: A
Patients with schizotypal personality disorder are eccentric and often display perceptual and cognitive distortions. They are suspicious of others and have considerable difficulty trusting. They become highly anxious and frightened in social situations, thus the need to respect their desire for social isolation. Teaching the patient to match clothing is not the priority intervention. Patients with schizotypal personality disorder rarely engage in behaviors that violate the nurse’s rights or exploit the nurse.

110
Q

A patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder self-inflicted wrist lacerations after gaining new privileges on the unit. In this case, the self-mutilation may have been due to

a. an inherited disorder that manifests itself as an incapacity to tolerate stress.
b. use of projective identification and splitting to bring anxiety to manageable levels.
c. a constitutional inability to regulate affect, predisposing to psychic disorganization.
d. fear of abandonment associated with progress toward autonomy and independence.

A

ANS: D
Fear of abandonment is a central theme for most patients with borderline personality disorder. This fear is often exacerbated when patients with borderline personality disorder experience success or growth.

111
Q

A patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder has self-inflicted wrist lacerations. The health care provider prescribes daily dressing changes. The nurse performing this care should

a. maintain a stern and authoritarian affect.
b. provide care in a matter-of-fact manner.
c. encourage the patient to express anger.
d. be very rigid and challenging.

A

ANS: B
A matter-of-fact approach does not provide the patient with positive reinforcement for self-mutilation. The goal of providing emotional consistency is supported by this approach. The distracters provide positive reinforcement of the behavior or fail to show compassion.

112
Q

A nurse set limits while interacting with a patient demonstrating behaviors associated with borderline personality disorder. The patient tells the nurse, “You used to care about me. I thought you were wonderful. Now I can see I was wrong. You’re evil.” This outburst can be assessed as

a. denial.
b. splitting.
c. defensive.
d. reaction formation.

A

ANS: B
Splitting involves loving a person, then hating the person because the patient is unable to recognize that an individual can have both positive and negative qualities. Denial is unconsciously motivated refusal to believe something. Reaction formation involves unconsciously doing the opposite of a forbidden impulse. The scenario does not indicate defensiveness.

113
Q

Which characteristic of personality disorders makes it most necessary for staff to schedule frequent team meetings in order to address the patient’s needs and maintain a therapeutic milieu?

a. Ability to achieve true intimacy
b. Flexibility and adaptability to stress
c. Ability to provoke interpersonal conflict
d. Inability to develop trusting relationships

A

ANS: C
Frequent team meetings are held to counteract the effects of the patient’s attempts to split staff and set them against one another, causing interpersonal conflict. Patients with personality disorders are inflexible and demonstrate maladaptive responses to stress. They are usually unable to develop true intimacy with others and are unable to develop trusting relationships. Although problems with trust may exist, it is not the characteristic that requires frequent staff meetings.

114
Q

A nursing diagnosis appropriate to consider for a patient diagnosed with any of the personality disorders is

a. nonadherence.
b. impaired social interaction.
c. disturbed personal identity.
d. diversional activity deficit.

A

ANS: B
Without exception, individuals with personality disorders have problems with social interaction with others; hence, the diagnosis of “impaired social interaction.” For example, some individuals are suspicious and lack trust, others are avoidant, and still others are manipulative. None of the other diagnoses are universally applicable to patients with personality disorders; each might apply to selected clinical diagnoses, but not to others.

115
Q

A new psychiatric technician says, “Schizophrenia … schizotypal! What’s the difference?” The nurse’s response should include which information?

a. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is not usually overtly psychotic.
b. In schizotypal personality disorder, the patient remains psychotic much longer.
c. With schizotypal personality disorder, the person can be made aware of misinterpretations of reality.
d. Schizotypal personality disorder causes more frequent and more prolonged hospitalizations than schizophrenia.

A

ANS: C
The patient with schizotypal personality disorder might have problems thinking, perceiving,
and communicating and might have an odd, eccentric appearance; however, they can be made aware of misinterpretations and overtly psychotic symptoms are usually absent. The individual with schizophrenia is more likely to display psychotic symptoms, remain ill for longer periods, and have more frequent and prolonged hospitalizations.

116
Q

Personality traits most likely to be documented regarding a patient demonstrating characteristics of an obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are

a. affable, generous.
b. perfectionist, inflexible.
c. suspicious, holds grudges.
d. dramatic speech, impulsive.

A

ANS: B
The individual with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is perfectionist, rigid, preoccupied with rules and procedures, and afraid of making mistakes. The other options refer to behaviors or traits not usually associated with OCPD.

117
Q

A nurse determines desired outcomes for a patient diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder. Select the best outcome. The patient will

a. adhere willingly to unit norms.
b. report decreased incidence of self-mutilative thoughts.
c. demonstrate fewer attempts at splitting or manipulating staff.
d. demonstrate ability to introduce self to a stranger in a social situation.

A

ANS: D
Schizotypal individuals have poor social skills. Social situations are uncomfortable for them. It is desirable for the individual to develop the ability to meet and socialize with others. Individuals with schizotypal PD (Personality Disorder) usually have no issues with adherence to unit norms, nor are they self-mutilative or manipulative.

118
Q

A patient says, “The other nurses won’t give me my medication early, but you know what it’s like to be in pain and don’t let your patients suffer. Could you get me my pill now? I won’t tell anyone.” Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
a. “I’m not comfortable doing that,” and then ignore subsequent requests for early
medication.
b. “I understand that you have pain, but giving medicine too soon would not be safe.”
c. “I’ll have to check with your doctor about that; I will get back to you after I do.”
d. “It would be unsafe to give the medicine early; none of us will do that.”

A

ANS: B
The patient is attempting to manipulate the nurse. Empathetic mirroring reflects back to the patient the nurse’s understanding of the patient’s distress or situation in a neutral manner that does not judge it and helps elicit a more positive response to the limit that is being set. The other options would not be nontherapeutic; they lack the empathetic mirroring component that tends to elicit a more positive response from the patient.

119
Q

A nurse plans care for an individual diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which characteristic behaviors will the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

a. Reclusive behavior
b. Callous attitude
c. Perfectionism
d. Aggression
e. Clinginess
f. Anxiety

A

ANS: B, D
Individuals with antisocial personality disorders characteristically demonstrate manipulative, exploitative, aggressive, callous, and guilt-instilling behaviors. Individuals with antisocial personality disorders are more extroverted than reclusive, rarely show anxiety, and rarely demonstrate clinging or dependent behaviors. Individuals with antisocial personality disorders are more likely to be impulsive than to be perfectionists.

120
Q

For which patients diagnosed with personality disorders would a family history of similar problems be most likely? (Select all that apply.)

a. Obsessive-compulsive
b. Antisocial
c. Borderline
d. Schizotypal
e. Narcissistic

A

ANS: A, B, C, D
Some personality disorders have evidence of genetic links, so the family history would show other members with similar traits. Heredity plays a role in schizotypal, antisocial, borderline, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

121
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) 75 mg BID to treat schizophrenia. A family member tells the nurse that the patient’s agitation, hallucinations, and delusional symptoms have improved with use of the drug, but the patient continues to withdraw from social interaction and won’t bathe unless reminded to do so. The nurse will tell the family member that:
a. all symptoms will eventually resolve over time with this medication.
b. the patient may need an increased dose of their current antipsychotic medication.
c. these results may indicate that the patient does not have schizophrenia.
d. they should consider discussing changing the chlorpromazine to an atypical
antipsychotic.

A
ANS: D
Chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic medication; drugs in this class manage positive symptoms rather than the negative symptoms of withdrawal and poor self-care. It is not likely that the negative symptoms will improve over time with this medication. Atypical antipsychotics can help with both positive and negative symptoms, so it would be worthwhile discussing a change in medication to see if the patient’s negative symptoms could be improved. Increasing the dose will not improve control of negative symptoms. This patient exhibits signs of schizophrenia
122
Q

The nurse is assessing a young adult patient with schizophrenia who recently began taking fluphenazine (Prolixin). The patient is exhibiting spasms of facial muscles along with grimacing, and the nurse notes upward eye movements. The nurse suspects which side effect?

a. Acute dystonia
b. Akathisia
c. Pseudoparkinsonism
d. Tardive dyskinesia

A

ANS: A
Acute dystonia can occur within days of taking typical antipsychotics, and facial muscle spasms, grimacing, and upward eye movements are characteristic of this side effect. Akathisia is characterized by restlessness, pacing, and difficulty standing still. Pseudoparkinsonism is characterized by stooped posture, pill-rolling, shuffling gait, and tremors at rest. Tardive dyskinesia manifests as protrusion and rolling of the tongue, smacking of the lips, and involuntary movement of the body and extremities.

123
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer loxapine (Loxitane) 50 mg to a patient who has schizophrenia. The patient has been taking this medication twice daily for 15 months. The nurse notes smacking lip movements and involuntary movements of all extremities. Which initial action by the nurse would be most appropriate?

a. Administer the medication as ordered to treat these symptoms of psychosis.
b. Hold the dose and notify the provider of these medication adverse effects.
c. Request an order for an anticholinergic medication such as benztropine (Cogentin).
d. Suggest that the provider increase the dose to 125 mg twice daily.

A

ANS: B
Tardive dyskinesia manifests as protrusion and rolling of the tongue, smacking of the lips, and involuntary movement of the body and extremities and is a serious adverse effect of antipsychotic medications. The provider should be notified, so the drug can be stopped and a different medication ordered. These are not symptoms of psychosis. Anticholinergic medications are used to combat acute dystonia. Increasing the dose of this medication would potentially exacerbate these adverse effects.

124
Q

A patient who takes loxapine (Loxitane) to treat schizophrenia is noted to be restless and fidgety and is pacing around the room. The nurse caring for this patient will perform which action?
a. Contact the provider to discuss changing to benztropine (Cogentin).
b. Notify the provider of these symptoms and request an order for lorazepam
(Ativan).
c. Question the patient about adherence to the drug regimen.
d. Recognize that patients with schizophrenia normally present in this fashion.

A

ANS: B
The patient is exhibiting signs of akathisia and should be treated with an antianxiety drug. Benztropine is an anticholinergic used to combat acute dystonia. These are not signs of psychosis, so it is not necessary to question whether or not the patient is taking the medication.

125
Q

A patient arrives in the emergency department with dehydration. The patient reports taking fluphenazine (Prolixin) to treat schizophrenia. The nurse notes rigid muscles and an altered mental status. The patient has a temperature of 103.6° F, a heart rate of 98 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/58 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication?

a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Haloperidol (Haldol)
c. Propranolol (Inderal)
d. Tetrabenazine (Xenazine)

A

ANS: A
The patient is exhibiting signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). Muscle relaxants, such as dantrolene, are usually given. Haloperidol is used to treat psychosis. Propranolol is used for treating akathisia. Tetrabenazine is sometimes used to treat symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.

126
Q

The parent of a young adult who has schizophrenia is concerned that the patient spits out pills that are given. The nurse will suggest contacting the patient’s provider to discuss which intervention?
a. Changing to a liquid or injectable form of the mediation
b. Providing a home health nurse to supervise medication administration
c. Teaching the patient the importance of taking the medication
d. Instruct the parent to administer another dose if they suspect the first dose wasn’t
swallowed

A

ANS: A
Noncompliance is common with antipsychotic medications. If patients spit out or hide pills, a liquid or injectable form can be considered. A home health nurse is costly and unnecessary. Teaching the patient the importance of the medication is essential, but not always effective if the patient does not want to take their medication. It is important not to double up on doses, so administering extra doses when it is suspected a dose was spit out would not be advised.

127
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer intramuscular haloperidol (Haldol) to a patient who has schizophrenia. What action will the nurse perform?

a. Massage the site after injecting the medication to ensure complete absorption.
b. Teach the patient to return every week to receive medication doses.
c. Use a small-bore needle when injecting the medication.
d. Use the Z-track method and inject the medication into deep muscle tissue.

A

ANS: D
Haloperidol is a viscous liquid and should be injected deep into muscle tissue using a Z-track method. The injection site should not be massaged. Injections of long-term preparations of haloperidol are given every 2 to 4 weeks. Nurses should use a large-bore needle when injecting haloperidol.

128
Q

The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home on a typical antipsychotic medication to treat schizophrenia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a. “I should not drink alcohol while taking this medication.”
b. “I should use a heating pad to treat muscle spasms while taking this medication.”
c. “I should use sunscreen while taking this medication.”
d. “I will need frequent blood tests while taking this medication.”

A

ANS: B
Dystonia can cause muscle spasms and should be reported to the provider, who can prescribe medications to treat this adverse effect. Patients should not drink alcohol, should use sunscreen, and will need close monitoring of lab values while taking these medications.

129
Q

A patient who is about to begin taking the atypical antipsychotic medication clozapine (Clozaril) is concerned about side effects. What information will the nurse include when teaching the patient about this medication?
a. “The most common side effects with this medication include dry mouth,
constipation, and urinary retention.”
b. “The most common side effects that you may experience are weight gain,
drowsiness, and headaches.”
c. “You will not experience extrapyramidal side effects with this medication.”
d. “You will not need frequent lab work while taking this medication.”

A

ANS: B
Weight gain, drowsiness, and headaches are common side effects of non-typical antipsychotic medications. Anticholinergic side effects are less likely than with typical antipsychotics. Extrapyramidal side effects can occur, even though they are less likely. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, so patients who are taking this drug require frequent monitoring.

130
Q

A family member of a patient who has been taking fluphenazine (Prolixin) for 3 months calls to report that the patient is exhibiting agitation and restlessness. The nurse learns that the patient’s delusional thinking and hallucinations have stopped since taking the medication. The nurse will perform which action?

a. Reassure the family member that tolerance to these side effects will subside over time.
b. Remind the family member that complete drug effects may not occur for several more weeks.
c. Suggest that the family member contact the provider to discuss an order for a medication to help with the agitation and restlessness.
d. Tell the family member to withhold the medication and notify the patient’s provider.

A

ANS: C
The patient is exhibiting signs of akathisia and should receive a benzodiazepine. Patients usually do not experience tolerance to these drug side effects. The patient is experiencing resolution of symptoms. Discontinuing antipsychotics abruptly may lead to withdrawal symptoms.

131
Q

A patient has been taking risperidone (Risperdal) for 2 weeks. The patient reports drowsiness and headache. What will the nurse do?

a. Counsel the patient to request changing to aripiprazole (Abilify).
b. Explain to the patient that these are common side effects of the medication.
c. Suggest that the patient have serum glucose testing.
d. Suggest that these may be signs of agranulocytosis.

A

ANS: B
Drowsiness and headaches are common side effects of atypical antipsychotics. It would be appropriate to counsel the patient to discuss the severity of these side effects with their provider. Changing to aripiprazole may not improve the symptoms, since this drug is in the same drug class. These symptoms do not indicate altered serum glucose levels or agranulocytosis.

132
Q

The nurse is performing a medication history on a patient who reports taking lorazepam (Ativan) for the past 6 months to treat an anxiety disorder. The patient states that the medication is not working as well as it previously did. The nurse will:

a. contact the provider to discuss changing to another benzodiazepine.
b. tell the patient to double their dose.
c. suspect worsening of the anxiety disorder.
d. understand that the patient has developed tolerance to this drug.

A

ANS: D
It is recommended that benzodiazepines be prescribed no longer than 3 or 4 months since the effectiveness lessens after 4 months as patients develop tolerance to the drug. Changing to another benzodiazepine will likely not change this, and it would be inappropriate to recommend that the patient double their dose without further evaluation. This does not indicate worsening of the underlying disorder.

133
Q

A patient who is taking chlorpromazine calls the clinic to report having reddish-brown urine. What action will the nurse take?

a. Notify the provider and request orders for creatinine clearance and BUN levels.
b. Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect of this medication.
c. Tell the patient to come to the clinic for a urinalysis.
d. Tell the patient to discard any drug on hand and request a new prescription.

A

ANS: B
Aliphatic phenothiazines, such as chlorpromazine, can cause a harmless pink or red-brown urine discoloration. There is no need to evaluate renal function with creatinine clearance, BUN, or urinalysis. The discoloration does not indicate that the medication has expired.

134
Q

A patient has begun taking buspirone hydrochloride (BuSpar) 7.5 mg twice daily to treat acute anxiety and calls 1 week later to report little change in symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient?
a. “Therapeutic effects may not be evident until you have taken the medication for
several weeks.”
b. “The provider may need to increase the dose to 15 mg twice daily.”
c. “Notify the provider and request an order for another anxiolytic.”
d. “Stop taking the drug and notify the provider that it doesn’t work.”

A

ANS: A
Buspirone hydrochloride may not be effective until 1 to 2 weeks after continuous use. It is not necessary to increase the dose at this time.

135
Q

A patient who is taking fluphenazine (Prolixin) to treat psychosis is experiencing symptoms of acute dystonia. While performing a medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes herbal medications. Which herbal supplement would be of concern?

a. Ginkgo
b. Ginseng
c. Kava kava
d. St. John’s wort

A

ANS: C

Kava may increase the risk and severity of dystonia when taken with phenothiazines.

136
Q

A patient is brought to the emergency department with decreased respirations and somnolence. The nurse notes a heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 80/58 mm Hg. The patient is known to take alprazolam (Xanax) to treat anxiety. Which medication will the nurse anticipate the provider to order?

a. Benztropine (Cogentin)
b. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
c. Lorazepam (Ativan)
d. Propranolol (Inderal)

A

ANS: B
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used to treat overdose of benzodiazepines. This patient is unconscious and has bradycardia and hypotension, so the antagonist medication is indicated. Benztropine is an anticholinergic used to treat acute dystonia in patients taking phenothiazines. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and would only intensify the symptoms. Propranolol is a beta blocker used to treat akathisia in patients taking phenothiazines.

137
Q

A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing, dizziness, sweating, and heart palpitations. The patient reports having had similar episodes previously due to stress at work. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication?

a. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
b. Haloperidol (Haldol)
c. Lorazepam (Ativan)
d. Propranolol (Inderal)

A

ANS: C
The patient is exhibiting signs of acute anxiety, so the anxiolytic lorazepam would be the appropriate agent of those listed to be administered. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist, given for overdose of benzodiazepines. Haloperidol is given for acute psychosis. Propranolol is a beta blocker, used to treat akathisia in patients taking phenothiazines.

138
Q

The nurse is teaching a patient about taking a benzodiazepine to treat grief-related anxiety. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

a. “I may have wine with dinner to help with relaxation.”
b. “I may need to take this medication forever.”
c. “I may stop taking the medication when my symptoms go away.”
d. “I should try psychotherapy or a support group in addition to the medication.”

A

ANS: D
Psychotherapy or support groups should be part of therapy, with anxiolytics added as needed. Patients taking benzodiazepines should not consume alcohol. Anxiolytic medications are generally given for a limited length of time, particularly when treating grief-related anxiety. Patients should not stop the medications abruptly.

139
Q

A nurse performs a medication history on a newly admitted patient. The patient reports taking amitriptyline (Elavil) 75 mg at bedtime for 6 weeks to treat depression. The patient reports having continued fatigue, lack of energy, and no improvement in mood. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which intervention?

a. Beginning to down-taper the amitriptyline
b. Changing to a morning dose schedule
c. Giving the amitriptyline twice daily
d. Increasing the dose of amitriptyline

A
ANS: A
The response to tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) should occur after 2 to 4 weeks of therapy. If there is no improvement at that time, the TCA should be gradually withdrawn and an agent from another class should be prescribed. TCAs should never be stopped abruptly. TCAs cause fatigue and drowsiness, so they should be given at bedtime. Changing the dose or the dosing schedule is not indicated in this scenario.
140
Q

The nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking doxepin (Sinequan) to treat depression.
Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
a. “I should expect results within 2 to 4 weeks.”
b. “I should increase fluids and fiber while taking this medication to avoid
constipation.”
c. “I should take care when rising from a sitting to standing position.”
d. “I will take the medication in the morning before breakfast.”

A
ANS: D
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) should begin to show effects within 1 to 4 weeks. Tricyclic antidepressants are known to cause orthostatic hypotension and constipation, so patients should be counseled on how to manage these side effects. TCAs should be taken at bedtime because of their tendency to cause drowsiness.
141
Q

A patient who is taking amitriptyline (Elavil) reports constipation and dry mouth. The patient notes that these side effects are a nuisance, but not severe. The nurse will give the patient which instruction?

a. Increase fluid intake.
b. Notify the provider.
c. Request another antidepressant.
d. Stop taking the medication immediately.

A

ANS: A
Constipation and dry mouth are common side effects of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), and patients should be taught to manage these symptoms. There is no need to notify the provider or to switch medications unless the side effects become too uncomfortable. Patients should not stop taking TCAs abruptly.

142
Q

A patient who has had a loss of interest in most activities, weight loss, and insomnia is diagnosed with major depressive disorder and will begin taking fluoxetine (Prozac) daily. The patient asks about the weekly dosing that a family member follows. What will the nurse tell the patient about a weekly dosing regimen?

a. It can be used after daily maintenance dosing proves effective and safe.
b. It is used after a trial of tricyclic antidepressant medication fails.
c. It is not effective for this type of depression and its symptoms.
d. It will cause more adverse effects than daily dosing regimens.

A

ANS: A
Before weekly dosing is begun, the patient should respond to a daily maintenance dose of 20 mg/day without serious effects. It is not necessary to undergo a trial of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). Weekly dosing is used for this type of depression, and although it may have some adverse effects, these are not more common than with daily dosing.

143
Q

A patient has been taking sertraline (Zoloft) 20 mg/mL oral concentrate, 1 mL daily for several weeks and reports being unable to sleep well. The patient’s depressive symptoms are well managed on the current dose. What will the nurse do next?

a. Ask the patient what time of day the medication is taken.
b. Counsel the patient to take the medication at bedtime.
c. Recommend asking the provider about weekly dosing.
d. Suggest that the patient request a lower dose.

A

ANS: A
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) can cause nervousness and insomnia. Patients can minimize these effects by taking the drug in the morning. The nurse should assess this with this patient. Taking the medication at bedtime will only increase the insomnia. Requesting a lower dose or changing to weekly dosing is not recommended.

144
Q

A patient has been taking paroxetine (Paxil) 20 mg per day for 2 weeks and reports a decrease in libido. Which action will the nurse take?

a. Counsel the patient to take the medication with food.
b. Reassure the patient that this side effect can decrease over time.
c. Suggest that the patient discuss a lower dose with the provider. d. Tell the patient to stop taking the drug and contact the provider.

A

ANS: B
Sexual side effects can occur with paroxetine, but often improve or ceae after 1 to 4 weeks of use. Taking the medication with food will not improve this side effect. Lowering the dose is not indicated. Patients should not abruptly stop taking SSRIs. If the patient continues to have sexual side effects after continued use they should discuss with their provider.

145
Q

A patient who has been diagnosed with social anxiety disorder will begin taking venlafaxine (Effexor). The nurse who performs a medication and dietary history will be concerned about ingestion of which substance or drug?

a. Coffee
b. Grapefruit juice
c. Oral hypoglycemic drug
d. St. John’s wort

A

ANS: D
The concurrent interaction of venlafaxine and St. John’s wort may increase the risk of serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Oral hypoglycemic drugs are concerning for patients who take lithium. Coffee and grapefruit juice are to be avoided by patients who take monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

146
Q

A male patient has been taking venlafaxine (Effexor) 37.5 mg daily for 2 weeks and reports an increase in blood pressure. The nurse understands that this is due to which of the following?

a. Increased serotonin levels.
b. Increased norepinephrine levels.
c. Increased dopamine levels.
d. Increased acetylcholine levels.

A

ANS: B
Venlafaxine is a serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) by reducing norepinephrine reuptake, norepinephrine levels are increased which can result in an increase in blood pressure.

147
Q

A patient who has been taking a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor for several months will begin taking amoxapine (Asendin) instead of the MAO inhibitor. The nurse will counsel the patient to begin taking the amoxapine:

a. along with the MAO inhibitor for several months.
b. at least 14 days after discontinuing the MAO inhibitor.
c. the day after the last dose of the MAO inhibitor.
d. while withdrawing the MAO inhibitor over several weeks.

A

ANS: B
Amoxapine is an atypical antidepressant that should not be taken with MAO inhibitors and should not be used within 14 days of taking a MAO inhibitor.

148
Q

A patient who has been diagnosed with depression asks why the provider has not ordered a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor to treat the disorder. The nurse will explain to the patient that MAO inhibitors:

a. are more expensive than other antidepressants.
b. are no longer approved for treating depression.
c. can cause profound hypotension.
d. require strict dietary restrictions.

A

ANS: D
MAO inhibitors have many food and drug interactions that can be fatal, and patients must adhere to strict dietary restrictions while taking these drugs. They are not more expensive than the newer antidepressants. They remain approved for treating depression. MAO inhibitors can cause profound hypertension in the presence of excess tyramine consumption.

149
Q

A patient who takes a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor asks the nurse about taking
over-the-counter medications to treat cold symptoms. Which medication will the nurse
counsel the patient to avoid while taking a MAO inhibitor?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Guaifenesin
c. Pseudoephedrine
d. Saline nasal spray

A

ANS: C
MAO inhibitors can cause hypertensive crises, which can be fatal when taken with sympathomimetic drugs such as pseudoephedrine.

150
Q

A patient who has major depressive disorder has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) 20 mg daily for 3 months and reports improved mood, less fatigue, and an increased ability to concentrate. The patient’s side effects have diminished. The only complaint from the patient is regarding the number of medications she has to take daily. What will the nurse counsel this patient to discuss with the provider?

a. Changing to once-weekly dosing
b. Decreasing the dose to 10 mg daily
c. Discontinuing the medication
d. Increasing the dose to 30 mg daily

A

ANS: A
Once patients have demonstrated control of symptoms with decreased side effects on the maintenance dose of 20 mg daily, patients may be considered for once-weekly dosing. The 20-mg dose is maintenance dosing, so decreasing or increasing the dose is not indicated. Patients should not stop taking the medication abruptly.

151
Q

A patient who has been diagnosed with major depression disorder has been ordered to take doxepin (Sinequan). The nurse will contact the provider if the patient’s medical history reveals a history of which condition?

a. Asthma
b. Glaucoma
c. Hypertension d. Hypoglycemia

A

ANS: B
Antidepressants, such as doxepin, that cause anticholinergic-like symptoms are contraindicated if the patient has glaucoma.

152
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of lithium (Lithobid) to a patient who has been
taking the drug as maintenance therapy to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse assesses the patient
and notes tremors and confusion. The patient’s latest serum lithium level was 2 mEq/L.
Which action will the nurse take?
a. Administer the dose.
b. Hold the dose and notify the provider.
c. Request an order for a higher dose.
d. Request an order for a lower dose.

A

ANS: B
The patient has symptoms of lithium toxicity, and the serum drug level is in the toxic range. The nurse should hold the dose and notify the provider.

153
Q

The nurse assesses a patient who is taking lithium (Lithobid) and notes a large output of clear, dilute urine. The nurse suspects which cause for this finding?

a. Cardiovascular complications
b. Expected lithium side effects
c. Increased mania
d. Lithium toxicity

A

ANS: D

An increased output of dilute urine is a sign of lithium toxicity.

154
Q

The nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking lithium (Lithobid). Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

a. “I may drink tea or cola but not coffee.”
b. “I may stop taking the drug when mania symptoms subside.”
c. “I should consume a sodium-restricted diet.”
d. “I should drink 2 to 3 liters of fluid each day.”

A

ANS: D
Patients taking lithium should be encouraged to maintain adequate fluid intake of 2 to 3 L/day initially and then 1 to 2 L/day as maintenance. Patients should not drink any caffeine-containing drinks, including tea and cola. Patients must continue taking lithium even when symptoms subside, or else symptoms will recur. It is not necessary to consume a sodium-restricted diet.

155
Q

A patient who has recently begun taking lithium (Lithobid) calls the clinic to report nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and hand tremor. What will the nurse do next?

a. Contact the provider to obtain an order for a serum lithium level.
b. Reassure the patient that these symptoms are common and transient.
c. Tell the patient that the lithium dose is probably too low.
d. Tell the patient to stop taking the medication immediately.

A

ANS: A
Early symptoms of lithium toxiNcity include nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and tremor. The nurse should obtain an order for a lithium level to evaluate this. Patients should be encouraged to report these symptoms if they occur. Patients should never be counseled to stop the medication abruptly.

156
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer paroxetine HCl (Paxil) to a 70-year-old patient. The nurse understands that this patient may require

a. a decreased dose.
b. an increased dose.
c. every other day dosing.
d. more frequent dosing.

A

ANS: A

Older adults usually need a lower dose of antidepressants.

157
Q

A patient who has a history of migraine headaches is diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The nurse might expect the provider to order which medication for this patient?

a. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
b. Divalproex (Valproate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Lithium citrate (Eskalith)

A

ANS: B
All of these medications may be used to treat bipolar disorder, but divalproex also carries an indication for migraine prophylaxis.

158
Q

The nurse is teaching a patient about foods to avoid when taking isocarboxazid (Marplan). Which foods will the nurse instruct the patient to avoid? (Select all that apply.)

a. Bananas
b. Bread
c. Eggs
d. Red wine
e. Sausage
f. Yogurt

A

ANS: A, D, E, F
Aged cheeses and wines are the chief foods that are prohibited. Any food containing tyramine, which has sympathomimetic effects, can cause a hypertensive crisis. This includes bananas, red wine, sausage, and yogurt.